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Question 1
Correct
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You go on a home visit to see Mrs. Jones, an elderly woman who is suffering from an acute diarrhoeal illness she picked up from her grandchildren. Her past medical history includes: ischaemic heart disease, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolaemia, and osteoarthritis. Her medications are bisoprolol 2.5mg OD, ramipril 2.5mg OD, aspirin 75 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg OD, metformin 1g BD, atorvastatin 40 mg ON, and paracetamol 1g PRN. Her pulse is 92/min, blood pressure 152/82 mmHg, oxygen saturations 97%, respiratory rate 16/min. Her tongue looks a little dry, abdomen is soft and non-tender, with very active bowel sounds. After examining her, you feel she is well enough to stay at home, and you prescribe some rehydration sachets and arrange telephone review for the following day.
What other medication changes should you advise Mrs. Jones to make immediately?Your Answer: Suspend metformin
Explanation:During intercurrent illness such as diarrhoea and vomiting, it is important to suspend the use of metformin as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as it may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbance while the patient is unwell. Similarly, there is no indication to double the dose of lansoprazole. Suspending ramipril is also not necessary as there is no evidence of acute electrolyte disturbance. However, reducing the dose of paracetamol to 500 mg may be considered if the patient has a low body weight.
The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and liver dysfunction (cholestatic). Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl presents with diffuse lower limb bone pain and tenderness. Her past medical history and family history are mostly unknown, but she is known to have been malnourished and is currently under the care of social services.
During examination, she appears malnourished and pale, with bossing of her forehead, bowing of her legs, and prominent kyphoscoliosis of her spine. She has a waddling gait when walking, and her weight is below the 2nd centile according to a growth chart.
What radiological feature may be observed given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Joint widening
Explanation:Rickets can cause joint widening due to an excess of non-mineralized osteoid at the growth plate. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms of forehead bossing, bowing of the legs, waddling gait, bone pain, and kyphoscoliosis of the spine. The patient’s malnourishment and pale appearance suggest a possible dietary deficiency of vitamin D, which can lead to inadequate mineralization of developing bones. Ballooning, joint space narrowing, and osteolysis are not associated with rickets and do not explain the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Rickets: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Rickets is a condition that occurs when bones in developing and growing bodies are inadequately mineralized, resulting in soft and easily deformed bones. This condition is usually caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. In adults, a similar condition called osteomalacia can occur.
There are several factors that can predispose individuals to rickets, including a dietary deficiency of calcium, prolonged breastfeeding, unsupplemented cow’s milk formula, and lack of sunlight. Symptoms of rickets include aching bones and joints, lower limb abnormalities such as bow legs or knock knees, swelling at the costochondral junction (known as the rickety rosary), kyphoscoliosis, and soft skull bones in early life (known as craniotabes).
To diagnose rickets, doctors may perform tests to measure vitamin D levels, serum calcium levels, and alkaline phosphatase levels. Treatment for rickets typically involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
In summary, rickets is a condition that affects bone development and can lead to soft and easily deformed bones. It is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D and can be predisposed by several factors. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, limb abnormalities, and swelling at the costochondral junction. Treatment involves oral vitamin D supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later, he is admitted to hospital with weight loss, palpitations, breathlessness and right ventricular hypertrophy. On examination he is found to have an audible pan systolic murmur.
Which heart valve is most likely to have been affected following rheumatic fever?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral
Explanation:Rheumatic Heart Disease and Valve Involvement
Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that results from acute rheumatic fever and causes progressive damage to the heart valves over time. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve, with damage patterns varying by age. Younger patients tend to have regurgitation, while those in adolescence have a mix of regurgitation and stenosis, and early adulthood onwards tend to have pure mitral stenosis. Aortic valve involvement can also occur later in life. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing mitral regurgitation, causing palpitations and breathlessness. While the pulmonary valve can be affected, it is rare, and tricuspid involvement is even rarer and only present in advanced stages. Aortic valve involvement can produce similar symptoms, but with different murmurs on examination. When the aortic valve is involved, all leaflets are affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She has been experiencing nighttime itching around her bottom and has mentioned to her father that she has seen small white strands moving in her stool. She is not constipated and is generally healthy. No one else in the household has reported similar symptoms. The girl lives with her father and her two-year-old brother.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, as his sister is too young
Explanation:It is recommended to treat asymptomatic household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they show no symptoms. In the case of this boy with threadworms, the appropriate course of action would be to administer Mebendazole and advise on hygiene measures for both the patient and his parents. It is not necessary to send a sample to the laboratory for confirmation as empirical treatment is recommended. Advising on hygiene and fluid intake alone would not be sufficient to treat the infection. It is important to note that Mebendazole should not be given to children under six months old, so treating the patient’s three-month-old sister is not appropriate. Permethrin is not a suitable treatment for threadworms as it is used to treat scabies.
Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening at his GP's office. During the ultrasound, it is discovered that he has a supra-renal aneurysm measuring 4.9 cm in diameter. The patient reports no symptoms. What is the appropriate management plan for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-monthly ultrasound assessment
Explanation:For medium aneurysms (4.5-5.4 cm), it is recommended to undergo ultrasound assessment every 3 months to monitor any rapid diameter increase that may increase the risk of rupture. Small AAAs (<4.5 cm) have a low risk of rupture and may only require ultrasound assessment every 12 months. However, patients with AAAs who smoke should be referred to stop-smoking services to reduce their risk of developing or rupturing an AAA. Urgent surgical referral to vascular surgery is necessary for patients with large aneurysms (>5.4 cm) or rapidly enlarging aneurysms to prevent rupture.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male was playing a soccer match when he suddenly felt a 'pop' in his right foot while attempting a kick. He experienced significant pain and was unable to properly bear weight on the affected side. He is brought to the emergency department. During the examination, he is instructed to lie face down with his feet hanging off the edge of the examination bed. Upon squeezing the calf on the affected leg, there was no movement of his foot. What would be the primary imaging technique to confirm the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound (US) scan
Explanation:Ultrasound is the preferred imaging method for diagnosing a suspected Achilles tendon rupture. This is because it is a quick and easy test to carry out and can provide an accurate diagnosis in the first instance. The patient’s presentation, including an audible pop and Simmonds’ test positivity, strongly suggests an Achilles tendon rupture. While CT and MRI scans can also detect this injury, they are not the first-line choice due to their higher radiation exposure and longer testing times. Dismissing the need for imaging and assuming a simple sprain would be incorrect in this case, as the patient requires further testing to confirm or rule out an Achilles tendon rupture.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and overall weakness. She denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, the patient has conjunctival pallor and an inflamed, red tongue. Initial blood tests show a macrocytic anemia. Further testing reveals positive antiparietal cell antibodies.
What result is most likely to be found upon further investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low vitamin B12
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms
Pernicious anaemia, coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, and multiple myeloma are among the possible conditions that may cause low vitamin B12 levels and related symptoms. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disorder that affects the gastric mucosa and impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency and anaemia. Coeliac disease is a chronic immune-mediated enteropathy that affects the small intestine and causes malabsorption of nutrients, including vitamin B12. Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and cause various symptoms, including diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Multiple myeloma is a malignant plasma cell disorder that can cause bone pain, anaemia, and other symptoms, but is less likely to present with low vitamin B12 levels as the primary feature.
The differential diagnosis of these conditions may involve various tests and procedures, such as blood tests for antibodies and vitamin B12 levels, endoscopy with biopsies of the duodenum or colon, and bone marrow examination. The specific findings on these tests can help to distinguish between the different conditions and guide further management. For example, the presence of parietal cell antibodies and intrinsic factor antibodies in the blood may support a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia, while villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia in the duodenal biopsies may suggest coeliac disease. Transmural inflammation with granuloma formation in the colon biopsies may indicate Crohn’s disease, while plasma cell infiltration in the bone marrow may suggest multiple myeloma.
Overall, the diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms requires a thorough evaluation of the clinical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, as well as consideration of the possible differential diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man who has received a transplant of the left kidney is exhibiting symptoms that suggest hyperacute rejection of the transplant. What is the probable time frame for this type of rejection to occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Within minutes of transplantation
Explanation:Understanding the Types and Timing of Transplant Rejection
Transplant rejection can occur in different types and at different times after transplantation. Hyperacute rejection is the earliest and occurs within minutes of transplantation due to pre-existing donor-specific antibodies. This reaction is complement-mediated and irreversible, requiring prompt removal of the transplanted tissue. Acute rejection can occur up to 3 months after transplantation and is cell-mediated, involving the activation of phagocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Rejection that occurs in the first few days after transplantation is known as accelerated acute rejection. Chronic rejection, which is controversial, involves antibody-mediated vascular damage and can occur months to years after transplantation. Blood group matching can minimize hyperacute rejection, while monitoring and immunosuppressive therapy can help prevent and treat other types of rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history of painless rectal bleeding. She reports seeing blood on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl after defecation. The blood is not mixed with the stool, and there is no associated weight loss or change in bowel habit. She gave birth to twin boys after an uncomplicated pregnancy and normal vaginal delivery. She has no past medical or family history of note.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Understanding Haemorrhoids: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can affect individuals of all ages, but pregnancy is a known risk factor. Contrary to previous beliefs, haemorrhoids are not simply varicose veins, but rather enlarged vascular cushions with a complex anatomy. The main function of these cushions is to help maintain continence, but when they become enlarged or prolapsed, they can cause a range of symptoms.
