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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, who has had diabetes for the past eight years, visits the Endocrine Clinic with complaints of abdominal fullness and occasional pain. He reports experiencing anorexia, acid reflux, belching, and bloating. He is currently taking glimepiride, metformin, and exenatide and has generally had good control of his blood sugar. However, his last two tests have shown a trend of increasing fasting glucose levels. What is the next appropriate step in managing his condition?
Your Answer: Treat for Helicobacter pylori infection
Correct Answer: Change diabetic medication
Explanation:Changing Diabetic Medication for Gastroparesis
A diabetic patient is experiencing delayed gastric emptying, a common side-effect of GLP-1 agonists like exenatide. To achieve better glycaemic control and prevent current side-effects, the patient’s diabetic medication needs to be changed. However, converting to insulin is not necessary for gastroparesis. Intensifying the current medication is not appropriate due to significant side-effects. Before considering a prokinetic agent like metoclopramide or domperidone, the GLP-1 analogue should be stopped. Treatment for H. pylori infection is not warranted as the patient’s symptoms are not indicative of peptic ulcer disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting and dehydration. He reports a two-month history of weight loss and excessive thirst. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis, with a blood glucose level of 29.3 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), a pH of 7.12 (7.36-7.44) on blood gas analysis, and +++ ketones in the urine. What is the percentage of individuals with type 1 diabetes who are initially diagnosed after presenting with diabetic ketoacidosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Dangerous Complication of Type 1 Diabetes
Approximately one quarter of patients with type 1 diabetes will experience their first symptoms in the form of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). However, it is important to note that these individuals may have previously ignored symptoms such as thirst, frequent urination, and weight loss. DKA is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetes that is characterized by high blood sugar levels, lactic acidosis, vomiting, and dehydration. It is crucial for individuals with type 1 diabetes to be aware of the signs and symptoms of DKA and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may be experiencing this condition. Proper management and treatment of DKA can help prevent serious complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with a spot urinary albumin:creatinine ratio of 3.4 mg/mmol.
Which medication can be prescribed to slow down the advancement of his kidney disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Microalbuminuria as a Predictor of Diabetic Nephropathy
Microalbuminuria is a condition where there is an increased amount of albumin in the urine, which is the first sign of diabetic nephropathy. In men, a urinary ACR of over 2.5 mg/mmol indicates microalbuminuria, while in women, it is over 3.5 mg/mmol. This condition is a predictor of the development of overt nephropathy, which is a severe kidney disease. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with diabetes over the age of 12 years should be screened for microalbuminuria. Moreover, patients who develop microalbuminuria should receive an ACE inhibitor, even if they do not have systemic hypertension. An angiotensin-II receptor antagonist can also be used as an alternative to an ACE inhibitor. It is essential to diagnose and treat microalbuminuria early to prevent the progression of diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to his GP with a painless neck lump. He has a history of hyperparathyroidism. During the examination, the lump is found to be irregular and fixed at his thyroid. He is worried about cancer, as his father died in his 50s due to a phaeochromocytoma. What type of thyroid cancer is most likely in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medullary
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 and its Associated Neoplasms
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) is a genetic disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three types of MEN, namely MEN1, MEN2a, and MEN2b. Each type is associated with specific neoplasms. MEN1 is associated with pituitary, parathyroid, and pancreatic tumors, while MEN2a is associated with phaeochromocytoma, parathyroid, and medullary thyroid cancer. MEN2b, on the other hand, is associated with phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuromas.
Medullary thyroid cancer is a neoplasm associated with both MEN2a and MEN2b. Patients with a family history of phaeochromocytoma, previous hyperparathyroidism, and suspected thyroid cancer are at high risk of having MEN2. However, lymphoma, anaplastic thyroid cancer, follicular thyroid cancer, and papillary thyroid cancer are not associated with MEN2.
Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated neoplasms is crucial in the diagnosis and management of patients with endocrine disorders. Early detection and treatment can improve the prognosis and quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A patient with lipoprotein lipase deficiency visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his regular blood test.
Which of the following results would you expect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs
Explanation:Understanding Lipoprotein Lipase and its Effects on Lipid Levels
Lipoprotein lipase plays a crucial role in the metabolism of lipids in the body. Its deficiency can result in various lipid abnormalities, which can be classified according to the Fredrickson classification of hyperlipoproteinaemias. Familial hyperchylomicronaemia, a type I primary hyperlipidaemia, is characterized by elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs due to lipoprotein lipase deficiency. On the other hand, lipoprotein lipase is not directly involved in LDL levels, which are influenced by LDL-receptor and lipoprotein lipase C. Similarly, low VLDL levels are not expected in the absence of lipoprotein lipase, as it is important in hydrolysing both chylomicrons and VLDLs. Overall, understanding the role of lipoprotein lipase can help in identifying and managing lipid abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease and is currently taking alfacalcidol, ramipril, Renagel, and EPO injections. Her eGFR upon admission is 24 ml/min/1.73 m2. What analgesic would you recommend for her pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS
Explanation:Medication Considerations for Patients with Renal Dysfunction
Patients with renal dysfunction should avoid taking NSAIDs as they can worsen their condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is already a common complication of chronic renal failure. Instead, alternative pain management options should be explored. If opiates are necessary, they should be prescribed with caution as they can accumulate in the body due to reduced renal excretion, especially in patients who have not previously taken them. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with renal dysfunction. Proper medication management can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and improve overall patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of his type 2 diabetes. He was diagnosed with diabetes eight months ago and has been taking metformin 1 g twice daily. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. The results of his laboratory tests are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal range
HbA1C 62 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
Creatinine 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 92 ml/min > 90 ml/min
What would be the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor
Explanation:Comparing Anti-Diabetic Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with High BMI
When selecting an anti-diabetic medication for a patient with a high BMI, it is important to consider the potential for weight gain and hypoglycaemia. Here, we compare four options:
1. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor: This medication sustains the release of insulin and lowers blood sugar levels without causing weight gain.
2. Sulfonylurea: This medication stimulates the release of insulin and is often used as a second-line agent, but can cause weight gain.
3. Acarbose: This medication does not significantly improve glucose control and can exacerbate gastrointestinal side-effects when used with metformin.
4. Insulin basal bolus regimen and pre-mixed insulin 70:30: These options provide optimal glucose control but carry the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.
For this patient, a DPP4 inhibitor is the best option as it provides additional glucose control without causing weight gain. Sulfonylurea may also be considered, but the risk of weight gain should be monitored. Insulin regimens are not necessary at this time, but may be considered in the future if oral medications do not provide adequate control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old athlete attends a routine check-up. Her past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes since the age of 7. Her glucose is well controlled with self-administration of insulin. She reports that she is training for the upcoming national championship. She has specific questions regarding the effects and actions of insulin.
Which of the following is correct regarding the action of insulin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin increases protein synthesis in muscle
Explanation:The Effects of Insulin on the Body: Promoting Protein Synthesis, Sodium Secretion, and More
Insulin is a crucial hormone synthesized in pancreatic β cells that plays a vital role in the metabolism of carbohydrates and lipids in the body. This peptide hormone promotes glycogen synthesis, increases potassium uptake, and reduces lipolysis and proteolysis in cells. Additionally, insulin is known to increase protein synthesis in muscle and decrease triglyceride synthesis and storage in adipocytes.
One of the lesser-known effects of insulin is its ability to promote sodium secretion in the renal tubules. Insulin is also responsible for increasing tubular sodium reabsorption in the kidney, which halves sodium excretion.
Furthermore, insulin is used in the management of hyperkalaemia as it increases serum potassium levels by causing a shift of potassium into the cells, thereby lowering circulating potassium and increasing intracellular potassium concentration.
However, insulin does decrease glycogen storage in cells by activating enzymes involved in glycogen synthesis in the liver and tissues, causing the conversion of glucose to glycogen.
In summary, insulin has a wide range of effects on the body, from promoting protein synthesis to regulating potassium and sodium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is an example of an exocrine function of the pancreas?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secretion of amylase
Explanation:Functions of Digestive Enzymes and Hormones
Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of carbohydrates. It is present in both pancreatic juices and saliva. The exocrine function of the pancreas involves the secretion of substances into ducts that ultimately pass to the exterior of the body. Examples of exocrine glands include sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands. On the other hand, the endocrine function of the pancreas involves the secretion of substances directly into the bloodstream. Insulin, which is secreted from the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas, is an example of an endocrine function.
Bile is another substance that aids in digestion. It is secreted by hepatocytes and stored in the gallbladder. Following a meal, bile is released to aid in the digestion of fats. Intrinsic factor, which is secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach, is responsible for binding vitamin B12 to allow its absorption in the terminal ileum. Finally, noradrenaline is a hormone that is released by the adrenal medulla. It plays a role in the body’s fight or flight response.
