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Question 1
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is admitted with acute epigastric pain and a serum amylase of 1500 u/l. His IMRIE score confirms acute pancreatitis. On examination, a large ecchymosis is observed around the umbilicus.
What clinical sign does this examination finding demonstrate?Your Answer: Cullen’s sign
Explanation:Common Medical Signs and Their Meanings
Medical signs are physical indications of a disease or condition that can aid in diagnosis. Here are some common medical signs and their meanings:
1. Cullen’s sign: This is bruising around the umbilicus that can indicate acute pancreatitis or an ectopic pregnancy.
2. McBurney’s sign: Pain over McBurney’s point, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, can indicate acute appendicitis.
3. Grey–Turner’s sign: Discoloration of the flanks can indicate retroperitoneal hemorrhage.
4. Troisier’s sign: The presence of Virchow’s node in the left supraclavicular fossa can indicate gastric cancer.
5. Tinel’s sign: Tingling in the median nerve distribution when tapping over the median nerve can indicate carpal tunnel syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman, with a body mass index of 30, presents to the Emergency Department with colicky right upper quadrant pain and shoulder discomfort. She has also suffered two episodes of nausea and vomiting. Her blood pressure is 110/70, pulse rate 110 and respiratory rate 20. There is pain on inspiration and an increase in pain when palpating the right upper quadrant. The patient is confirmed as having cholecystitis due to impaction of a gallstone in the gallbladder neck. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy is recommended, and the patient is consented for surgery. The dissection begins by incising peritoneum along the edge of the gallbladder on both sides to open up the cystohepatic triangle of calot.
What are the borders of this triangle?Your Answer: Hepatic duct medially, cystic duct laterally, inferior edge of liver superiorly
Explanation:The Triangle of Calot: An Important Landmark in Cholecystectomy
The triangle of Calot is a crucial anatomical landmark in cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure to remove the gallbladder. It is a triangular space whose boundaries include the common hepatic duct medially, the cystic duct laterally, and the inferior edge of the liver superiorly. During the procedure, this space is dissected to identify the cystic artery and cystic duct before ligation and division. It is important to note that the gallbladder is not part of the triangle of Calot, and the cystic duct is the lateral border, not the inferior border. The hepatic duct is medial in the triangle of Calot, and the inferior edge of the liver is the upper border of the hepatocystic triangle. The bile duct is not part of the triangle of Calot. Understanding the boundaries of the triangle of Calot is essential for a successful cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted for enteral feeding. What is the primary method to verify the NG tube's secure placement before starting feeding?
Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray
Correct Answer: Aspirate 10 ml and check the pH
Explanation:Methods for Confirming Correct Placement of Nasogastric Tubes
Nasogastric (NG) tubes are commonly used in medical settings to administer medication, nutrition, or to remove stomach contents. However, incorrect placement of an NG tube can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is important to confirm correct placement before using the tube. Here are some methods for confirming correct placement:
1. Aspirate and check pH: Aspirate 10 ml of fluid from the NG tube and test the pH. If the pH is less than 5.5, the tube is correctly placed in the stomach.
2. Visual inspection: Do not rely on visual inspection of the aspirate to confirm correct placement, as bronchial secretions can be similar in appearance to stomach contents.
3. Insert air and auscultate: Injecting 10-20 ml of air can help obtain a gastric aspirate, but auscultation to confirm placement is an outdated and unreliable technique.
4. Chest X-ray: If no aspirate can be obtained or the pH level is higher than 5.5, a chest X-ray can be used to confirm correct placement. However, this should not be the first-line investigation.
5. Abdominal X-ray: An abdominal X-ray is not helpful in determining correct placement of an NG tube, as it does not show the lungs.
By using these methods, healthcare professionals can ensure that NG tubes are correctly placed and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer
This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.
Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) for the past 2 years. She is currently in remission and has no bowel complaints. However, she has recently been experiencing increased fatigue and loss of appetite. During her examination, she appears mildly jaundiced and her nails are shiny. Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: 112g/L (normal range: 135-175 g/L)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 5.2 mg/L (normal range: 0-10 mg/L)
- Bilirubin: 62 µmol/L (normal range: 2-17 µmol/L)
- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 54 IU/L (normal range: 10-40 IU/L)
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 47 IU/L (normal range: 5-30 IU/L)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 1850 IU/L (normal range: 30-130 IU/L)
- Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35-55 g/L)
What is the recommended treatment for this condition?Your Answer: ERCP with stenting
Correct Answer: Liver transplantation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a chronic disease that causes inflammation and sclerosis of the bile ducts. It often presents with pruritus, fatigue, and jaundice, and is more common in men and those with ulcerative colitis (UC). The only definitive treatment for PSC is liver transplantation, as endoscopic stenting is not effective due to the multiple sites of stenosis. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown some benefit in short-term studies, but its long-term efficacy is uncertain. Fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is often required due to malabsorption, but is not a treatment for the disease. Azathioprine and steroids are not typically useful in PSC treatment, as too much immunosuppressive therapy may worsen associated bone disease. Regular surveillance is necessary after liver transplantation, as recurrence of PSC is possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed that he has distal disease only. He has a moderate exacerbation of his disease with an average of 4–5 episodes of bloody diarrhoea per day. There is no anaemia. His pulse rate is 80 bpm. He has no fever. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are normal.
Which is the most appropriate medication to use in the first instance in this exacerbation?Your Answer: Infliximab
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Distal Ulcerative Colitis
Distal ulcerative colitis can cause moderate exacerbation, which is characterized by 4-6 bowel movements per day, pulse rate <90 bpm, no anemia, and ESR 30 or below. The first-line therapy for this condition includes topical or oral aminosalicylate, with mesalazine or sulfasalazine being the most commonly used options. However, these medications can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypersensitivity. In rare cases, they may also lead to peripheral neuropathy and blood disorders. Codeine phosphate is not used in the management of ulcerative colitis, while ciclosporin is reserved for acute severe flare-ups that do not respond to corticosteroids. Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis α, is used for patients who are intolerant to steroids or have not responded to corticosteroid therapy. However, it can cause hepatitis and interstitial lung disease, and may reactivate tuberculosis and hepatitis B. Steroids such as prednisolone can be used as second-line treatment if the patient cannot tolerate or declines aminosalicylates or if aminosalicylates are contraindicated. Topical corticosteroids are usually preferred, but oral prednisolone can also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 52-year-old male construction worker has been admitted with haematemesis and is scheduled for an urgent upper GI endoscopy. According to the Rockall score, which feature would classify him as being in the high-risk category for a patient presenting with GI bleeding?
Your Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Scoring Systems for Gastrointestinal Bleed Risk Stratification
There are several scoring systems available to categorize patients with gastrointestinal bleeding into high and low-risk groups. The Rockall scoring system considers age, comorbidities such as ischaemic heart disease, presence of shock, and endoscopic abnormalities. Similarly, the Canadian Consensus Conference Statement incorporates endoscopic factors such as active bleeding, major stigmata of recent haemorrhage, ulcers greater than 2 cm in diameter, and the location of ulcers in proximity to large arteries. The Baylor bleeding score assigns a score to pre- and post-endoscopic features. On the other hand, the Blatchford score is based on clinical parameters alone, including elevated blood urea nitrogen, reduced haemoglobin, a drop in systolic blood pressure, raised pulse rate, the presence of melaena or syncope, and evidence of hepatic or cardiac disease.
These scoring systems are useful in determining the severity of gastrointestinal bleeding and identifying patients who require urgent intervention. By stratifying patients into high and low-risk groups, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding management and treatment options. The use of these scoring systems can also aid in predicting outcomes and mortality rates, allowing for appropriate monitoring and follow-up care. Overall, the implementation of scoring systems for gastrointestinal bleed risk stratification is an important tool in improving patient outcomes and reducing morbidity and mortality rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites.