The most common symptom of haemorrhoids is rectal bleeding, which may be visible on toilet paper or in the toilet bowl. Other symptoms may include mucous discharge, pruritus, and soiling episodes due to incomplete closure of the anal sphincter. However, pain is not a typical feature of first-degree haemorrhoids, unless they become thrombosed.
To confirm the diagnosis of haemorrhoids, a thorough examination is necessary, including an abdominal assessment and proctoscopy. It is important to rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as fissure-in-ano, perianal haematoma, anorectal abscess, or colorectal carcinoma (especially in older patients).
Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of haemorrhoids can help healthcare providers provide appropriate management and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a preterm neonate in the neonatal unit. During the examination of the palate, you observe a white nodule on the roof of the mouth. The baby is alert and active, and there is no interference with feeding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl
Explanation:Epstein’s pearls, which are located in the middle of the posterior hard palate, can be mistaken for neonatal teeth. However, unlike neonatal teeth, Epstein’s pearls do not need any treatment. Bohn’s nodules, on the other hand, are situated on the inner labial aspect of the maxillary alveolar ridges. Dermoid cysts, which may contain teeth, are not commonly found in the oral cavity. Oral candida infection can manifest as white patches on the interior of the mouth.
Understanding Epstein’s Pearl
Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman slipped and fell on her left hand, resulting in injury to her left anatomical snuffbox. Which structures are more likely to be affected by an injury to the anatomical snuffbox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial artery
Explanation:Anatomical Snuffbox and Nerve and Artery Relations in the Wrist
The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral side of the wrist, bounded by tendons and limited above by the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the scaphoid and the trapezium and is crossed by the radial artery.
The radial nerve can be damaged by a midshaft humerus fracture, leading to wrist drop, but it does not pass over the anatomical snuffbox. The median nerve can be compressed when passing through the carpal tunnel, causing tingling and numbness in the hand, but it has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar nerve can be compressed in the cubital fossa, leading to numbness and tingling in the fourth and fifth fingers, but it also has no relation to the snuffbox. The ulnar artery is on the medial side of the wrist and has no relation to the snuffbox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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If you were searching for evidence on which age group is most susceptible to experiencing psychiatric disturbances while taking Tamiflu, which type of study would be the most likely source of information?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nested case-control study
Explanation:Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety
By definition, rare case reports of psychiatric disturbance cannot be identified through standard clinical development programmes that involve studying up to 5,000 patients. Conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to yield significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not provide sufficient information to establish causality, and cohort studies may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. Therefore, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study involves comparing a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences. By using this method, researchers can gather more detailed information and draw more accurate conclusions about the safety of the drug. Proper investigation of rare case reports is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of patients who use the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with acute appendicitis. You are evaluating his suitability for surgery.
He has no relevant medical history, his blood pressure is being monitored by his GP but he has not yet been prescribed any medication for it. He does not smoke and drinks a couple of beers with his meals on Fridays and Saturdays.
The nursing staff have recorded his vital signs, height, and weight. His heart rate is 98 /min, respiratory rate is 17 /min, temperature is 37.8ºC, blood pressure is 148/93 mmHg, and saturations are 99% on room air. He is 178 cm tall, weighs 132 kg, and has a BMI of 41.6 kg/m².
An anaesthetist evaluates his American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) grade before surgery.
What ASA grade would you assign to this man based on the information provided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ASA III - patient with severe systemic disease
Explanation:Patients who have a BMI that falls under the morbidly obese category (greater than 40) are classified as ASA III. ASA grades are utilized by anaesthetists to evaluate the risk of anaesthesia for a patient. These grades are determined before surgery to determine the appropriate anaesthetic agents to use and to identify patients who may not be suitable for surgery or may not survive anaesthesia. When calculating a patient’s ASA, their medical history and social history are both taken into account. Current smoking and social alcohol consumption automatically classify a patient as ASA grade II. Morbid obesity is considered a severe disease and is therefore classified as ASA grade III.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. During the examination, she displays symptoms of anaphylaxis.