In summary, the digestive system relies on a variety of enzymes and hormones to function properly. These substances are secreted by various glands and organs throughout the body, and they work together to break down food and absorb nutrients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
Explanation:Sipple Syndrome (MEN 2A)
Sipple syndrome, also known as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 2A, is a group of endocrine disorders that occur together in the same patient and are typically inherited. This syndrome is caused by a defect in a gene that controls the normal growth of endocrine tissues. As a result, individuals with Sipple syndrome may develop bilateral medullary carcinoma or C cell hyperplasia, phaeochromocytoma, and hyperparathyroidism.
Sipple syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, which means that if a person has the defective gene, they have a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring. This syndrome affects both males and females equally, and the peak incidence of medullary carcinoma in these patients is typically in their 30s.
In summary, Sipple syndrome is a rare inherited disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands. It is important for individuals with a family history of this syndrome to undergo genetic testing and regular screenings to detect any potential tumors or abnormalities early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A teenager comes to see you in general practice with a swelling in the region of their throat. They are worried because they have read about an extremely invasive cancer which is difficult to treat.
Which of the following is the patient referring to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Explanation:Types of Thyroid Cancer and Their Prognosis
Thyroid cancer is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland, a small butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. There are different types of thyroid cancer, each with its own characteristics and prognosis.
Anaplastic thyroid cancer is a rare but aggressive form of thyroid cancer that mostly affects the elderly. It presents as a hard mass within the thyroid and is responsible for a significant number of deaths from thyroid cancer.
Follicular thyroid cancer is the second most common type of thyroid cancer. Although it is more aggressive than papillary thyroid cancer, it still has a good prognosis.
Medullary thyroid cancer originates from the thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve the prognosis.
Thyroid lymphoma is a rare form of lymphoma that affects the thyroid gland. It has a good prognosis with proper treatment.
Papillary thyroid cancer is the most common type of thyroid cancer, occurring mostly in people between the ages of 25 and 50. It presents as an irregular mass arising from a normal thyroid and has a good prognosis.
In summary, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer and their prognosis can help with early detection and treatment, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man with type 1 diabetes for 20 years presents with an ulcer on his right foot. The ulcer is located on the outer aspect of his right big toe and measures 2 cm in diameter. Despite having palpable peripheral pulses, he experiences peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematosus margin and is covered by slough. What is the most probable infective organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into neuropathic and ischemic. Infections in diabetic feet are serious and can range from superficial to deep infections and gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is more common in previously hospitalized or antibiotic-treated patients. Deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture and broad-spectrum antibiotics started if infection is suspected. Urgent surgical intervention is indicated for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with a six year history of type 2 diabetes has been diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and started taking atorvastatin 80 mg daily to manage his cholesterol level of 6.2 mmol/L. However, he has returned to the clinic complaining of muscle aches and pains, and his liver function tests have shown elevated levels from his baseline. His pre-treatment ALT was 60 IU/L, and now it is 95 IU/L. He is concerned about the side effects of the statin and asks if he should stop taking it. What is the most appropriate next step to manage his hypercholesterolaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 40 mg daily
Explanation:Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus are recommended to receive high-dose statins to manage their elevated cholesterol levels. However, some patients may experience intolerance to statins, such as myalgia and raised liver function tests. In such cases, NICE advises reducing the dose or considering an alternative statin. Fibrate and ezetimibe are generally not recommended for these patients, and referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are completely not tolerated.
To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. However, cautious monitoring of liver function tests should be performed if starting another statin. If a patient has a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis, statins should generally be avoided in the future if possible.
In summary, managing statin intolerance in patients with ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus requires careful consideration of alternative options and cautious monitoring of side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the Acute Medicine Unit with hyponatraemia. He reports feeling generally unwell and apathetic, and has experienced a 6 kg weight loss over the past three months. He has no history of medication use and is a heavy smoker. Upon examination, he is euvolaemic and a chest X-ray reveals a right hilar mass. His blood results show a serum sodium level of 123 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), serum osmolality of 267 mosmol/kg (normal range: 275-295 mosmol/kg), urine sodium of 55 mmol/l (normal range: <20 mmol/l), urine osmolality of 110 mosmol/l (normal range: <100 mosmol/kg), and morning cortisol of 450 nmol/l (normal range: 119-618 mmol/l). What is the most appropriate initial management for his hyponatraemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid restriction 800 ml/24 hours
Explanation:Treatment Options for Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by euvolaemic hypo-osmolar hyponatraemia with inappropriately elevated urinary sodium and normal thyroid and adrenal function. The first-line treatment for moderate SIADH is fluid restriction, which aims to increase serum sodium concentration by 5-8 mmol/L per 24 hours. However, some treatment options can worsen the condition.
Intravenous 0.9% saline infusion over 12 hours is not recommended for SIADH patients as it can lower serum sodium even further. This is because the kidney regulates sodium and water independently, and in SIADH, only water handling is out of balance from too much ADH.
Intranasal desmopressin 10 μg is also not recommended as it limits the amount of free water excreted by the kidneys, worsening hyponatraemia.
Intravenous hydrocortisone 100 mg is used if steroid deficiency is suspected as the underlying cause of hyponatraemia. However, if the morning cortisol is normal, it is not necessary.
Performing a water-deprivation test is used in the diagnosis of diabetes insipidus, which presents with excess thirst, urination, and often hypernatraemia and raised plasma osmolality. It is not a treatment option for SIADH.
In conclusion, fluid restriction is the first-line treatment for moderate SIADH, and other treatment options should be avoided unless there is a specific underlying cause for hyponatraemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with a history of diabetes mellitus for five years presents with restricted myocardial dysfunction and skin pigmentation. His ALT level is elevated at 153 IU/L. What is the most suitable investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation
Explanation:Haemochromatosis
Haemochromatosis is a genetic condition that results in excessive absorption of iron from the gut, leading to the accumulation of iron in various organs such as the liver, pancreas, heart, endocrine glands, and joints. This condition is characterized by extremely high levels of ferritin (>500) and transferrin saturation. The transferrin saturation test measures the amount of iron bound to the protein that carries iron in the blood, while the total iron binding capacity (TIBC) test determines how well the blood can transport iron. The serum ferritin test, on the other hand, shows the level of iron in the liver.
To confirm the diagnosis of haemochromatosis, a test to detect the HFE mutation is usually conducted. If the mutation is not present, then hereditary haemochromatosis is not the cause of the iron build-up. It is important to note that other conditions such as Wilson’s disease, hepatitis B infection, and autoimmune hepatitis may also cause raised ferritin levels, but they do not result in myocardial dysfunction or skin pigmentation.
In summary, haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes excessive absorption of iron from the gut, leading to the accumulation of iron in various organs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed through a combination of tests, including the HFE mutation test, transferrin saturation test, TIBC test, and serum ferritin test. It is important to differentiate haemochromatosis from other conditions that may cause similar symptoms but require different treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of excessive sweating, palpitations, and weight loss. She now complains of a headache. On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. She has a bounding pulse of 115 bpm, a tremor, and appears pale. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which hormone is most likely responsible for her symptoms and signs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catecholamines
Explanation:Explanation of Hormones and their Role in Hypertension
The patient’s symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and causes malignant hypertension. Excess cortisol production in Cushing’s syndrome can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Renin abnormalities can lead to hypertension, but it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hyperaldosteronism can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Although hyperthyroidism can explain most of the patient’s symptoms, it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, the patient’s symptoms are most likely due to the secretion of catecholamines from the phaeochromocytoma tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is mainly accountable for producing which hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldosterone
Explanation:The Adrenal Cortex and its Layers
The adrenal cortex is composed of two layers: the cortical and medullary layers. The zona glomerulosa, found in the cortical layer, is responsible for the secretion of aldosterone. Meanwhile, the zona fasciculata, also in the cortical layer, mainly secretes glucocorticoids, while the zona reticularis secretes adrenal androgens. However, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens.
In summary, the adrenal cortex is divided into two layers, each with its own specific functions. The zona glomerulosa secretes aldosterone, while the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis secrete glucocorticoids and adrenal androgens, respectively. Despite their specific functions, both layers are capable of secreting both glucocorticoids and androgens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A patient with diabetes who is 60 years old is admitted with confusion and is found to have a blood glucose level of 1.2 mmol/L.
Which injectable diabetes therapy is a mixed insulin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Humulin M3
Explanation:Insulin Types and Mixtures
Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels in the body. Premix or mixed insulin is a combination of short and long-acting insulin. It is identified by a number that represents the percentage of rapid-acting insulin it contains. For instance, Novomix 30 has 30% rapid-acting insulin and 70% long-acting insulin. Mixed insulin is usually taken twice daily and must be administered with meals as it contains rapid-acting insulin.
Insulin detemir, also known as Levemir, is a long-acting analogue that lasts for about 12-20 hours and is usually given twice a day. Insulin glargine, also known as Lantus, is another long-acting analogue that lasts for about 20-24 hours and is usually given once a day. Novorapid is a fast-acting insulin that is often used to cover the increase in blood glucose levels following a meal. Patients taking Novorapid will usually require treatment with a long-acting insulin.