What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension
Hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension can have various causes, including pre-hepatic, hepatic, and post-hepatic problems. One potential cause is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which results from hepatic vein thrombosis and is associated with pregnancy and oral contraceptive use. Alcoholic cirrhosis is another possible cause, but is unlikely in the absence of alcohol excess. Pylephlebitis, a rare complication of appendicitis, is not consistent with the case history provided. Splenectomy cannot explain the palpable splenomegaly in this patient. Tricuspid valve incompetence can also lead to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly, but given the postpartum status of the patient, Budd-Chiari syndrome is a more probable diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain that has been going on for 5 weeks. She also reports unintentional weight loss during this time. A colonoscopy is performed, revealing abnormal, inflamed mucosa in the rectum, sigmoid, and descending colon. The doctor suspects ulcerative colitis and takes multiple biopsies. What finding is most indicative of ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:When it comes to distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, one key factor is the presence of crypt abscesses. These are typically seen in ulcerative colitis, which is the more common of the two inflammatory bowel diseases. In ulcerative colitis, inflammation starts in the rectum and spreads continuously up the colon, whereas Crohn’s disease often presents with skip lesions. Patients with ulcerative colitis may experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy typically reveals diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only, with the presence of crypt abscesses being a hallmark feature. In contrast, Crohn’s disease is characterized by a transmural inflammatory phenotype, with non-caseating granulomas and stricturing of the bowel wall being common complications. Patients with Crohn’s disease may present with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss, and may have a more systemic inflammatory response than those with ulcerative colitis. Barium enema and colonoscopy can help to differentiate between the two conditions, with the presence of multiple linear ulcers in the bowel wall (rose-thorn appearance) and bowel wall thickening being suggestive of Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of RUQ pain, nausea, and vomiting. She has a past medical history of gallstones. The patient reports experiencing severe stabbing pain that began earlier today. Upon examination, her heart rate is 110 beats/min (normal 60-100 beats/min), her temperature is 38.5°C (normal 36.1-37.2°C), and she is positive for Murphy's sign. There is no evidence of jaundice, and she had a bowel movement this morning. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for RUQ Pain: Acute Cholecystitis, Pancreatitis, Ascending Cholangitis, Gallstone Ileus, Biliary Colic
When a patient presents with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, it is important to consider several potential diagnoses. A positive Murphy’s sign, which is pain on deep palpation of the RUQ during inspiration, strongly suggests gallbladder involvement and makes acute cholecystitis the most likely diagnosis. Biliary colic is less likely as the patient is febrile, and ascending cholangitis is unlikely as the patient is not jaundiced. Pancreatitis is a possibility, but the pain is typically focused on the epigastrium and radiates to the back.
Gallstone ileus is a rare condition in which a gallstone causes obstruction in the small bowel. It would present with symptoms of obstruction, such as nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, with complete constipation appearing later. However, since this patient’s bowels last opened this morning, acute cholecystitis is a much more likely diagnosis.
It is important to consider all potential diagnoses and rule out other conditions, but in this case, acute cholecystitis is the most likely diagnosis. Treatment involves pain relief, IV antibiotics, and elective cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man complained of abdominal pain and weight loss. Upon investigation, he was diagnosed with coeliac disease. The biopsy of his small intestine revealed blunting of villi with crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocytes ++. What is the stage of his disease?
Your Answer: IV
Correct Answer: III
Explanation:The Marsh Criteria: A Morphological Classification of Coeliac Disease Biopsy
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine, causing damage to the lining and leading to malabsorption of nutrients. The Marsh criteria is a morphological classification system used to diagnose coeliac disease through intestinal biopsy.
The classification system consists of four stages, with stage 0 indicating a normal biopsy and stage IV indicating total villous atrophy. In between, stages I-III show varying degrees of damage to the duodenal villi, intraepithelial lymphocytes, and crypts.
Recently, the Marsh-Oberhuber classification was introduced, which subdivides stage III into three classes based on the degree of villous atrophy. Stage IV has been eliminated from this modified version.
In coeliac disease and other inflammatory conditions, such as milk protein allergy, the pattern of intraepithelial lymphocytes may be reversed. In stage I disease, only increased intraepithelial lymphocytes would be seen on biopsy, while stage 0 would appear normal. Class II disease would show normal duodenal villi, and stage IV would be associated with crypt atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with painless bleeding per rectum for two days. The blood was mixed with stool every time. There was no pain or tenesmus. There has been no loss of weight.
He has never experienced these symptoms before, although he has suffered from constipation over the past three years. At the clinic, he complained of mild fever, although on examination, his temperature was normal.
He has recently returned from a trip to India where he took part in a mountain expedition to Kedarnath. He takes no drugs, with the exception of thyroxine which he has taken for the past two years.
What is the immediate management?Your Answer: Stool microscopy & culture
Explanation:Rectal Bleeding in a Patient with a Recent Mountain Expedition
This patient has recently returned from a mountain expedition in a tropical country, where his diet and water intake may have been irregular. As a result, he is at risk of food and water-borne infections such as amoebiasis, which can cause bloody stools. To determine the cause of the bleeding, stool tests and microscopy should be conducted before treatment is initiated.
It is important to note that laxatives should not be used until the cause of the bloody stool is identified. In cases of colonic cancer, laxatives can cause intestinal obstruction, while in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease, they can irritate the bowel walls and worsen the condition. The patient’s history of constipation is likely due to hypothyroidism, which is being treated.
While chronic liver disease can cause rectal bleeding, there is no indication of such a condition in this patient. When bleeding is caused by piles, blood is typically found on the toilet paper and not mixed with stools. Lower GI endoscopy may be necessary if the bleeding persists, but invasive tests should only be conducted when fully justified.
