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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of vaginal soreness, itchiness, and discharge. During the examination, the doctor notices an inflamed vulva and thick, white, lumpy vaginal discharge. The cervix appears normal, but there is discomfort during bimanual examination. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is well-controlled with salbutamol, and type one diabetes, and has no known allergies. What is the most suitable next step in her care, considering the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Take a high vaginal swab and oral metronidazole as a single oral dose
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral fluconazole as a single oral dose
Explanation:If a patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of vaginal candidiasis, a high vaginal swab is not necessary for diagnosis and treatment can be initiated with a single oral dose of fluconazole. Symptoms of vaginal candidiasis include vulval soreness, itching, and thick, white vaginal discharge. Prescribing oral metronidazole as a single dose or taking a high vaginal swab would be incorrect as they are used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections or bacterial vaginosis, respectively.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to her GP after testing positive on a urine pregnancy test, suspecting she is 4-5 weeks pregnant. She expresses concern about the possibility of having an ectopic pregnancy, having recently heard about a friend's experience. Her medical records indicate that she had an IUS removed 8 months ago and was treated for Chlamydia infection 5 years ago. During a gynaecology appointment 2 months ago, a cervical ectropion was identified after a 3 cm simple ovarian cyst was detected on ultrasound. The patient also admits to excessive drinking at a party two nights ago, having previously consumed a bottle of wine per week. Which aspect of this patient's medical history could increase her risk?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system (IUS) use
Correct Answer: Previous Chlamydia infection
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease can raise the likelihood of an ectopic pregnancy occurring.
If a patient has a history of Chlamydia, it may have caused pelvic inflammatory disease before being diagnosed. Chlamydia can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes, subfertility, and an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy. Any condition that slows the egg’s movement to the uterus can lead to a higher risk of ectopic pregnancy.
While drinking excessively during pregnancy is not recommended due to the risk of neural tube defects and foetal alcohol syndrome, it is not linked to ectopic pregnancy. However, smoking is believed to increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, highlighting the importance of asking about social history when advising patients who want to conceive.
A history of cervical ectropion is not a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but it can make a patient more prone to bleeding during pregnancy.
The previous use of an IUS will not increase the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. However, conceiving while an IUS is in place will raise the risk of this happening. This is due to the effect of slowing the ovum’s transit to the uterus.
A simple ovarian cyst will not increase the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. Large ovarian cysts can cause ovarian torsion, but a 3 cm cyst is not a cause for concern, and the patient does not have any signs or symptoms of ovarian torsion or ectopic pregnancy.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.
It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman was worried about the possibility of being pregnant after having unprotected sex two weeks after the end of her last menstrual cycle. She skipped her next period, and now, two months after the sexual encounter, she purchases a home pregnancy test kit.
What is the hormone in the urine that the colorimetric assay in these test kits identifies?Your Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) subunit β
Explanation:Hormones Involved in Pregnancy Testing
Pregnancy testing relies on the detection of specific hormones in the body. One such hormone is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast of a developing embryo after implantation in the uterus. The unique subunit of hCG, β, is targeted by antibodies in blood and urine tests, allowing for early detection of pregnancy. Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) also play important roles in female reproductive function, but are not measured in over-the-counter pregnancy tests. Progesterone, while important in pregnancy, is not specific to it and therefore not useful in diagnosis. The hCG subunit α is shared with other hormones and is not specific to pregnancy testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with worsening left-sided abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly 4 hours ago and has been steadily getting worse. She reports that the pain started following intercourse. She is uncertain about the date of her last menstrual period as she currently has the Mirena coil fitted. She denies any vaginal bleeding or discharge. Apart from the pain, she has no other symptoms and her vital signs are stable.
Upon examination, her lower abdomen is tender on palpation but there is no guarding or rigidity. Pelvic exam including bimanual exam is unremarkable. The Mirena coil threads are clearly visualised. An ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pelvic cavity and a urinary pregnancy test is negative.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ruptured ovarian cyst
Explanation:When an ovarian cyst ruptures, it can cause sudden and severe pain on one side of the pelvis, especially after sexual activity or strenuous exercise. During a physical exam, the lower abdomen may be tender, but there may not be any other noticeable abnormalities. An ultrasound can reveal the presence of fluid in the pelvic area. It’s important to note that ovarian or adnexal torsion can also cause similar symptoms, including sharp pain on one side, nausea, and vomiting. However, in this case, a palpable mass may be felt during a physical exam, and an ultrasound may show an enlarged ovary with reduced blood flow.