Exenatide is an injectable therapy for type 2 diabetes that is based on the hormone glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) and is not insulin. It is important to note that lipohypertrophy can occur in all insulin treatments. This refers to the accumulation of fatty deposits at injection sites, which can affect the rate of insulin absorption and, in turn, affect the patient’s glycaemic control. Therefore, it is crucial to rotate injection sites regularly to avoid lipohypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female medical student experiences severe epigastric pain, following an evening indulging in large amounts of fatty foods. She went to visit her general practitioner (GP) who, upon further investigation, organised an analysis of her lipoprotein profile.
Analysis showed a deficiency of apolipoprotein (apo) C-II; all other lipoproteins were normal.
Which of the following profiles is plasma electrophoresis most likely to show?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs
Explanation:Understanding Lipoprotein Abnormalities: Causes and Clinical Features
Lipoprotein abnormalities can lead to various health conditions, including atherosclerosis and pancreatitis. The Frederickson classification system categorizes hyperlipoproteinaemias based on their underlying defects, serum abnormalities, and clinical features.
One common cause of elevated levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs is a deficiency in apo C-II, an essential cofactor of lipoprotein lipase. This deficiency impairs the hydrolysis of triglycerides in chylomicrons and VLDLs, resulting in their accumulation in the bloodstream.
On the other hand, low VLDL levels and no other changes may indicate a deficiency in VLDL production. However, it is important to note that low levels of both chylomicrons and VLDLs may not necessarily indicate a deficiency in either lipoprotein. In fact, both chylomicrons and VLDLs would be expected to be high in this scenario.
Understanding the causes and clinical features of lipoprotein abnormalities is crucial in diagnosing and managing related health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman with Addison's disease is currently taking hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening, but she has been struggling with poor compliance. She believes that the hydrocortisone is causing stomach upset and is interested in switching to enteric coated prednisolone. What would be the appropriate daily dose of prednisolone for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mg daily
Explanation:Glucocorticoid Therapy: Hydrocortisone vs. Prednisolone
Glucocorticoid therapy is a common treatment for various inflammatory conditions. Hydrocortisone and prednisolone are two commonly used glucocorticoids, but they differ in their potency and mineralocorticoid activity. Hydrocortisone has a relatively high mineralocorticoid activity, which can cause fluid retention and make it unsuitable for long-term disease suppression. However, it can be used for adrenal replacement therapy and emergency management of some conditions. Its moderate anti-inflammatory potency also makes it useful as a topical corticosteroid for managing inflammatory skin conditions with fewer side effects.
On the other hand, prednisolone and prednisone have predominantly glucocorticoid activity, making them the preferred choice for long-term disease suppression. Prednisolone is the most commonly used corticosteroid taken orally for this purpose. It is important to note that the approximate equivalent glucocorticoid action of prednisolone to hydrocortisone is 4:1. Therefore, the equivalent dose for 20 mg of hydrocortisone is roughly 5 mg per day of prednisolone.
In summary, the choice of glucocorticoid therapy depends on the specific condition being treated and the desired duration of treatment. Hydrocortisone is useful for short-term and emergency management, while prednisolone is preferred for long-term disease suppression. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate glucocorticoid therapy and dosage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is a factor that can lead to a delay in bone maturation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Newly diagnosed growth hormone deficiency in a 6-year-old girl
Explanation:Factors affecting bone age in children
Bone age, which refers to the degree of maturation of a child’s bones, can be influenced by various factors. In a child with normal thyroid function, bone age would be expected to be normal if they are receiving adequate treatment. However, in cases of growth hormone deficiency, bone age may be delayed. On the other hand, in cases of exogenous obesity resulting from over-nutrition and lack of exercise, bone age may be advanced.
If a child has an underlying endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism, their bone age may be delayed. Turner’s syndrome, a genetic disorder affecting females, is also associated with delayed bone age by approximately 2 years during childhood. Conversely, congenital adrenal hyperplasia and central precocious puberty can cause advanced bone age.
In summary, bone age can be affected by various factors, including thyroid function, growth hormone deficiency, obesity, endocrine disorders, and genetic conditions. these factors can help healthcare providers assess a child’s growth and development and provide appropriate treatment if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of central chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is currently taking ramipril, metformin, atorvastatin, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 129/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 81. Bibasal crackles are heard on auscultation of his chest.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 138 g/L (130-180)
- White cell count: 8.9 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelet: 197 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 141 mmol/L (135-146)
- Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 123 µmol/L (79-118)
- Glucose: 12.3 mmol/L (<7.0)
- ECG: Anterolateral ST depression
The patient is given sublingual GTN. What is the next most appropriate therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 300 mg and unfractionated heparin
Explanation:Treatment Plan for High-Risk Patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
This patient, who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, is considered high risk and requires immediate treatment. The recommended treatment plan includes loading the patient with both aspirin and clopidogrel to reduce the risk of further complications. If the patient experiences further chest pain or if ECG signs do not improve, additional interventions such as angiography may be necessary.
In addition to aspirin and clopidogrel, unfractionated heparin is also recommended as an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours of admission. If the patient does not progress to angiogram, screening for ischaemia should be considered prior to discharge.
Overall, it is important to closely monitor this high-risk patient and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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On a set of MRI scans being examined for a 21-year-old woman suspected of having Cushing syndrome due to weight gain and excess facial hair, which structure would be found posterior to the left suprarenal (adrenal) gland?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crus of diaphragm
Explanation:Anatomy of the Posterior Abdominal Wall
The posterior abdominal wall is a complex structure consisting of various muscles, fascia, and organs. Here are some key components:
Crus of Diaphragm: The left suprarenal (adrenal) gland is located in the posterior abdomen and is enclosed by the perirenal fascia, which attaches it to the left crus of the diaphragm. The left crus is a tendinous structure arising from the anterior bodies of the L1 and L2 vertebrae.
Psoas Major Muscle: This muscle is responsible for the lateral flexion of the lumbar spine and assists in the stabilization and flexion of the hip. It is found in the posterior abdomen, bound by fascia.
Quadratus Lumborum Muscle: This quadrilateral muscle is associated with the lateral flexion and extension of the vertebral column. It is located posteriorly to the colon, kidney, psoas muscle, and diaphragm.
Transversus Abdominis Muscle: This is the innermost muscle forming the anterior abdominal muscles, lying posterior to the internal oblique and anterior to the transversalis fascia.
Thoracolumbar Fascia: This diamond-shaped fascia encloses the intrinsic muscles of the back and is affected in piriformis syndrome and sacro-iliac joint pains. It is not anatomically associated with the adrenal glands.
Understanding the Posterior Abdominal Wall Anatomy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
-
What is a metabolic effect of exenatide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suppresses appetite
Explanation:The Metabolic Effects of Exenatide
Exenatide is a medication that imitates the actions of GLP-1, a hormone produced in the gut. It has been found to have beneficial effects on the metabolism of individuals with diabetes mellitus. One of the main effects of exenatide is its ability to suppress appetite, which can help individuals with diabetes to manage their weight. Additionally, exenatide inhibits glucose production in the liver, which can help to regulate blood sugar levels. It also slows gastric emptying, which can help to prevent spikes in blood sugar after meals. Finally, exenatide stimulates insulin release, which can help to lower blood sugar levels. It is important to note that exenatide does not increase insulin sensitivity, which is achieved by other medications such as metformin and the glitazones. Overall, exenatide has a range of metabolic effects that can be beneficial for individuals with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Addison's disease after presenting with symptoms of fatigue, weakness, gastrointestinal upset, and skin hyperpigmentation. Which adrenal hormone deficiency is typically responsible for the loss of sodium and water in Addison's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldosterone
Explanation:Hormones Affected in Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. This can lead to a variety of symptoms, including salt wasting and hyperkalaemia. Here are the hormones affected in Addison’s disease:
1. Aldosterone: Produced in the adrenal cortex, aldosterone is responsible for reabsorbing sodium and secreting potassium in the kidney. In Addison’s disease, aldosterone levels are low, leading to salt wasting and hyperkalaemia.
2. Cortisol: Low cortisol levels are a diagnostic marker for Addison’s disease. While cortisol does affect sodium homeostasis, its deficiency alone does not lead to salt wasting.
3. Adrenaline: The function of the adrenal medulla, which produces adrenaline, is preserved in Addison’s disease.
4. Angiotensin: While angiotensin does affect sodium reabsorption in the kidney, its levels would not be low in Addison’s disease.
5. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): Levels of ACTH are high in Addison’s disease, which leads to the characteristic skin pigmentation.
Understanding the hormones affected in Addison’s disease can help with diagnosis and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation
Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.
De Quervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.