What is the initial sign that is likely to appear first in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Runny nose, skin rash, swelling of the lips
Explanation:Understanding the Signs of Anaphylaxis: From Early Symptoms to Late Indicators of Shock
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The first signs of anaphylaxis may look like normal symptoms of an allergy, such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips. However, if left untreated, more serious signs can appear within 30 minutes, indicating compromise of circulation and end-organs.
One of the later and more severe indicators of respiratory compromise in patients with anaphylaxis is stridor. This is a prominent wheezing sound caused by the obstruction of the airway due to swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling continues, complete blockage can occur, resulting in asphyxiation.
Hypotension is another late sign of anaphylaxis when the patient goes into shock. During anaphylaxis, the body reacts and releases chemicals such as histamine, causing blood vessels to vasodilate and leading to a drop in blood pressure. This can result in episodes of syncope, or fainting, as well as other symptoms of end-organ dysfunction such as hypotonia and incontinence.
A weak pulse is also a late sign of anaphylaxis, indicating compromised circulation. However, it is not one of the first signs to present, as the body goes through a series of reactions before reaching this stage.
In summary, understanding the signs of anaphylaxis is crucial for prompt treatment and prevention of life-threatening complications. Early symptoms such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips should not be ignored, as they can progress to more severe indicators of respiratory and circulatory compromise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is scheduled for his annual diabetic review. During the examination, it is noted that his body mass index has increased to 31.5 kg/m2. How do you calculate body mass index?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight/(Height)2
Explanation:BMI is a calculation of weight over height squared and is used to determine if someone is underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese. A BMI above 30 indicates obesity and is associated with increased risks for various health issues and surgical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a reason for circumcision in infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peyronie's disease
Explanation:Understanding Circumcision
Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.
The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease and depression underwent bypass surgery last night. His depression has responded well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and there is no past history of psychosis. His blood pressure is also well controlled with medications. The following morning, he develops confusion, agitation and irritability, tries to remove his intravenous (iv) lines and wants to run away from hospital. His level of consciousness fluctuates, and at times he forgets who he is. He is given a neuroleptic drug and appears much improved.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Differentiating Delirium from Other Psychiatric Disorders in Postoperative Patients
Delirium is a common complication that can occur after surgery and general anesthesia. It is characterized by acute changes in mental status, including waxing and waning levels of consciousness, agitation, irritability, and psychosis. While delirium is self-limited and can be managed with low-dose neuroleptics, it is important to differentiate it from other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms.
Schizophrenia, for example, typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior, and tends to start at a younger age than the acute symptoms seen in postoperative patients. It is also characterized by a progressive deterioration in functioning. Adjustment disorder, on the other hand, can result from any psychosocial or biological stressor, and may present with anxiety, irritability, and depressive mood. However, fluctuating levels of consciousness are not typically seen in this disorder.
Dementia can also present with irritability, confusion, and agitation, but it follows an insidious course and does not have a fluctuating course like delirium. Finally, severe depression can present with psychotic features, suicidal ideation, and irritability, but the patient’s history of good response to SSRIs and lack of prior history of psychosis can help differentiate it from delirium.
In summary, while delirium is a common complication of surgery and anesthesia, it is important to consider other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What hormone does the heart produce under stressed conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:The cardiovascular system relies on a complex network of hormones and signaling molecules to regulate blood pressure, fluid balance, and other physiological processes. Here are some key players in this system:
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP): This hormone is secreted by the ventricle in response to stretch, and levels are elevated in heart failure.
Angiotensin II: This hormone is produced mostly in the lungs where angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) concentrations are maximal.
C-type natriuretic peptide: This signaling molecule is produced by the endothelium, and not the heart.
Nitric oxide: This gasotransmitter is released tonically from all endothelial lined surfaces, including the heart, in response to both flow and various agonist stimuli.