Gynaecological Causes of Abdominal Pain in Women
Abdominal pain is a common complaint among women, and it can be caused by various gynaecological disorders. To diagnose these disorders, a bimanual vaginal examination, urine pregnancy test, and abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scanning should be performed in addition to routine diagnostic workup. If diagnostic doubt persists, a laparoscopy can be used to assess suspected tubulo-ovarian pathology.
There are several differential diagnoses of abdominal pain in females, including mittelschmerz, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, ectopic gestation, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Mittelschmerz is characterized by mid-cycle pain that usually settles over 24-48 hours. Endometriosis is a complex disease that may result in pelvic adhesion formation with episodes of intermittent small bowel obstruction. Ovarian torsion is usually sudden onset of deep-seated colicky abdominal pain associated with vomiting and distress. Ectopic gestation presents as an emergency with evidence of rupture or impending rupture. Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by bilateral lower abdominal pain associated with vaginal discharge and dysuria.
Each of these disorders requires specific investigations and treatments. For example, endometriosis is usually managed medically, but complex disease may require surgery and some patients may even require formal colonic and rectal resections if these areas are involved. Ovarian torsion is usually diagnosed and treated with laparoscopy. Ectopic gestation requires a salpingectomy if the patient is haemodynamically unstable. Pelvic inflammatory disease is usually managed medically with antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient has visited the smear test clinic at her GP practice for a follow-up test. Her previous test was conducted three months ago.
What would have been the outcome of the previous test that necessitated a retest after only three months for this patient?Your Answer: High risk HPV -ve and abnormal cytology
Correct Answer: Inadequate sample
Explanation:In the case of an inadequate smear test result, the patient will be advised to undergo a repeat test within 3 months. If the second test also yields an inadequate result, the patient will need to undergo colposcopy testing.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer. What types of cancers are linked to the use of tamoxifen?
Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and reports having taken each pill regularly for the first 7 days of her cycle. However, she forgot to pack her contraception while on a weekend trip and missed 2 doses. She had unprotected sexual intercourse during this time. Upon returning home, she resumed taking her COCP on day 10 of her cycle. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: No emergency contraception required and barrier contraception for next 7 days
Explanation:If a woman misses two COCP doses between days 8-14 of her menstrual cycle, emergency contraception is not necessary as long as the previous seven doses were taken correctly. In this case, the woman missed doses on days 8 and 9 but resumed taking the medication on day 10, so emergency contraception is not needed. However, until seven consecutive days of the COCP are taken, using barrier contraception or abstaining from sex is recommended to prevent pregnancy. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception, and introducing it in this situation is unnecessary. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception option that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex, but it is not needed in this case. If the patient had missed more than two COCP doses, levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for seven days would be appropriate. Ulipristal acetate is another emergency contraception option that must be taken within five days of unprotected sex, but it is also not necessary in this situation. If it were indicated, barrier contraception would need to be used for the next seven days until the COCP takes effect.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A pair of individuals in their mid-thirties visit their GP seeking guidance on fertility. They have been engaging in unprotected sexual activity thrice a week for a year. The GP recommends conducting a semen analysis and measuring serum progesterone levels. What is the optimal time to measure serum progesterone levels?
Your Answer: On day 21 of the menstrual cycle
Correct Answer: 7 days prior to the expected next period
Explanation:To confirm ovulation, it is recommended to take a serum progesterone level 7 days before the expected next period. If the level is above 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation and other causes of infertility should be considered. However, if the level is below 30 nmol/l, it does not necessarily exclude the possibility of ovulation, but repeat testing is required. If the level remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. It is important to note that the length of a menstrual cycle can vary, so 7 days prior to the next period is a more accurate time to take the test than relying on day 21 of a 28-day cycle.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She explains that for the last 4 months, she has been unable to leave her house or socialize with friends due to an embarrassing and uncomfortable incontinence problem.