In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a swollen neck and upon examination, you find an unusual neck mass that raises suspicion of thyroid cancer. You arrange for a fine-needle aspiration and a histology report from a thyroid lobectomy reveals chromatin clearing, nuclear shape alteration, and irregularity of the nuclear membrane. There is no evidence of C cell differentiation, and the patient has no family history of cancer. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Explanation:Thyroid cancer can take different forms, with papillary carcinoma being the most common and typically affecting women between 35 and 40 years old. This type of cancer has a good long-term prognosis. Medullary carcinoma arises from C cells that produce calcitonin and CEA, and can be sporadic or associated with a genetic syndrome. Follicular carcinoma is difficult to diagnose through FNA and requires a full histological specimen to confirm, with distinguishing features being vascular and capsule invasion. Anaplastic carcinoma is the most aggressive thyroid tumor, typically affecting older individuals and lacking biological features of the original thyroid cells. Thyroid lymphomas are rare and typically affect women over 50 with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He stands at a height of 150 cm and weighs 60 kg, which is at the 50th centile. His sexual maturity rating is stage 2. What is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pubertal gynaecomastia
Explanation:Pubertal Gynaecomastia in Young Boys
Pubertal gynaecomastia is a common occurrence in young boys, with unilateral disease being more prevalent than bilateral. However, it typically disappears within two years. While prolactinomas can cause gynaecomastia, they are not the most likely cause and are rare in this age group. It is important to note that the height and weight of the child are within normal range.
Overall, pubertal gynaecomastia is a temporary condition that affects many young boys during puberty. While it can be concerning for parents and children, it is typically not a cause for alarm and will resolve on its own. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to rule out any underlying medical conditions, but in most cases, no treatment is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is referred to the Diabetes Clinic with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 34 kg/m2. Her finger-prick blood glucose test is 9 mmol/l. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease and chronic kidney disease. Her medications include ramipril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 40 mg, aspirin 75 mg and bisoprolol 5 mg. Her laboratory test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal range
HbA1C 61 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
Creatinine 178 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 26 ml/min > 90 ml/min
Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate to manage this patient’s diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linagliptin
Explanation:Common Anti-Diabetic Medications and Their Mechanisms of Action
Linagliptin: This medication is a DPP-4 inhibitor that works by blocking the degradation of GLP-1, which increases insulin secretion and lowers blood sugar levels.
Glargine insulin: Glargine is a long-acting insulin that is preferred for people needing baseline control of sugar throughout the day and those at risk of hypoglycaemia. It has a lower risk of causing hypoglycaemia compared to other insulin types and may cause weight gain.
Rosiglitazone: This thiazolidinedione medication is an agonist for the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors and is used for diabetes control. However, it can exacerbate heart conditions and cause weight gain, and is no longer recommended by BNF due to increased risk of heart attacks.
Metformin: This biguanide medication is commonly used as first-line treatment for diabetes, but its use is limited by gastrointestinal upset and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function and low GFR.
Gliclazide: This sulfonylurea medication is an insulin secretagogue that stimulates the release of insulin. It is often used as a second-line medication, but its use is limited by the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of depression. The PCP observes a lump in the center of her neck and proceeds to conduct a cardiovascular and thyroid function assessment. During the examination, the patient appears sluggish and has a subdued mood. Her heart rate is 68 bpm and her blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg; there is paleness of the conjunctivae. The lump is symmetrically enlarged without skin alterations; it moves upward when swallowing and has a nodular consistency.
What is the most appropriate initial test to perform for diagnostic assistance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Thyroid Function Tests: Initial Investigation for Hypothyroidism
When a patient presents with symptoms and signs suggestive of hypothyroidism, the most appropriate initial test is thyroid function tests. However, if a neck swelling is also present, an ultrasound scan may be useful to assess for a goitre. If a cystic swelling is identified, a fine-needle aspirate sample may be taken for cytological analysis. A radio-isotope scan may also be performed to further assess thyroid pathology. While a full blood count is typically checked at the same time, it is not the best answer given the scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and decreased consciousness. Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 30/min and is tachypnoeic. Oxygen saturations are 98%. Urgent blood gases reveal a pH of 7.04, pO2 16.0 kPa, pCO2 2.6 kPa, HCO3- 3 mmol/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:Causes of Metabolic Acidosis and Alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by low pH, low carbon dioxide, and low bicarbonate levels. One of the most common causes of metabolic acidosis is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which can lead to confusion and reduced consciousness. Treatment for DKA involves an insulin infusion and intravenous fluids.
On the other hand, respiratory alkalosis is characterized by high pH and low carbon dioxide levels. Asthma and pulmonary embolism are two conditions that can cause tachypnea and respiratory alkalosis due to increased minute volume and blowing off carbon dioxide.
In contrast, metabolic alkalosis is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels. Conn’s syndrome, also known as hyperaldosteronism, is a condition that typically causes hypertension and metabolic alkalosis.
Lastly, diazepam overdose can cause hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by low pH and high carbon dioxide levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old individual with diabetes complains of difficulty reading newsprint. Fundoscopy reveals clouding of the lens, making it difficult to visualize the retina.
What is the probable reason for this person's vision impairment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cataract
Explanation:Premature Cataracts and their Association with Diabetes and Other Conditions
Cataracts can develop prematurely in individuals with certain medical conditions such as diabetes, Cushing’s syndrome, and those who have undergone steroid therapy or experienced trauma. In such cases, it is important to treat the cataracts in order to properly evaluate the back of the eye for signs of diabetic retinopathy. This condition occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision loss. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the eyes of individuals with these medical conditions to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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The hormone CRH, which originates from the hypothalamus, triggers the release of which hormone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
Explanation:Hormones and their Secretion
The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH) which triggers the anterior pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). ACTH then acts on the adrenal cortex to stimulate the secretion of cortisol. Meanwhile, the anterior pituitary gland also secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) which stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. On the other hand, the adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline in response to stress or danger.
In summary, the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, adrenal cortex, and adrenal medulla work together to regulate the secretion of various hormones in the body. These hormones play important roles in maintaining homeostasis and responding to stressors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which statement about testosterone is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a steroid hormone
Explanation:Testosterone: A Steroid Hormone
Testosterone is a type of steroid hormone that can be transformed into oestradiol. It has the ability to bind to intracellular receptors and is typically attached to sex-hormone binding globulin. This hormone plays a crucial role in the development of male reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics. It is also present in females, albeit in smaller amounts, and is responsible for regulating their menstrual cycle and maintaining bone density.
In summary, testosterone is a vital hormone that affects both males and females. Its ability to bind to intracellular receptors and convert to oestradiol makes it a versatile hormone that plays a significant role in the human body. the functions of testosterone is essential in maintaining overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which hormone is responsible for the excess in Cushing's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Explanation:Cushing’s Disease
Cushing’s disease is a condition characterized by excessive cortisol production due to adrenal hyperfunction caused by an overproduction of ACTH from a pituitary corticotrophin adenoma. This results in both adrenal glands producing more cortisol and cortisol precursors. It is important to differentiate between primary and secondary hypercortisolaemia, which can be done by measuring ACTH levels in the blood. If ACTH levels are not suppressed, it indicates secondary hypercortisolaemia, which is driven by either pituitary or ectopic ACTH production. the underlying cause of hypercortisolaemia is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for individuals with Cushing’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of palpitations and weight loss. Her thyroid function tests reveal the following results:
TSH <0.03 mU/L (0.35 - 5.5)
Free T4 46 pmol/L (10 - 19.8)
What condition do these thyroid function tests suggest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperthyroidism
Explanation:The thyroid hormone axis is a complex system that involves the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland. The hypothalamus produces thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release the thyroid hormones T4 and T3.
In cases of hyperthyroidism, there is an overproduction of free T4, which leads to the suppression of TSH production by the pituitary gland through negative feedback. This results in elevated levels of free T4 in the bloodstream, which can cause symptoms such as weight loss and palpitations.
It is important to note that while T4 and T3 are mainly bound to protein in the bloodstream, it is the free (non-protein-bound) hormones that are physiologically active. The thyroid hormone axis and its role in regulating the body’s metabolism can help in the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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In addition to its effects on bone, PTH primarily acts on which organ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kidney
Explanation:The Effects of PTH on Bone and Kidney
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) has two main targets in the body: the bone and the kidney. Its primary goal in the bone is to increase calcium levels by stimulating the activity of osteoclasts, which break down bone tissue to release calcium into the bloodstream. In the kidney, PTH has a different effect. It increases the reabsorption of calcium and decreases the absorption of phosphate, which helps to maintain the balance of these minerals in the body. Additionally, PTH stimulates the production of 1-alpha hydroxylation of vitamin D in the kidney, which is important for calcium absorption and bone health. Overall, PTH plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body, and its effects on bone and kidney function are essential for maintaining healthy bones and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia
Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.
Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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For which medical condition is Pioglitazone prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Pioglitazone for Type 2 Diabetes: Mechanism of Action and Side Effects
Pioglitazone is a medication used to treat insulin resistance in patients with type 2 diabetes. It works by activating PPAR gamma, a protein that regulates the expression of genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism. This leads to improved insulin sensitivity and better control of blood sugar levels. Pioglitazone has been shown to lower HbA1c levels by approximately 1%.