Observation is not an appropriate course of action in this case. In older patients, rectal bleeding should always be taken seriously and thoroughly investigated to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 40-year-old male with a history of Ulcerative colitis (UC) presents with fatigue, abdominal pain, and generalized itching. During the examination, he is found to be jaundiced, and his blood tests reveal a significantly elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. An MRCP indicates the presence of multiple strictures in the biliary tree.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Differentiating between liver conditions: Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis, Wilson’s Disease, Cholangitis, Cholecystitis, and Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition characterized by inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the bile ducts. MRCP can show multiple strictures in the biliary tree and a characteristic beaded appearance. PSC is often associated with ulcerative colitis.
Wilson’s disease is a rare inherited disorder that causes an accumulation of copper in various organs, particularly the liver and brain. Symptoms usually appear in teenage years and can include neuropsychiatric conditions or coagulopathy and hepatic encephalopathy. This does not fit with the case history given.
Cholangitis is an ascending infection of the biliary tree, but the absence of signs of infection and the presence of strictures make this diagnosis unlikely.
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, often caused by gallstones. If the gallstones become lodged in the common bile duct, obstructive signs may be seen, but the finding of strictures on MRCP is more suggestive of PSC.
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an autoimmune disorder that causes destruction of the small interlobular bile ducts, leading to intrahepatic cholestasis, fibrosis, and ultimately cirrhosis of the liver. However, the patient’s history of ulcerative colitis makes PSC a more likely diagnosis. Additionally, strictures in the biliary tree would not be seen on MRCP in PBC.
In summary, the presence of strictures on MRCP and a history of ulcerative colitis suggest a diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis, while other liver conditions such as Wilson’s disease, cholangitis, cholecystitis, and primary biliary cholangitis can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis attends the Gastroenterology Clinic for review. Over the past few months, his bowel symptoms have been generally quiescent, but he has suffered from tiredness and itching.
On examination, you notice that he has jaundiced sclerae and there are some scratch marks on his abdomen consistent with the itching.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.6 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Autoantibody screen ANCA +, anti-cardiolipin +, ANA +
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 290 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 85 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
Explanation:Differentiating Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis from Other Liver Conditions
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects around 4% of patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease. It is characterized by an obstructive liver function test (LFT) picture and autoantibody results consistent with PSC. While endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has been considered the gold standard for diagnosis, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is now equally useful. Imaging typically shows a beaded appearance of biliary ducts, and liver biopsy may be useful in determining prognosis. Median survival from diagnosis to death or liver transplantation is around 10-15 years, with a disease recurrence rate of at least 30% in transplanted patients.
Cholelithiasis, on the other hand, typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and does not usually cause jaundice unless there is obstruction of the biliary system. Hepatocellular carcinoma risk is increased in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, but the clinical picture above is more in keeping with PSC. Primary biliary cholangitis would show positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies and mainly affect intrahepatic ducts, while ascending cholangitis would usually present with features of Charcot’s triad (jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist with complaints of recurrent diarrhoea, sweating episodes, and intermittent shortness of breath. During physical examination, a murmur is detected in the pulmonary valve. Urine testing reveals a high level of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid content. What substance is likely responsible for these findings?
Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:Neuroendocrine Tumors and Hormones: Understanding Carcinoid Syndrome and Related Hormones
Carcinoid syndrome is a condition caused by a neuroendocrine tumor, typically found in the gastrointestinal tract, that releases serotonin. Symptoms include flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm, and in some cases, carcinoid heart disease. Diagnosis is made by finding high levels of urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid. Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone, is used to treat VIPomas and carcinoid tumors. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) can cause copious diarrhea but does not cause valvular heart disease. Nitric oxide does not play a role in carcinoid syndrome, while ghrelin regulates hunger and is associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. Understanding these hormones can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of neuroendocrine tumors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still in his abdomen after being stabbed in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan revealed that the tip of the knife had punctured the superior border of the greater omentum at the junction of the body and pyloric antrum of the stomach.
What is the most likely direct branch artery that has been severed by the knife?Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The knife likely cut the right gastro-omental artery, which is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery. This artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach within the superior border of the greater omentum and anastomoses with the left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery. The coeliac trunk, which supplies blood to the foregut, is not related to the greater omentum but to the lesser omentum. The hepatic artery proper, one of the terminal branches of the common hepatic artery, courses towards the liver in the free edge of the lesser omentum. The splenic artery, a tortuous branch of the coeliac trunk, supplies blood to the spleen and gives off the left gastro-omental artery. The short gastric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the fundus of the stomach and branches off the splenic artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old man patient who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his general practitioner with complaints of white lesions in his mouth.