What is the most common type of urinary incontinence in women?Your Answer: Genuine stress incontinence
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Urinary Incontinence in Women
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and treatment options. The most common type of incontinence in women is genuine stress incontinence, which is caused by sphincter incompetence and leads to leakage of small amounts of urine on stress, such as sneezing, standing, laughing, and coughing.
To diagnose incontinence, common investigations include a midstream urine specimen, frequency volume chart, filling urodynamic assessment, and voiding urodynamic assessment. Treatment options vary depending on the patient’s wishes, desire for future children, and severity of symptoms. Conservative treatment involves pelvic floor exercises, vaginal cones, and drugs such as estrogen. Surgery is the most effective way of restoring continence, with a cure rate of 80-90%. Procedures include burch colposuspension, anterior repair and bladder buttress, tension-free vaginal tape, and suburethral sling.
Other types of urinary incontinence in women include fistula, which is a rare cause of incontinence caused by pelvic surgery, overactive bladder, which is the second most common type of incontinence, retention with overflow, which is a rare cause of incontinence more common in men, and congenital abnormalities, which is a rare cause of incontinence that is often apparent since early life.
It is important for women to understand the different types of urinary incontinence and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, urinary incontinence can be effectively managed, improving quality of life and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP clinic for a routine cervical smear. After receiving an initial high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) result, she is scheduled for a follow-up smear in 12 months. During the subsequent smear, she is informed that the hrHPV result is now negative. She has no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Repeat smear in 12 months
Correct Answer: Repeat smear in 5 years
Explanation:The correct course of action for a patient who had a positive high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) but negative cytology result in their initial smear and a negative hrHPV result in their subsequent 12-month repeat smear is to return to routine recall. This means that the patient should have their next smear in 5 years, as they are in the appropriate age group for this interval. Referring the patient for colposcopy is not necessary in this case, as the cytology result was negative. Repeating the smear in 3 months is also not necessary, as this is only done for inadequate samples. If the hrHPV result is positive again in a further 12-month repeat, then repeating the smear in another 12 months would be appropriate. However, if the hrHPV result is negative in the second repeat, the patient can be returned to routine recall. For younger patients, the appropriate interval for routine recall is 3 years.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating and diarrhea. She has a family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During the examination, the doctor notes a soft and non-tender abdomen with a detectable pelvic mass. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Your Answer: Perform CA125 and an ultrasound scan and only refer her urgently to gynaecology if these results return as abnormal
Correct Answer: Measure CA125 and refer her urgently to gynaecology
Explanation:If there is suspicion of ovarian cancer and an abdominal or pelvic mass is present, it is not necessary to perform a CA125 and US test. Instead, the patient should be immediately referred to gynaecology. Prescribing loperamide and buscopan for symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in women over 50 years old is not appropriate as these symptoms could indicate ovarian cancer and require investigation. While waiting for the results of CA125 and ultrasound tests is usually recommended for suspected ovarian cancer patients, urgent referral to gynaecology is necessary in this case due to the presence of an abdominal mass. Although CA125 measurement should still be performed, waiting for test results to determine the need for urgent referral is not appropriate as guidelines already recommend it.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A gynaecologist is performing a hysterectomy for leiomyomata and menorrhagia on a 44-year-old woman. Once under anaesthesia, the patient is catheterised, and the surgeon makes a Pfannenstiel incision transversely, just superior to the pubic symphysis. After opening the parietal peritoneum, he identifies the uterus and makes a shallow, transverse incision in the visceral peritoneum on the anterior uterine wall, and then pushes this downwards to expose the lower uterus.
What is the most likely reason for this?Your Answer: The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum
Explanation:Surgical Manoeuvre for Safe Access to the Gravid Uterus
During Gynaecological surgery, a specific manoeuvre is used to safely access the gravid uterus. The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum, which also displaces the distal ureters and uterine tubes. This displacement renders these structures less vulnerable to damage during the procedure. The ovarian arteries, which are branches of the aorta, are not affected by this manoeuvre. However, the uterine artery needs to be pushed down for safe ligation as the ureters typically run superior to it. The sigmoid colon is also displaced out of the operating field using this manoeuvre, reducing the risk of injury. While the ovarian arteries are unlikely to be injured during surgery as they are more lateral, the incidence of ureteric injury is 1-2% in Gynaecological surgery, with 70% of these injuries occurring during the tying off of the uterine pedicle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her inability to conceive despite trying for two years with her regular partner. She has a BMI of 29 kg/m² and a known history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. What medication would be the most effective in restoring regular ovulation in this scenario?