However, pioglitazone is associated with several side effects. One of the most common is fluid retention, which can lead to swelling in the legs and feet. It can also cause a loss of bone mineral density, which may increase the risk of fractures. Additionally, pioglitazone has been linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer, particularly in patients with a history of bladder tumors or polyps. For this reason, it should not be prescribed to these patients.
In summary, pioglitazone is an effective medication for treating insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects, particularly the risk of bladder cancer in certain patients. Patients taking pioglitazone should be monitored closely for any signs of fluid retention or bone loss, and those with a history of bladder tumors or polyps should not take this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient presents with decompensated liver disease due to hepatocellular carcinoma. She is currently encephalopathic and has an INR of 6. What low-dose medication can be safely administered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codeine
Explanation:Adjusting Drug Dosages for Patients with Hepatic Impairment
Patients with hepatic impairment may require adjustments to their medication regimen to prevent further liver damage or reduced drug metabolism. Certain drugs should be avoided altogether, including paracetamol, carbamazepine, oral contraceptive pills, ergometrine, and anticoagulants or antiplatelets like aspirin or warfarin due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Other medications, such as opiates, methotrexate, theophylline, and phenytoin, may still be prescribed but at a reduced dose to minimize potential harm to the liver. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of each medication and adjust dosages accordingly for patients with hepatic impairment. Proper medication management can help improve patient outcomes and prevent further liver damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old male with a past medical history of alcoholic liver disease arrives at the Emergency department complaining of chest pain. After conducting an ECG and measuring troponin levels, it is confirmed that the patient is experiencing NSTEMI. What beta blocker would you prescribe to prevent any future myocardial events?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol 40 mg BD
Explanation:Safe Use of Beta Blockers in Liver Disease
Beta blockers are commonly used to prevent variceal bleeding. The recommended dose for this purpose is typically lower than the normal dose, but it can be increased if necessary. However, in patients with liver disease, the manufacturer recommends using a lower dose to avoid potential complications. Bisoprolol is one beta blocker that is safe to use in liver disease, but the maximum recommended dose is 10 mg once daily. Other beta blockers should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the risk of adverse effects. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose and medication for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman visits her new GP for routine blood tests after recently moving locations. She mentions that her previous GP had told her she had a ‘thyroid problem’ and had prescribed medication, but she cannot recall any further details. Her blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 18 mu/l 0.5–5.5 mu/l
Free thyroxine (T4) 9.2 pmol/l 9–18 pmol/l
What could be the possible cause of these biochemical results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Poor compliance with thyroxine
Explanation:Thyroid Function Tests: Understanding the Results
Thyroid function tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor thyroid disorders. The results of these tests can provide valuable information about the functioning of the thyroid gland. Here are some common thyroid function test results and what they may indicate:
Poor Compliance with Thyroxine
Patients who are not compliant with their thyroxine medication may only take it a few days before a routine blood test. This can result in normal thyroxine levels due to the supplementation, but the TSH levels may not have enough time to reach the normal range due to the required negative feedback.Sick Euthyroid Syndrome
In this condition, all TSH, thyroxine, and T3 levels are low. However, the TSH level is often within the normal range. This condition is reversible upon recovery from the systemic illness.Thyrotoxicosis
Thyrotoxicosis is characterized by low TSH and high T4 levels.Primary Hypothyroidism
Primary hypothyroidism results in low T4 levels and subsequent high TSH levels due to negative feedback.Secondary Hypothyroidism
In secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and T4 levels are low. This condition occurs due to the failure of the anterior pituitary to secrete TSH despite adequate thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) levels. TRH is elevated, but TSH, T3, and T4 are low, and TSH fails to rise even after a TRH stimulation test.Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help healthcare providers diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old teacher presents to the general practitioner (GP) complaining of fatigue and muscle pains. The symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few months, and now she feels too tired after work to attend her weekly yoga class. She has a history of seasonal allergies and takes antihistamines during the spring and summer. The patient is a non-smoker, drinks occasionally, and follows a vegetarian diet.
During examination, no abnormalities are found, and the GP orders blood tests for further investigation. The results reveal a serum vitamin D (25OHD) level of 18 nmol/l (normal value recommended > 50 nmol/l).
Which molecule involved in the vitamin D synthesis pathway binds to the vitamin D receptor to regulate calcium homeostasis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcitriol
Explanation:Understanding the Different Forms of Vitamin D
Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in calcium homeostasis. However, it exists in different forms, each with its own unique properties and functions. Here are the different forms of vitamin D and their roles:
1. Calcitriol: Also known as 1, 25-hydroxycolecalciferol, this form of vitamin D binds to the vitamin D receptor to create a ligand-receptor complex that alters cellular gene expression.
2. Previtamin D3: This is the precursor to vitamin D3 and does not play a direct role in calcium homeostasis.
3. Calcidiol: This is 25-hydroxycolecalciferol, the precursor to calcitriol. It has a very low affinity for the vitamin D receptor and is largely inactive.
4. Colecalciferol: This is vitamin D3, which is itself inactive and is the precursor to calcidiol.
5. 24, 25-dihydroxycolecalciferol: This is an inactive form of calcidiol and is excreted.
Understanding the different forms of vitamin D is important in determining the appropriate supplementation and treatment for vitamin D deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high blood pressure despite being on medication. His current treatment includes atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, but his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, grade II hypertensive retinopathy is observed. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What possible diagnosis should be considered as the cause of his resistant hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
Explanation:Primary Hyperaldosteronism and Resistant Hypertension
This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should typically increase their potassium concentration. Additionally, their potassium levels are low, which is a strong indication of primary hyperaldosteronism.
Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (known as Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be difficult to manage, but identifying it early can help prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
Which statement about leptin is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Produces satiety
Explanation:The Role of Leptin in Regulating Appetite and Body Weight
Leptin is a hormone that is produced by adipocytes, or fat cells, and its concentration in the bloodstream is directly related to the amount of fat in the body. When leptin levels are high, it acts on receptors in the hypothalamus to produce feelings of satiety, or fullness, which can help to reduce food intake. This makes leptin an important regulator of appetite and body weight.
However, in some cases, patients may develop leptin resistance, which means that their bodies are no longer able to respond to the hormone in the same way. This can lead to continued weight gain and difficulty in controlling food intake, even when leptin levels are high. Despite this, researchers continue to study the role of leptin in the body and explore potential treatments for obesity and other related conditions.
Overall, the physiology of leptin and its effects on appetite and body weight is an important area of research that has the potential to improve the health and well-being of millions of people around the world. By developing new treatments and interventions that target leptin and other related hormones, we may be able to help patients achieve and maintain a healthy weight and reduce their risk of developing chronic diseases such as diabetes, heart disease, and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What is a common clinical feature of hyperthyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heat intolerance
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders
Thyroid disorders are characterized by the dysfunction of the thyroid gland, which can lead to a variety of symptoms. Hypothyroidism, for example, is marked by weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin. On the other hand, hyperthyroidism is the excess secretion of thyroid hormones, which can stimulate basal metabolic rate and heighten catecholamine sensitivity. The three most common causes of primary hyperthyroidism are Graves’ disease, toxic adenoma, and toxic multinodular goitre. Other causes include de Quervain’s (post-viral) thyroiditis and drugs such as amiodarone.
One of the key symptoms of thyroid disorders is polydipsia, which refers to excessive thirst. Excess levothyroxine ingestion can also cause a biochemical picture similar to primary thyroid disease, with a suppression of thyroid-stimulating hormone and an elevated free thyroxine (T4) in plasma. It is important to understand the different types of thyroid disorders and their causes in order to properly diagnose and treat them. By doing so, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 h that stays high
Explanation:Interpreting Glucose Levels in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes
Insulin-dependent diabetes is a condition that affects the body’s ability to regulate glucose levels. When interpreting glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetes, there are several key factors to consider.
One important factor is the peak of plasma glucose that occurs between 1 and 2 hours after glucose ingestion. In normal individuals, this peak is typically sharper and occurs earlier than in insulin-dependent diabetics. In diabetics, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4-hour test period.
Another factor to consider is the presence or absence of an overshoot in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours. This overshoot, which is seen in normal individuals but not in diabetics, is a result of a pulse of insulin secretion.
A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time is unlikely in a diabetic patient, as they typically have high basal glucose levels. Similarly, a glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours is not expected in insulin-dependent diabetics, as their plasma glucose levels remain elevated throughout the test period.
Finally, it is important to consider the HbA1c level, which reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. In a diabetic patient who has been untreated for several weeks, the HbA1c would likely be elevated.
Overall, interpreting glucose levels in insulin-dependent diabetes requires careful consideration of multiple factors to accurately assess the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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What test is utilized to examine for primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short ACTH stimulation (Synacthen®) test
Explanation:Medical Tests for Hormonal Disorders
There are several medical tests used to diagnose hormonal disorders. One such test is the Synacthen test, which measures serum cortisol levels before and after administering synthetic ACTH. If cortisol levels rise appropriately, Addison’s disease can be excluded. However, an insufficient response may indicate adrenal gland atrophy or destruction.
