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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. She reports feeling well and has not experienced any significant issues since the procedure.

      What blood test is the most effective in monitoring for the recurrence of trophoblastic disease?

      Your Answer: Beta-HCG

      Explanation:

      Hydatidiform Mole and Trophoblastic Disease

      A hydatidiform mole is a type of abnormal pregnancy that only generates placental tissue. However, approximately 10% of cases of hydatidiform mole can transform into malignant trophoblastic disease. To assess if there is any retained tissue or recurrence/malignant transformation, the best way is to measure the levels of HCG, which is primarily produced by the placenta. On the other hand, alpha-fetoprotein, CEA, and CA-125 are tumour markers associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, colonic carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma, respectively. It is important to note that progesterone levels are not useful in determining the prognosis of trophoblastic disease. the characteristics and markers of hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic disease is crucial in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR

      Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.

      Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
      On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
      Blood work shows:
      Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
      Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
      White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
      Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.

      Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.

      Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He also notes he has been bruising more easily of late. He is noted to be in sinus tachycardia but otherwise is haemodynamically stable. Examination reveals conjunctival pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. No definite lymphadenopathy is palpable. A full blood count is performed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 69 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 0.7 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets 14 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film is reported as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped erythrocytes. A bone marrow aspirate is attempted, but this is unsuccessful.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myelofibrosis: A Comparison with Other Bone Marrow Disorders

      Myelofibrosis is a rare disorder that primarily affects older patients. It is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can also be found in other diseases such as advanced prostate cancer, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, acute myelocytic leukemia, and chronic myeloid leukemia. However, myelofibrosis can be distinguished from these other disorders by specific diagnostic clues.

      One of the key diagnostic features of myelofibrosis is the presence of a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells, which is also seen in advanced prostate cancer. However, in myelofibrosis, a failed bone marrow aspirate, or dry tap, is frequent and a bone marrow trephine biopsy is needed for diagnosis. This is not the case in other bone marrow disorders.

      Myelofibrosis is caused by the proliferation of megakaryocytes, which leads to intense bone marrow fibrosis, marrow failure, and secondary hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis. Patients may present with systemic upset, symptoms of marrow failure, or abdominal discomfort from hepatosplenomegaly. Treatment is supportive, with bone marrow transplant reserved for younger patients. The median survival is 4-5 years, and transformation to acute myeloid leukemia is relatively common.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a disease of childhood that presents with elevated white cell count and blasts on peripheral blood film. Acute myelocytic leukemia and chronic myeloid leukemia both present with raised white cell counts and blasts on blood film, but are more common in younger patients. Advanced prostate cancer may cause bone marrow failure if there is replacement of enough bone marrow by metastases, but patients would also complain of bone pain.

      In summary, while bone marrow failure may be found in various diseases, specific diagnostic clues such as a leukoerythroblastic picture with teardrop-shaped red blood cells and a failed bone marrow aspirate can help distinguish myelofibrosis from other bone marrow disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents...

    Incorrect

    • This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue following his retirement 6 months ago:

      Hb 130 g/L (120-160)
      RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
      Haematocrit 0.39 (0.36-0.46)
      MCV 86.5 fL (80-100)
      MCH 28.1 pg (27-32)
      Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-400)
      WBC 6.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 3.8 ×109/L (2-7)
      Lymphocytes 1.9 ×109/L (1-4)
      Monocytes 0.5 ×109/L (0.2-1)
      Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.5)
      Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0-0.1)

      He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband is constantly tired, has lost interest in his hobbies and has trouble sleeping.