Your Answer: Mestranol
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:For overweight or obese women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) who are having difficulty getting pregnant, the initial approach is weight loss. If weight loss is not successful, either due to the woman’s inability to lose weight or failure to conceive despite weight loss, metformin can be used as an additional treatment.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her voice, increased body hair, and clitoral enlargement. Ultrasonography shows a tumour in the left ovarian hilus, and her 17-ketosteroid excretion is elevated. The histopathology confirms a diagnosis of hilus cell tumour, with large, lipid-laden tumour cells. Which cells in the male reproductive system are homologous to the affected cells?
Your Answer: Sertoli cells
Correct Answer: Leydig cells
Explanation:Homologous Cells in Male and Female Reproductive Systems
The male and female reproductive systems have homologous cells that perform similar functions. Leydig cells, also known as pure Leydig cell tumors, are found in both males and females. In females, these cells are located in the ovarian hilus and secrete androgens, causing masculinization when a tumor arises. Sertoli cells, on the other hand, have a female homologue called granulosa cells, both of which are sensitive to follicle-stimulating hormone. Epithelial cells in the epididymis have a vestigial structure in females called the epoophoron, which is lined by cells similar to those found in the epididymis. Spermatocytes have female homologues in oocytes and polar bodies, while spermatogonia have female homologues in oogonia. Understanding these homologous cells can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of reproductive system disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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Does PCOS elevate the risk of certain conditions in the long run?
Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a prevalent disorder that is often complicated by chronic anovulation and hyperandrogenism. This condition can lead to long-term complications such as subfertility, diabetes mellitus, stroke and transient ischemic attack, coronary artery disease, obstructive sleep apnea, and endometrial cancer. These complications are more likely to occur in patients who are obese. Women with oligo/amenorrhea and pre-menopausal levels of estrogen are at an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma. This risk is highest in those with menstrual cycle lengths of over three months. However, it can be reduced by inducing a withdrawal bleed every one to three months using a combined contraceptive pill or cyclical medroxyprogesterone or by inserting a mirena coil. Overweight patients can regulate their menstrual cycles and reduce the risk of endometrial hyperplasia by optimizing their BMI. Unlike in other conditions, there is no increased risk of osteoporosis in PCOS because there is no estrogen deficiency. The RCOG Greentop guidelines provide more information on the long-term consequences of polycystic ovary syndrome.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe nausea and vomiting, as well as a 3-hour history of spotting. Her last menstrual period was approximately ten weeks ago. She denies any abdominal pain, focal neurological deficits and headaches. She has had normal cervical screening results, denies any history of sexually transmitted infections and had her Mirena® coil removed one year ago. She has been having regular unprotected sex with a new partner for the past month. Her menstrual cycle length is normally 28 days, for which her period lasts five days, without bleeding in between periods.
She reports being previously fit and well, without regular medication. She is a non-smoker and drinks heavily once a week.
On examination, her heart rate is 81 bpm, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and temperature 37.2 °C, and her fundal height was consistent with a 16-week-old pregnancy. A bimanual examination with a speculum revealed a closed cervical os. A full blood count reveals all normal results. A human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) level and a vaginal ultrasound scan are also carried out in the department, which reveal the following:
Serum hCG:
Investigation Result Impression
hCG 100,295 iu/l Grossly elevated
Transvaginal ultrasound:
Comment Anteverted, enlarged uterus. No fetal parts observed. Intrauterine mass with cystic components observed
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Complete miscarriage
Correct Answer: Hydatidiform mole
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hydatidiform Mole in Early Pregnancy: Clinical Features and Treatment Options
Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs due to abnormal fertilization of an ovum, resulting in a non-viable pregnancy. The condition presents with clinical features such as vaginal bleeding, excessive vomiting, a large-for-dates uterus, and a very high hCG level. Pelvic ultrasound may reveal a ‘snowstorm’ appearance from the intrauterine mass and cystic components.