Another test used to investigate hormonal disorders is the dexamethasone suppression test, which is used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome. Additionally, the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) is used to screen for diabetes mellitus. In the UK, the OGTT involves administering 75 g of oral anhydrous glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels at 0 minutes (fasting) and 120 minutes. This test is also used to investigate suspected acromegaly by measuring the suppression of growth hormone following an oral glucose load.
Lastly, a glucose challenge is used during pregnancy to screen for gestational diabetes. This test involves administering 50 g of oral glucose and measuring plasma glucose levels after 30 minutes. By utilizing these medical tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat hormonal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency
Explanation:Understanding the Effects of 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency on Health Conditions
21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that affects the adrenal glands, resulting in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reducing aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia, which may present as symptoms of type II diabetes mellitus. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels.
While 21-hydroxylase deficiency is associated with elevated androgens, it is not a feature of hypogonadism. Instead, patients with this condition may experience stunted growth and may be treated with gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Acromegaly, on the other hand, is not typically associated with 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
Overall, understanding the effects of 21-hydroxylase deficiency on various health conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled flinging movements of the right arm that ceased during sleep. What could be the probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction
Explanation:Hemiballismus and its Causes
Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by involuntary flinging motions of the extremities, which can be violent and continuous. It usually affects only one side of the body and can involve proximal, distal, or facial muscles. The movements worsen with activity and decrease with relaxation. This condition is caused by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, which results in decreased suppression of involuntary movements.
Hemiballismus can be caused by a variety of factors, including strokes, traumatic brain activity, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, hyperglycemia, malignancy, vascular malformations, tuberculomas, and demyelinating plaques. In patients with diabetes, it is likely due to a vascular event in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus.
Treatment for hemiballismus should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause. If pharmacological treatment is necessary, an antidopaminergic such as haloperidol or chlorpromazine may be used. Other options include topiramate, intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin, and tetrabenazine. In cases where other treatments have failed, functional neurosurgery may be an option.
In summary, hemiballismus is a condition that causes involuntary flinging motions of the extremities and can be caused by various factors. Treatment should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause, and pharmacological and surgical options may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female with a two year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a two day history of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. She has been relatively anorexic and has cut down on her insulin today as she has not been able to eat that much.
On examination she has a sweet smell to her breath, has some loss of skin turgor, has a pulse of 102 bpm regular and a blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally soft with some epigastric tenderness.
BM stix analysis reveals a glucose of 19 mmol/L (3.0-6.0).
What investigation would be the most important for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood gas analysis
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Diagnosis and Investigations
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. Symptoms include ketotic breath, vomiting, abdominal pain, and dehydration. To confirm the diagnosis, it is essential to prove the presence of acidosis and ketosis. The most urgent and important investigation is arterial or venous blood gas analysis, which can reveal the level of acidosis and low bicarbonate.
Other investigations that can be helpful include a full blood count (FBC) to show haemoconcentration and a raised white cell count, and urinalysis to detect glucose and ketones. However, venous or capillary ketones are needed to confirm DKA. A plasma glucose test is also part of the investigation, but it is not as urgent as the blood gas analysis.
An abdominal x-ray is not useful in diagnosing DKA, and a chest x-ray is only indicated if there are signs of a lower respiratory tract infection. Blood cultures are unlikely to grow anything, and amylase levels are often raised but do not provide diagnostic information in this case.
It is important to note that DKA can occur even if the plasma glucose level is normal. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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You are researching the effects of ageing on the various body systems as part of your geriatrics rotation.
Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the endocrine system in individuals over 70 years old?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased incidence of auto-immune disease
Explanation:Ageing and Hormonal Changes: Common Issues in Older Adults
As we age, our bodies undergo various changes that can lead to hormonal imbalances and health issues. One common problem is an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, which can be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. However, immunosuppression is not a normal part of ageing.
Another issue is azoospermia in men, which refers to the absence of sperm in semen. While postmenopausal women are infertile, over 50% of men over 70 years old still have the ability to father children.
In both men and women, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH) are common in the early postmenopausal period. However, postmenopausal women typically have high levels of FSH and LH, while older men have normal levels.
Additionally, older adults may experience low levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and morning cortisol, which are typically normal but may be reduced due to a decreased stress response. These hormonal changes can contribute to various health issues and should be monitored by healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Under what circumstances would the bone age match the chronological age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Factors Affecting Bone Age
Bone age is affected by various factors such as hypothyroidism, constitutional delay of growth and puberty, growth hormone deficiency, precocious puberty, and familial short stature. In hypothyroidism, bone age is delayed due to the underproduction of thyroid hormones. On the other hand, constitutional delay of growth and puberty causes delayed physiological maturation, including secondary sexual characteristics and bone age. Growth hormone deficiency also results in delayed skeletal maturation. In contrast, precocious puberty causes advanced bone age. Lastly, in familial short stature, bone age is equal to chronological age, but linear growth is poor, resulting in a short stature. these factors is crucial in diagnosing and managing growth and development issues in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help ensure optimal growth and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glucose 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions
Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with autoimmune disease being the most common cause in the UK. Symptoms are vague and present insidiously, including depression, anorexia, and GI upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dose.
Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, have different clinical features and are not compatible with the symptoms described for Addisonian crisis. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female office assistant comes to you with complaints of palpitations, restlessness, fatigue, and excessive sweating. She also mentions that she has been experiencing irregular periods and has lost some weight recently. Upon examination, you notice that she has tachycardia and tremors, and her reflexes are hyperactive. Blood tests reveal that she has hyperthyroidism. Further examination of her neck shows multiple small nodules in an enlarged thyroid gland.
What would be the best initial approach to manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Treatment for Thyrotoxic Patient
This patient is experiencing symptoms of thyrotoxicosis and requires treatment to alleviate the effects of adrenergic stimulation. The first step in treatment would be to administer propranolol, a beta-blocker that can help relieve symptoms such as palpitations, tremors, and anxiety.
Once the patient’s symptoms have been managed, the next step would be to address the underlying cause of the thyrotoxicosis. This would involve treatment to restore the patient to a euthyroid state, which can be achieved through the use of radioiodine therapy. However, it is important to note that propranolol would still be necessary during this initial phase of treatment to manage symptoms and prevent complications.
In summary, the treatment plan for this patient with thyrotoxicosis involves a two-step approach: first, managing symptoms with propranolol, and second, restoring the patient to a euthyroid state with radioiodine therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman complains of lethargy and mild headaches. You decide to perform a thyroid function test to investigate further.
The results of the test are as follows:
- Free T4: 9 pmol/l (normal range: 9.8-23.1)
- TSH: 0.33mU/l (normal range: 0.35-5.50)
What would be the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to an endocrinologist
Explanation:Importance of Proper Diagnosis in Secondary Hypothyroidism
Secondary hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones due to a problem in the pituitary gland. It is important to properly diagnose the underlying cause of this condition to avoid missing any potential pathology in the pituitary gland. While commencing treatment with thyroxine may alleviate symptoms, it does not address the root cause of the problem.
Therefore, it is recommended to refer patients with secondary hypothyroidism to an endocrinologist for further investigation and imaging of the pituitary gland. This will ensure that any underlying issues are properly identified and addressed, leading to more effective treatment and management of the condition. Proper diagnosis is crucial in managing secondary hypothyroidism and preventing potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe depression and a radical mastectomy for breast carcinoma one year ago presents with complaints of polyuria, nocturia, and excessive thirst. Her laboratory values show a serum sodium of 130 mmol/L (133-145), serum potassium of 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-5), serum calcium of 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), glucose of 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-6), urea of 4.3 mmol/L (3-8), and urine osmolality of 150 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia
Explanation:Psychogenic Polydipsia
Psychogenic polydipsia is a rare condition where a person drinks excessive amounts of water without any physiological reason to do so. This disorder is usually well-tolerated unless it leads to hyponatremia. Psychogenic polydipsia is commonly observed in hospitalized schizophrenics, depressed patients, and children. The diagnosis of this condition is made by excluding other possible causes and requires specialized investigation and management. The water deprivation test is the most important test for diagnosing psychogenic polydipsia.
In contrast, diabetes insipidus is a condition caused by a lack of action of ADH, which results in high osmolality and high sodium levels, leading to dehydration. This condition causes inappropriately dilute urine. To exclude diabetes insipidus, a water deprivation test is required. However, in patients with psychogenic polydipsia, the urine becomes appropriately concentrated upon water deprivation, whereas in diabetes insipidus, the urine remains dilute.