Renin: This enzyme is released from the kidney, in response to reductions in blood pressure, increased renal sympathetic activity or reduced sodium and chloride delivery to the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Understanding the roles of these hormones and signaling molecules is crucial for managing cardiovascular health and treating conditions like heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit following a severe head injury. The medical team suspects that he has fulfilled all the requirements for brainstem death testing and wishes to verify this. What reflex is expected to persist even in the event of brainstem death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal reflexes
Explanation:Assessing Brainstem Death: Reflex Tests
When determining brainstem death, several reflex tests are performed to confirm the absence of brainstem function. Spinal reflexes, such as limb movements, may still be present even after brainstem death, so they are not used as criteria. However, the absence of corneal reflexes (blinking in response to a cotton wisp), gag reflexes (response to a tongue depressor), and pain reflexes (response to pressure on the supraorbital ridges) are all part of the criteria used to confirm brainstem death. Pupillary reflexes (response to a pen torch) are also tested, but their absence alone is not enough to confirm brainstem death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the surgical assessment unit with worsening upper right abdominal pain after dining out with friends. She reports experiencing this pain for the past few months, but it has never been this severe. The pain tends to worsen after dinner, especially with fast food, and occasionally radiates to her right shoulder. Upon examination, you note an increase in body weight. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and bowel sounds are present. She is currently not running a fever. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation:Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the preferred treatment for biliary colic.
Biliary colic is typically characterized by worsening pain after eating, but the patient is generally in good health, has no fever, and has a soft abdomen. In contrast, cholecystitis is associated with signs of infection, such as fever and tachycardia, and may involve palpable gallbladder and positive Murphy’s sign. If the patient is clinically stable and a good candidate for surgery, elective cholecystectomy is the appropriate management option. Cholecystostomy is reserved for cases of acute cholecystitis with pus accumulation, while ERCP is used to remove obstructing gallstones in patients with jaundice or risk of ascending cholangitis. MRCP is a diagnostic tool and not a treatment option.
Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead
Explanation:The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the most likely diagnosis for a 45-year-old woman who has had severe itching for three weeks and presents to your clinic with abnormal liver function tests and a positive anti-TPO antibody?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Autoimmune Diseases and Hepatic Disorders: A Comparison of Symptoms and Diagnostic Findings
Primary biliary cholangitis is characterized by severe itching, mild jaundice, and elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, ALT, and AST. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is positive, and LDL and TG may be mildly elevated. Patients may also exhibit microcytic anemia and elevated anti-TPO levels, as seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. In contrast, primary sclerosing cholangitis affects men and is associated with colitis due to inflammatory bowel disease. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is often negative, and p-ANCA is often positive. Addison’s disease is characterized by fatigue, weakness, weight loss, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia, and may coexist with other autoimmune diseases. Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by elevated levels of ANA, anti-smooth muscle antibody, anti-mitochondrial antibody, and anti-LKM antibody, with normal or slightly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Chronic viral hepatitis is indicated by elevated levels of HBs antigen and anti-HBC antibody, with anti-HBs antibody indicating a history of prior infection or vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient complains of worsening breathlessness and weight loss over the past two months. During examination, scattered wheezing, coughing, and fever are observed. A chest x-ray reveals pneumonic shadowing, and there are several tender subcutaneous nodules and a purpuric rash. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:Churg-Strauss Syndrome: A Granulomatous Vasculitis
Churg-Strauss syndrome is a type of granulomatous vasculitis that is more commonly seen in males. The classic presentation of this syndrome includes asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis. The condition is characterized by pulmonary eosinophilic infiltration, with the lungs, peripheral veins, and skin being the most commonly affected areas. Chest x-rays typically show transient patchy pneumonic shadows, while the skin may exhibit tender subcutaneous nodules and purpuric lesions. In addition, perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA) is usually positive.
While sarcoidosis may present with similar symptoms, wheezing is not typically seen, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is the typical x-ray feature. On the other hand, granulomatosis with polyangiitis may also be a possibility, but ENT symptoms are expected, and wheezing is not typical. Overall, Churg-Strauss syndrome should be considered in patients presenting with asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis, along with the characteristic pulmonary and skin manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. His medical history shows that he has had previous abdominal surgery. During the examination, you notice that his abdomen is distended, and upon auscultation, you hear 'tinkling' bowel sounds. An abdominal radiograph reveals multiple loops of dilated bowel centrally, with valvulae conniventes present. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adhesions
Explanation:Causes of Bowel Obstruction: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Bowel obstruction is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In young patients, adhesions secondary to previous surgery are the most common cause of bowel obstruction, particularly in the small intestine. The four classical features of bowel obstruction are abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distension, and absolute constipation. It is important to differentiate between small bowel and large bowel obstruction, with age being a helpful factor in determining the latter.
While colorectal carcinoma is a significant cause of large bowel obstruction, it only accounts for about 5% of cases in the UK. Hernias are the second most common cause of small bowel obstruction, but adhesions are more likely in patients with a history of abdominal surgery. Crohn’s disease typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, while diverticulitis is more common in older patients and is unlikely to cause the symptoms described.