The diagnosis of hydatidiform mole is crucial as it determines the treatment options. If the patient wishes to retain her fertility, dilation and evacuation are offered. However, if fertility is not desired, a hysterectomy is recommended. The former has fewer post-operative complications but carries a higher risk of post-operative gestational trophoblastic neoplasia. Antiemetics are prescribed to manage nausea and vomiting.
Twin pregnancy and complete miscarriage are differential diagnoses, but the absence of fetal parts and the grossly elevated hCG level point towards hydatidiform mole. Pre-eclampsia cannot be diagnosed before the second trimester, and endometrial carcinoma is unlikely to cause a uterine mass or elevated hCG levels.
In conclusion, early diagnosis of hydatidiform mole is crucial for appropriate management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits your gynaecology clinic for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with a symptomatic 6mm intramural fibroid. She has been experiencing this issue for several months and is being considered for surgery as a result. Since she has not yet finished having children, an open myomectomy has been determined to be the best surgical option. What is a typical complication that can occur after this procedure?
Your Answer: Adhesions
Explanation:Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that have been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly at night, causing sleep and work disturbances. She expresses feeling exhausted and embarrassed at work, sweating profusely during the attacks, and carrying extra clothes to change. She is emotional and shares that she has been avoiding sexual intercourse due to pain. She has no medical history and is not on any medication. Her menstrual cycle is still ongoing but has become irregular, occurring once every 2-3 months. After a thorough discussion, she decides to start HRT. What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Oestradiol transdermal patch
Correct Answer: Oestradiol one tablet daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone on the last 14 days
Explanation:Understanding Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) for perimenopausal Symptoms
perimenopausal symptoms can significantly affect a woman’s daily routine, work, and mood. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is one of the treatment options available for managing these symptoms. However, before commencing HRT, patients need to be consulted and informed of the risks and benefits associated with this treatment.
HRT can be either oestrogen replacement only or combined. Combined HRT is given to women who have a uterus, as oestrogen alone can increase the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Combined HRT can be either cyclical or continuous, depending on the patient’s menopausal status.
For women with irregular menses, a cyclical regime is indicated. This involves taking an oestrogen tablet once daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone added on the last 14 days. Patients on this regime have a period every three months. Once a woman has completed a year on cyclical therapy or has established menopause, then she can change to combined continuous HRT.
It is important to note that oestrogen-only HRT is only given to women who have had a hysterectomy. Oestrogen therapy alone increases the risk of developing endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma. Therefore, in women who have a uterus, combined HRT, with the addition of a progesterone, is preferred to reduce this risk.
In summary, HRT is a treatment option for perimenopausal symptoms. The type of HRT prescribed depends on the patient’s menopausal status and whether they have a uterus. Patients need to be informed of the risks and benefits associated with HRT before commencing treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of left-sided pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia at 16 weeks of pregnancy. She has not experienced any vaginal bleeding, discharge, or dysuria. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far, and she has a gravid uterus that is large for her gestational age. Her vital signs are stable, with a temperature of 37.1ºC, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, heart rate of 70 beats/min, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute. She had an intrauterine system for menorrhagia before conception and has no other medical history. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Growth of pre-existing fibroids due to increased oestrogen
Explanation:During pregnancy, uterine fibroids may experience growth. These fibroids are common and often do not show any symptoms. However, in non-pregnant women, they can cause menorrhagia. In early pregnancy, they grow due to oestrogen and can cause pelvic pain and pressure. If they grow too quickly and surpass their blood supply, they may undergo ‘red degeneration’. This patient’s symptoms, including pelvic pain and a history of menorrhagia, suggest that the growth of pre-existing fibroids due to oestrogen may be the cause. However, further investigation with ultrasound is necessary to confirm this diagnosis. Ectopic pregnancies are rare in the second trimester and are typically detected during routine ultrasound scans. This patient is unlikely to have an ectopic pregnancy as her first ultrasound scan would have confirmed an intrauterine pregnancy. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms as it is associated with additional symptoms such as vaginal discharge and dysuria, and the patient would likely be febrile. The growth of pre-existing fibroids due to decreased progesterone is incorrect as progesterone, like oestrogen, is increased during pregnancy. This patient does not exhibit symptoms of dysuria, renal angle tenderness, or pyrexia.