In this patient, the history of depression, relative dilution of sodium, and low urine osmolality suggest a diagnosis of psychogenic polydipsia. The presence of hyponatremia further supports this diagnosis. Therefore, it is important to consider psychogenic polydipsia as a possible cause of excessive water drinking in patients with hyponatremia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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The blood results of a 55-year-old woman were obtained and the following values were recorded in her plasma: Total Ca2+ was 1.80 mmol/l (2.12–2.65 mmol/l), Albumin was 40 g/l (35–50 g/l), PO43− was 2.0 mmol/l (0.8–1.5 mmol/l), Alkaline phosphatase was 120 iu/l (30–150 iu/l), and Parathyroid hormone (PTH) was 75 ng/l (15–65 ng/l). Based on these results, what condition is this consistent with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudohypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Pseudohypoparathyroidism: A Rare Genetic Condition
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is a rare genetic condition that occurs when the target cells fail to respond to parathyroid hormone (PTH). Unlike hypoparathyroidism, where the gland fails to secrete enough PTH, PTH levels are elevated in pseudohypoparathyroidism. However, the lack of response to PTH results in low calcium and high phosphate levels, which is the opposite of what PTH is supposed to do.
Symptoms of pseudohypoparathyroidism may include shortened metacarpals (especially the fourth and fifth), a round face, short stature, calcified basal ganglia, and a low IQ.
It’s important to differentiate pseudohypoparathyroidism from other conditions such as primary hyperparathyroidism, primary hypoparathyroidism, and post-thyroidectomy hypoparathyroidism. In primary hyperparathyroidism, there is overproduction of PTH, causing hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. In primary hypoparathyroidism, there is gland failure, resulting in low PTH secretion and low calcium levels. Post-thyroidectomy hypoparathyroidism occurs when the parathyroids are damaged or removed during surgery, resulting in low PTH levels.
Another condition that may present with similar morphological features as pseudohypoparathyroidism is pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism. However, in this condition, the biochemistry is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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What condition is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis linked to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin resistance
Explanation:Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a liver condition that is linked to insulin resistance, hyperlipidaemia, and chronic moderately elevated liver enzymes. Unlike alcoholic liver disease, NASH is not caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Instead, it is associated with metabolic disorders such as obesity, type 2 diabetes, and high blood pressure.
Diagnosing NASH requires a liver biopsy, which is the only way to confirm the presence of lesions that are suggestive of ethanol intake in a patient who consumes less than 40 g of alcohol per week. It is important to note that NASH is not a benign condition and can lead to serious complications such as cryptogenic cirrhosis, which is a type of liver disease that can be fatal.
To prevent NASH, it is important to maintain a healthy lifestyle by eating a balanced diet, exercising regularly, and avoiding excessive alcohol consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of lethargy, weight gain, dry hair and skin, cold intolerance, constipation and low mood. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Hypothyroidism and Differential Diagnosis
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma. Diagnosis is made by measuring TSH and T4 levels, with elevated TSH and decreased T4 confirming the diagnosis. Treatment involves titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and symptoms resolve. Differential diagnosis includes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism, Addison’s disease, and Cushing’s disease, each with their own unique set of symptoms. Understanding these conditions and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A floppy 1-month-old infant presented with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrated hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirmed metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician noticed that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of genetic conditions that affect the production of hormones and steroids from the adrenal glands. The most common cause is a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase. This leads to overactivity of the steroid-producing cells and inadequate cortisol production, resulting in an excess of mineralocorticoids and androgens/oestrogens. Symptoms can include ambiguous genitalia at birth in females, hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement in males, and biochemical abnormalities such as hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy. Addisonian crisis is a potentially fatal episode caused by glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood and precipitated by stress. It presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia and hypercalcaemia, and is managed with urgent administration of glucocorticoids. Conn syndrome is associated with primary hyperaldosteronism and presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. Cushing syndrome is due to cortisol excess and presents with weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia and skin pigmentation. Thyrotoxic crisis is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones, presenting with a range of symptoms including tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures and coma. Prompt treatment is essential to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy was diagnosed with Reifenstein syndrome. He had hypospadias, micropenis and small testes in the scrotum.
What would be the next course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testosterone replacement
Explanation:Management of Reifenstein Syndrome: Hormonal and Surgical Options
Reifenstein syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disease that results in partial androgen insensitivity. In phenotypic males with this condition, testosterone replacement therapy is recommended to increase the chances of fertility. However, if the patient had been raised as a female and chose to continue this way, oestrogen replacement therapy would be appropriate. Surgical management may be necessary if the patient has undescended testes, but in this case, orchidectomy is not indicated as the patient has small testes in the scrotum. While psychological counselling is always necessary, it is not the first line of treatment. Overall, the management of Reifenstein syndrome involves a combination of hormonal and surgical options tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old truck driver weighing 104 kg visits your clinic. The practice nurse conducted a fasting glucose test, which showed a reading of 7.9 mmol/L. The test was repeated, and the result was 8.6 mmol/L. Despite receiving diet and lifestyle advice, the patient's HbA1c level is 69 mmol/mol (8.5%) after three months. What is the next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence metformin
Explanation:Primary Care Management of Type 2 Diabetes
The primary focus in diabetes care is to manage patients with type 2 diabetes in primary care. For individuals who are likely to be insulin resistant, the preferred treatment option is insulin sensitising therapy with minimal weight gain. Metformin is a medication that induces a small amount of weight loss and has a low risk of hypoglycaemia, which is particularly important for those who have jobs that require them to be alert and focused. To ensure that healthcare professionals are up to date with the latest management strategies for type 2 diabetes, the American Diabetes Association has recently published a comprehensive management pathway. By following this pathway, healthcare providers can ensure that their patients receive the best possible care and achieve optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with galactorrhoea. She has a history of schizophrenia and depression and takes various medications. She also reports not having a menstrual period for the past four months. During examination, a small amount of galactorrhoea is expressed from both breasts, but no other abnormalities are found. The following investigations are conducted: Prolactin levels are at 820 mU/L (50-550), 17β-oestradiol levels are at 110 pmol/L (130-550), LH levels are at 2.8 mU/L (3-10), FSH levels are at 2.7 mU/L (3-15), T4 levels are at 14.1 pmol/L (10-22), and TSH levels are at 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5). What is the probable cause of her galactorrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Hyperprolactinaemia and Hypogonadism in a Female with Schizophrenia
This female patient is experiencing galactorrhoea and has an elevated prolactin concentration, along with a low oestradiol concentration and a low-normal luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Pregnancy can be ruled out due to the low oestradiol concentration. The cause of hyperprolactinaemia and subsequent hypogonadism is likely drug-induced, as the patient is a chronic schizophrenic and is likely taking antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or newer atypicals like olanzapine. These drugs act as dopamine antagonists and can cause hyperprolactinaemia.
It is important to note that hyperprolactinaemia can cause hypogonadism, and in this case, it is likely due to the patient’s medication. Other side effects of these drugs include extrapyramidal, Parkinson-like effects, and dystonias. It is crucial for healthcare providers to consider the potential side effects of medications when treating patients with chronic conditions such as schizophrenia. Proper monitoring and management of these side effects can improve the patient’s quality of life and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A child who is 4 years old has a height measurement that falls below the third centile. What is the most probable cause of their stunted growth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial short stature
Explanation:Causes of Short Stature
Short stature is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause of short stature is familial short stature, which is inherited from parents. Maternal deprivation and chronic illnesses such as congenital heart disease can also lead to short stature, but these are less frequent causes. On the other hand, Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with tall stature. This genetic disorder affects males and is characterized by an extra X chromosome.
Another factor that can cause short stature is poorly controlled chronic diabetes. This condition can lead to malnutrition, delayed growth, and puberty. It is important to note that short stature does not necessarily indicate a health problem, as some people are naturally shorter than others. However, if short stature is accompanied by other symptoms such as delayed puberty or growth failure, it is important to seek medical attention. Overall, the various causes of short stature can help individuals and healthcare providers identify and address any underlying health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents at the Thyroid Clinic with a swelling in her neck that has been present for 4 months, along with a weight loss of 5 kg. During examination, a diffuse smooth swelling of the thyroid gland is observed, and she is found to be in atrial fibrillation. Lid lag and proximal myopathy are also noted, along with a rash on the anterior aspects of her legs, indicative of pretibial myxoedema. Which clinical sign is most indicative of Graves' disease as the underlying cause of her hyperthyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Most Specific Sign of Graves’ Disease
Graves’ disease is a type of hyperthyroidism that has a classic triad of signs, including thyroid ophthalmopathy, thyroid acropachy, and pretibial myxoedema. Among these signs, pretibial myxoedema is the most specific to Graves’ disease. It is characterized by swelling and lumpiness of the shins and lower legs, and is almost pathognomonic of the condition. Other signs of hyperthyroidism, such as weight loss and diffuse thyroid swelling, are non-specific and may occur with other thyroid diseases. Atrial fibrillation and proximal myopathy may also occur in Graves’ disease, but are not specific to this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of erectile dysfunction that has been ongoing for the past year. He has no prior history of this issue and is greatly troubled by it. The patient has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and poor urinary flow. He also had a thyroidectomy a few years ago, the reason for which is unclear. He is currently taking insulin, gliclazide, amlodipine, and aspirin. His most recent HbA1c was 12.1% or 108 mmol/mol. What is the probable cause of his erectile dysfunction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Medical Conditions and Erectile Dysfunction: Understanding the Causes
Erectile dysfunction is a common condition that affects many men, and it can be caused by a variety of medical conditions. Understanding the underlying causes of erectile dysfunction is important for effective treatment. Here are some common medical conditions that can lead to erectile dysfunction:
Diabetes: Diabetes is a major risk factor for erectile dysfunction. Autonomic neuropathy, a microvascular complication of diabetes, can cause symptoms such as erectile dysfunction. Poor control of diabetes can make this condition worse.