In conclusion, understanding the various causes of bowel obstruction and their associated symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She outstretched her arms to brace herself against the ground and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to the Emergency Department and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture.
Which of the following deficits is this child most likely to suffer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakness to the right index finger
Explanation:Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Hand Function
Weakness to the right index finger may indicate an anterior interosseous nerve injury, commonly seen in supracondylar fractures. Loss of sensation to the fourth and fifth fingers of the right hand may result from an ulnar nerve injury, often associated with supracondylar humeral fractures. Atrophy of the biceps brachii muscle may occur with damage to the musculocutaneous nerve, which can be compressed between the biceps and brachialis fascia or injured in upper brachial plexus injuries. Weakness of wrist flexion may result from median nerve injury, which can also cause sensory loss and motor deficits in the forearm and thumb. Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the hand is likely due to radial nerve damage, often seen in mid-humeral shaft fractures. Understanding these common nerve injuries and their effects on hand function can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32 year old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left knee pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He denies any history of injury and reports feeling well, except for a recent episode of food poisoning after eating a kebab 2 weeks ago. He has no personal or family history of rheumatological disorders and has never had any sexually transmitted infections. Upon examination, the knee appears swollen, red, and tender. Aspiration of the joint reveals clear fluid without white blood cells or crystals. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Septic arthritis and gout or pseudogout can be ruled out due to the lack of white cells and crystals. If there is a painful swelling behind the knee without erythema, it may indicate a ruptured baker’s cyst. However, in this case, the diagnosis is reactive arthritis (previously known as Reiter’s arthritis), which is linked to chlamydia and gonorrhoeae, as well as gastroenteritis.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.
Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with significant pain in the right first metatarsophalangeal joint that started quickly overnight. He has tried taking paracetamol but this failed to reduce the pain sufficiently. On closer inspection, there appears to be much effusion around the joint, which is also tender to palpation. The patient is at the end of his third month of being treated for tuberculosis.
The patient’s pulse is 89 bpm, respiratory rate is 14/min, temperature is 37.1oC, and blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg. A joint aspirate sample is taken.
What is the likely result of inspecting the joint aspirate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals on microscopy
Explanation:The correct answer is that joint aspiration in gout will reveal needle-shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals when viewed under polarised light. This patient is experiencing an acute gout flare, which is more likely to occur due to their age and use of anti-tuberculosis medications. Pyrazinamide and ethambutol, two of the medications they are taking, can increase uric acid levels and further increase the risk of a gout flare. The other answer options are incorrect as they describe different crystal shapes or conditions that are less likely based on the patient’s clinical history.
Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.
To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman undergoes a lumpectomy for a T2 hormone receptor-positive carcinoma in her right breast. The pathology report shows cancerous cells at the margins of the resected specimen. Should the patient receive any additional non-surgical treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ipsilateral chest wall and regional lymph node radiotherapy
Explanation:Adjuvant ipsilateral chest wall and regional lymph node radiotherapy are recommended for patients with positive axillary lymph nodes and residual tumor at resection margins post-mastectomy, as studies have shown a beneficial effect on overall survival and locoregional recurrence. However, adding letrozole or trastuzumab is not appropriate for this patient with triple-negative carcinoma, as these treatments are used for ER+ and HER2+ cancers, respectively. It is also not necessary to irradiate both breasts/axillae in cases of unilateral breast cancer. No adjuvant treatment is not appropriate in this case, as there is residual disease that needs to be managed. These recommendations are based on the Nice guideline NG101 (2018).
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man undergoes genetic testing after he develops colorectal cancer at the age of 35. His mother also had colorectal cancer at a similar age and died from the disease. He undergoes genetic testing and is found to have classic familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) coli. He has a 3-year-old son.
If his son has inherited classic FAP and does not undergo prophylactic surgery, what is the likelihood he will develop colon cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Over 90%
Explanation:Understanding Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) and its Risk of Colon Cancer
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) is an inherited disorder that increases the risk of colon cancer. Classic FAP can cause non-cancerous growths (polyps) in the colon as early as the teenage years, which can become cancerous if not removed. The risk of cancer in classic FAP is high, with a 7% chance by age 21 and a 93% chance by age 50. Attenuated FAP is a variant of the disorder with delayed polyp growth and a lower risk of cancer, but still presents a high lifetime risk of 70%. Juvenile polyposis syndrome carries a 40% risk of colon cancer. Inherited colon cancers in general carry a high risk, with most being over 50%. While FAP is responsible for only 1% of all colon cancers, the lifetime risk for those affected by the mutation is almost 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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