Understanding Fibroid Degeneration
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25 year old woman visits the family planning clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently on carbamazepine medication. Additionally, her BMI is 39 kg/m² and she has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate contraceptive option to suggest for her?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Contraception for Women with Epilepsy
Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.
To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.
For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of pelvic pain and intermenstrual bleeding for the past 5 months. The pain is more severe during her periods and sexual intercourse, and her periods have become heavier. She denies any urinary or bowel symptoms. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals multiple masses in the uterine wall. The patient desires surgical removal of the masses, but the wait time for the procedure is 5 months. She inquires about medication to reduce the size of the masses during this period. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient while she awaits surgery?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Triptorelin
Explanation:The presence of fibroids in the patient’s uterus is indicated by her symptoms of intermenstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, and menorrhagia, as well as her age. While GnRH agonists may temporarily reduce the size of the fibroids, they are not a long-term solution.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a phone consultation to discuss her recent cervical smear test results. She underwent the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. Her last cervical smear was conducted 2 years ago and was reported as normal. She has not received the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination. The results of her recent test are as follows: High-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) - POSITIVE and Cytology - ABNORMAL (high-grade dyskaryosis). What would be the next course of action in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Referral to colposcopy for consideration of large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Explanation:The appropriate technique to treat cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2 or CIN3) is urgent large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ). Cryotherapy may also be considered as an alternative. Offering the HPV vaccination is not a suitable option for individuals who have already been diagnosed with CIN2 or CIN3. A repeat cervical smear within 3 months may be offered if the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable or cytology is inadequate. Routine referral to gynaecology is not necessary as the patient would already be under the care of the colposcopy service.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman had gone for her routine cervical smear and the result came back as inadequate. It was noted in her medical history that she had an inadequate smear 4 years ago but subsequent smears were fine. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 months
Explanation:If a cervical smear is inadequate, it is recommended to repeat the test within 3 months. This is the correct course of action for the patient in question, as her routine smear was deemed inadequate. Referral for colposcopy is not necessary at this stage, as it is only indicated if there are two consecutive inadequate smears that are 3 months apart. Waiting for 3 years to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as this is the interval for routine recall for a patient of her age. Similarly, waiting for 6 or 12 months to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as these timeframes are only indicated for specific circumstances such as testing for cure following treatment or if the most recent smear was hrHPV positive without cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman with a BMI of 18 is referred to a fertility clinic as she has been unsuccessful in conceiving with her partner for 2 years. After ruling out male factor infertility, you suspect that her low BMI may be causing anovulation. What hormone can be measured on day 21 of her menstrual cycle to test for ovulation?
Your Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:A woman’s ovulation usually occurs on day 14 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. After ovulation, hormonal changes occur.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She and her partner frequently travel abroad for charity work and are not planning to have children at the moment. The woman is undergoing treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease and desires a low-maintenance contraceptive method that does not require her to remember to take it. The GP has already emphasized the significance of barrier protection in preventing the transmission of sexually transmitted infections. What is the most suitable contraceptive option for her?
Your Answer: Injectable contraceptive
Correct Answer: Implantable contraceptive
Explanation:The most effective form of contraception for young women who desire a low-maintenance option and do not want to remember to take it daily is the implantable contraceptive. This option is particularly suitable for those with busy or unpredictable lifestyles, such as those planning to travel. While the intrauterine device is also effective for 5 years, it is contraindicated for those with active pelvic inflammatory disease. The implantable contraceptive, which lasts for 3 years, is a better option in this case. Injectable contraceptive is less suitable as it only lasts for 12 weeks.
Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due to ascites. On examination, there is symmetrical distension of the abdomen and a palpable pelvic mass in the left iliac fossa. On closer questioning, she also admits to being ‘off her food’ and has lost a stone in weight over the last 3 weeks.