On examination, the white lesions inside the patient’s mouth can easily be scraped off with minimal bleeding. The patient does not have cervical lymph node enlargement and is otherwise well.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Nystatin
Explanation:Management of Oral Candidiasis: Understanding the Treatment Options and Indications for Referral
Oral candidiasis is a common fungal infection that can affect individuals of all ages, particularly infants, older patients who wear dentures, diabetics, and immunosuppressed patients. The infection is caused by the yeast Candida albicans and typically presents as white lesions in the mouth that can be easily scraped off with a tongue blade.
The first-line treatment for localised disease involves topical treatment with nystatin suspension, which is swished and swallowed in the mouth three to four times a day. However, immunosuppressed patients may suffer from widespread C. albicans infections, such as oesophageal candidiasis and candidaemia, which require more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications like amphotericin B.
It is important to note that testing for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is not required in patients with isolated oral thrush. However, immediate specialist referral would be necessary if oropharyngeal cancer was being considered in the differential diagnosis. The two-week wait referral is also indicated for unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks and persistent, unexplained cervical lymph node enlargement.
In conclusion, understanding the appropriate treatment options and indications for referral is crucial in managing oral candidiasis effectively. Topical treatment with nystatin suspension is the first-line therapy for localised disease, while more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications is necessary for disseminated fungal infections. Referral to a specialist is necessary in cases where oropharyngeal cancer is suspected or when there is unexplained oral ulceration or persistent cervical lymph node enlargement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with a yellowish tinge to his skin and eyes and a tremor in his right hand. He mentions that his family has noticed a change in his speech and have been teasing him about sounding drunk. Upon examination, the doctor notes the presence of hepatomegaly, Kayser-Fleischer rings, and the tremor. What is the probable reason for the man's jaundice?
Your Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Common Liver Disorders and Their Characteristics
Wilson’s Disease: A rare genetic disorder that results in copper deposition in various organs, including the liver, cornea, and basal ganglia of the brain. It typically presents in children with hepatic problems and young adults with neurological symptoms such as dysarthria, tremor, involuntary movements, and eventual dementia. Kayser-Fleischer rings may be present.
Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency: A genetic disorder that results in severe deficiency of A1AT, a protein that inhibits enzymes from inflammatory cells. This can lead to cirrhosis, but is typically associated with respiratory pathology and does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings.
Haemochromatosis: A genetic disorder that results in iron overload and is typically described as bronze diabetes due to the bronzing of the skin and the common occurrence of diabetes mellitus in up to 80% of patients.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: An autoimmune condition that typically presents in middle-aged females with itching, jaundice, and Sjögren’s syndrome.
Autoimmune Hepatitis: An autoimmune disorder that often affects young and middle-aged women and is associated with other autoimmune disorders. Around 80% of patients respond well to steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Correct
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A newborn presents with a suspected diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is a characteristic of this condition?
Your Answer: Projectile vomiting
Explanation:Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that is most commonly observed in first-born male children. One of the most characteristic symptoms of this condition is projectile vomiting of large quantities of curdled milk. However, anorexia and loose stools are not typically observed in patients with this condition. The biochemical picture of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
This condition is caused by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric sphincter, which leads to obstruction of the gastric outlet. This obstruction can cause the stomach to become distended, leading to vomiting. Diagnosis of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically made through ultrasound imaging, which can reveal the thickened pyloric muscle. Treatment for this condition typically involves surgical intervention to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal gastric emptying.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of gallstones and an abnormal dilation of the common bile duct measuring 7 mm. The patient is currently taking morphine for pain relief. After four hours, the pain subsides, and she is discharged without any symptoms. Two weeks later, she returns for a follow-up visit and reports being symptom-free. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Repeat USS
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation:The patient had symptoms of biliary colic, including nausea, vomiting, and right upper quadrant pain, and an ultrasound scan revealed gallstones and a dilated common bile duct. While the patient’s pain has subsided, there is a risk of complications from gallstone disease. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure that visualizes the biliary and pancreatic ducts, but it does not offer a management option. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography can diagnose and treat obstruction caused by gallstones, but it is only a symptomatic treatment and not a definitive management. Repeat ultrasound has no added value in management. The only definitive management for gallstones is cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder. Doing nothing puts the patient at risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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