      Examination is pretty much normal except that he appears fatigued. There are no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient

      Explanation:
      The patient in question is displaying a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. If the cause of macrocytosis were folate or B12 deficiency, it would be expected to cause anemia in association with the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism may also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss argues against this diagnosis. For further information on macrocytosis, refer to the BMJ Practice article Macrocytosis: pitfalls in testing and summary of guidance, the BMJ Endgames case report A woman with macrocytic anemia and confusion, and the BMJ Best Practice article Assessment of anemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man presents to his GP after discovering a low haemoglobin level...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to his GP after discovering a low haemoglobin level during a routine blood donation. He has been experiencing fatigue and breathlessness during mild exertion for the past few weeks. He has donated blood twice before, with the most recent donation being a year ago. He has been taking 30 mg lansoprazole daily for several years to manage his acid reflux, which is well controlled. He also takes cetirizine for hay fever. He denies any nausea, vomiting, changes in bowel habits, or blood in his stools or urine. His diet is diverse, and he is not a vegetarian or vegan. Physical examinations of his chest and abdomen are normal, and urinalysis is unremarkable. The following are his blood test results:
      - Haemoglobin: 100 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l)
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 72.0 fl (normal range: 82-100 fl)
      - White cell count (WCC): 6.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l)
      - Platelets: 355 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Ferritin: 6.0 µg/l (normal range: 20-250 µg/l)
      - Immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTGA) is negative, and IgA level is normal.
      What is the most appropriate initial management step?

      Your Answer: Trial of oral iron (eg ferrous sulphate), with repeat full blood count in 3 weeks

      Correct Answer: Referral to gastroenterology

      Explanation:

      Management of Unexplained Microcytic Anemia with Low Ferritin

      Unexplained microcytic anemia with low ferritin levels requires prompt investigation to identify the underlying cause. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, men with unexplained iron deficiency anemia and a hemoglobin level below 110 g/l should be urgently referred for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations, regardless of age. A trial of oral iron may be appropriate in pregnant women or premenopausal women with a history of menorrhagia and without gastrointestinal symptoms or a family history of gastrointestinal cancer.

      A faecal occult blood test is not recommended as it has poor sensitivity and specificity. Referral to haematology is not necessary as first-line investigations would be upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations, and thus a referral to gastroenterology would be warranted. It is important to rule out blood loss, in particular, through gastrointestinal investigations, before implicating poor dietary intake as the cause of the patient’s low iron stores and microcytic anemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She is diagnosed with a genetic disorder that causes abnormal blood cell shape due to a dysfunctional membrane protein. As a result, these cells are broken down by the spleen, leading to haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly. What is the most probable abnormality observed in a blood film of individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: Sphere-shaped red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormalities in Red Blood Cells: Hereditary Spherocytosis and Other Conditions

      Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited condition that causes red blood cells to take on a sphere shape instead of their normal biconcave disc shape. This abnormality leads to increased rupture of red blood cells in capillaries and increased degradation by the spleen, resulting in hypersplenism, splenomegaly, and haemolytic anaemia. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis often present with jaundice, splenomegaly, anaemia, and fatigue.

      Schistocytes, irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are the result of mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as haemolytic anaemia.

      Acanthocytes or spur cells, which have a spiked, irregular surface due to deposition of lipids and/or proteins on the membrane, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are seen in several conditions, including cirrhosis, anorexia nervosa, and pancreatitis.

      Microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal red blood cells but have a normal shape, are typically seen in iron deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, and anaemia of chronic disease.

      Teardrop-shaped red blood cells are seen in conditions where there is an abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis. This is different from hereditary spherocytosis, which is a primary disorder of abnormal red blood cell shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
      Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia

      Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

      Explanation:

      Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration

      Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.

      Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.

      Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.

      There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - What is the blood product that poses the greatest risk of bacterial infection...

    Correct

    • What is the blood product that poses the greatest risk of bacterial infection transmission during transfusion?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Storage Conditions and Bacterial Contamination Risk in Blood Products

      Platelets, which are stored at room temperature, have the highest risk of bacterial contamination among all blood products. On the other hand, packed red cells are stored at an average of 4°C, while fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate are stored at −20°C. Factor VIII concentrates, which are heat inactivated freeze dried products, have a minimal risk of bacterial contamination.

      It is important to note that the risk of bacterial contamination in blood products is directly related to their storage conditions. Therefore, proper storage and handling of blood products is crucial to ensure their safety and efficacy. By following strict guidelines and protocols, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure that patients receive safe and effective blood products.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?

      Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction

      Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).

      If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.

      Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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Haematology (7/10) 70%
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