Which one of the following types of ovarian mass is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Teratoma
Correct Answer: Serous adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Ovarian tumours are mostly epithelial in nature, comprising 90% of all cases. Serous tumours are the most common type, accounting for 50% of ovarian cancers and 20% of benign tumours. Although the 5-year survival rate is improving, it remains low at around 40% in the UK. These tumours typically affect postmenopausal women, with over 80% of cases occurring in those over 50 years old. Ovarian tumours can be benign, invasive or malignant, with different pathological subtypes. Mucinous cystadenomas are common in women aged 20-50 years and can be large and multilocular, with a risk of pseudomyxoma peritonei if they rupture. Brenner tumours are rare and often found incidentally, while teratomas are non-seminomatous germ cell tumours that may contain multiple types of tissue. Clear cell carcinomas are rare and have a worse prognosis than serous tumours, growing rapidly and being associated with endometriosis. Surgical removal is the preferred treatment for most ovarian tumours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits a fertility clinic after trying to conceive for more than two years. She is worried that she may not be ovulating despite having a regular menstrual cycle lasting 30 days. She is not using any form of birth control and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the most effective method to detect ovulation?
Your Answer: Progesterone level
Explanation:The most reliable way to confirm ovulation is through the Day 21 progesterone test. This test measures the peak level of progesterone in the serum, which occurs 7 days after ovulation. While the length of the follicular phase can vary, the luteal phase always lasts for 14 days. Therefore, if a woman has a 35-day cycle, she can expect to ovulate on Day 21 and her progesterone level will peak on Day 28. To determine when to take the test, subtract 7 days from the expected start of the next period (Day 21 for a 28-day cycle and Day 28 for a 35-day cycle). Basal body temperature charts and cervical mucous thickness are not reliable predictors of ovulation. Gonadotropins may be used to assess ovarian function in women with irregular menstrual cycles.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A gynaecologist is performing a pelvic examination on a 30-year-old woman in the lithotomy position. To palpate the patient’s uterus, the index and middle fingers of the right hand are placed inside the vagina, while the fingers and palm of the left hand are used to palpate the abdomen suprapubically. While palpating the patient’s abdomen with her left hand, the doctor feels a bony structure in the lower midline.
Which one of the following bony structures is the doctor most likely to feel with the palm of her left hand?Your Answer: Coccyx
Correct Answer: Pubis
Explanation:Anatomy of the Pelvis: Palpable Bones and Structures
The pelvis is a complex structure composed of several bones and joints. In this scenario, a doctor is examining a patient and can feel a specific bone. Let’s explore the different bones and structures of the pelvis and determine which one the doctor may be palpating.
Pubis:
The pubis is one of the three bones that make up the os coxa, along with the ilium and ischium. It is the most anterior of the three and extends medially and anteriorly, meeting with the opposite pubis to form the pubic symphysis. Given the position of the doctor’s hand, it is likely that they are feeling the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones.Coccyx:
The coccyx is the lowest part of the vertebral column and is located inferior to the sacrum. It is composed of 3-5 fused vertebrae and is a posterior structure, making it unlikely to be palpable in this scenario.Ilium:
The ilium is the most superior of the three bones that make up the os coxa. It is a lateral bone and would not be near the position of the doctor’s palm in this scenario.Sacrum:
The sacrum is part of the vertebral column and forms the posterior aspect of the pelvis. It is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae and articulates with the iliac bones via the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. Although it is found in the midline, it is a posterior structure and would not be palpable.Ischium:
The ischium forms the posteroinferior part of the os coxa. Due to its position, it is not palpable in this scenario.In conclusion, the doctor is most likely palpating the pubic symphysis and adjacent pubic bones during the examination. Understanding the anatomy of the pelvis and its structures is important for medical professionals to accurately diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms
Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.
Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.
Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.
Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.
Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.
Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 26-year-old nursing student has visited her GP clinic for her first cervical screening. She is curious about the testing procedure and knows that the sample will be screened for high-risk strains of HPV. The student inquires with the practice nurse about the next steps if the smear test comes back positive in the lab.
What follow-up test will be conducted if the smear test shows high-risk HPV (hrHPV) positivity?Your Answer: Cytology testing
Explanation:Cytological examination of a cervical smear sample is only conducted if it tests positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV). If the sample is negative for hrHPV, there is no need for cytology testing.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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