Ischaemic heart disease: While ischaemic heart disease itself does not cause erectile dysfunction, risk factors such as diabetes and hypertension can make this condition worse. Proper management of these conditions is important for overall health and sexual function.
Thyroidectomy: A previous thyroidectomy may have been performed for an overactive thyroid or a thyroid nodule, but it is not a direct cause of erectile dysfunction.
Prostatic hyperplasia: Prostatic hyperplasia is a common condition among elderly men, but it is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction.
Hypertension: Hypertension increases the risk for diabetes in non-diabetics, and diabetes can cause erectile dysfunction. However, hypertension itself is not a direct cause of erectile dysfunction.
In conclusion, understanding the underlying medical conditions that can cause erectile dysfunction is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Proper management of these conditions can improve overall health and sexual function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing lethargy and weight gain over the past year. The GP finds nil of note on examination, but decides to carry out some blood tests, the results of which are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 263 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 102 fl 76–98 fl
Urea and electrolytes normal, liver function tests (LFTs) normal; thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.9 miu/l, free T4 5 pmol/l.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Menorrhagia may be a feature
Explanation:Understanding Hypothyroidism: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, resulting in low levels of thyroid hormones in the body. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, and myxoedema coma (a medical emergency).
Diagnosis of hypothyroidism involves measuring levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4) in the blood. A high TSH level and a low T4 level indicate hypothyroidism. Menorrhagia may be a feature of the condition.
Treatment involves initiating and titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and the patient’s signs and symptoms have resolved. The lowest dose of levothyroxine possible to maintain this should be used. If the patient has a goitre, nodule, or changes of the thyroid gland, the patient is suspected to have subacute thyroiditis, or if an associated endocrine disease is suspected, specialist referral is indicated.
While macrocytosis may indicate coexistent vitamin B12 deficiency, it is not always present in hypothyroidism. Anaemia is a frequent occurrence in thyroid disease, which is most commonly normocytic, but can also be macrocytic or microcytic.
Thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies commonly occur in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism. Similarly, thyroid eye disease is a common feature in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of hypothyroidism is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is scheduled for his annual diabetic review. During the examination, it is noted that his body mass index has increased to 31.5 kg/m2. How do you calculate body mass index?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight/(Height)2
Explanation:BMI is a calculation of weight over height squared and is used to determine if someone is underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese. A BMI above 30 indicates obesity and is associated with increased risks for various health issues and surgical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female with a BMI of 35 presents with heavy and irregular menstrual bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:PCOS Diagnosis with Oligomenorrhoea, Menorrhagia, and Obesity
When a woman experiences both oligomenorrhoea (infrequent periods) and menorrhagia (heavy periods) while also being obese, it is highly likely that she has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). To confirm the diagnosis, at least two of three diagnostic criteria must be met. These criteria include the appearance of cysts on an ultrasound, oligomenorrhoea, and hyperandrogenism (excess male hormones). By meeting two of these criteria, a woman can be diagnosed with PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with acromegaly. What is the most suitable treatment option for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acromegaly
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by the excessive production of growth hormone (GH) in adults. The most effective treatment for this condition is surgery, which may prove curative. Although somatostatin therapy can reduce GH levels, it is not recommended for young patients like this man, as it requires lifelong therapy. On the other hand, radiotherapy can take a long time to be effective, and surgical resection is the preferred option. Therefore, surgery is the most appropriate treatment for acromegaly in this man, as it offers the best chance of a cure. Proper treatment can help manage the symptoms of acromegaly and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male with type 2 diabetes needs better control of his blood sugar levels. He also has heart failure that is managed with furosemide, ramipril, and bisoprolol.
Which of the following hypoglycemic medications should be avoided in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Considerations for Antidiabetic Medications in Patients with Heart Failure
Pioglitazone, a medication used to treat diabetes, can cause fluid retention of unknown origin, leading to ankle swelling and a mild decrease in hemoglobin levels. It is not recommended for patients with congestive heart failure. On the other hand, sulphonylureas, acarbose, and nateglinide can be safely used in patients with heart failure.
Metformin, another commonly used antidiabetic medication, should be avoided in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function, such as those with dehydration, severe infection, shock, sepsis, acute heart failure, respiratory failure, or hepatic impairment, or those who have recently had a heart attack. However, in patients with controlled heart failure, metformin may be used with caution to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis.
It is important for healthcare providers to consider the potential risks and benefits of antidiabetic medications in patients with heart failure and to tailor treatment plans accordingly. Close monitoring and regular follow-up are essential to ensure optimal management of both conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. Her lab results show elevated free T4 and free T3 levels, and a suppressed TSH level. She is currently on medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease, and type 2 diabetes. Which medication is the most likely culprit for these abnormal thyroid function tests?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone and its Effects on Thyroid Function
Amiodarone is a medication that can cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests, leading to both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3), while hyperthyroidism may result from thyroiditis or the donation of iodine (amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine). In addition to thyroid dysfunction, amiodarone can also cause pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor thyroid function in patients taking amiodarone and manage any resulting thyroid dysfunction appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female presents with symptoms of weight loss and irritability. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results reveal a Free T4 level of 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1), TSH level of <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50), and Free T3 level of 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5). During examination, the patient exhibits a fine tremor, pulse of 95 beats per minute, a smooth goitre with a bruit, and lid lag without any other eye signs. What is the most likely cause for these thyroid function test results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:TFTs and Hyperthyroidism
Thyroid function tests (TFTs) can help diagnose hyperthyroidism, which can be caused by Graves’ disease, Hashitoxicosis, or Multinodular goitre. However, the presence of a thyroid bruit, which suggests increased vascularity due to stimulation by a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibody, is a distinguishing feature of Graves’ disease. This condition is the only one where a thyroid bruit is expected. While eye signs such as proptosis, chemosis, and exophthalmos are common in Graves’ disease, they are not always present.
Overall, TFTs are a useful tool in identifying hyperthyroidism, and the presence of a thyroid bruit can help differentiate between the different causes. However, other symptoms and signs, such as eye changes, may also be present and should be taken into consideration when making a diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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You are asked to review a 27-year-old man who has had two episodes of pancreatitis. On reviewing his notes, the surgeons noticed that he appeared to have had a serum calcium of 3.2 mmol/l when it was checked at the general practice surgery a few weeks before the latest episode. Urinary calcium excretion is markedly reduced.
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Differentiating Hyper- and Hypocalcaemia Disorders
One young male patient has experienced two episodes of pancreatitis due to hypercalcaemia. However, his urinary calcium levels are reduced, which suggests that he may have familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia. On the other hand, pseudohypoparathyroidism would result in hypocalcaemia, while hyperparathyroidism would cause hypercalcaemia without reducing urinary calcium excretion. Hypoparathyroidism would also lead to hypocalcaemia, but the calcium levels would be raised. Finally, Paget’s disease would not affect urinary calcium excretion. Therefore, it is crucial to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man is undergoing assessment for a thyroid nodule. An ultrasound shows a solitary nodule measuring 1.5 cm in the left lower lobe. Fine-needle aspiration reveals hypochromatic empty nuclei without nucleoli and psammoma bodies.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Papillary thyroid carcinoma
Explanation:Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common type of thyroid cancer and has a good prognosis. It is characterized by ground-glass or Orphan Annie nuclei with calcified spherical bodies. Medullary thyroid carcinoma can occur sporadically or as part of multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes and arises from the parafollicular C cells. Lymphoma of the thyroid is a rare cancer, except in individuals with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is a highly aggressive form of thyroid cancer with a poor prognosis. Follicular thyroid carcinoma presents with a microfollicular pattern and is difficult to diagnose on fine-needle aspiration alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with a 10-year history of type I diabetes presents with a 1-day history of vomiting and a 4-day history of myalgia and sore throat. He appears dehydrated, BP 120/74 mmHg, pulse 101 bpm, temperature 37.9 °C, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. There is mild erythema in his throat and nil else to find on clinical examination. The following are his laboratory investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.12 7.35–7.45
Ketones 5 mmol/l <0.6
Glucose 32 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
Potassium 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 10 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Base excess -5 mEq/l −2 to +2 mEg/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 22 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
White Cell Count (WCC) 12.7 × 109/l 4-11
Which of the following initial treatment plans should be commenced?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV insulin, IV fluids, potassium supplementation
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires prompt management. The initial stages of DKA should involve the administration of IV insulin, IV fluids, and potassium supplementation. If the patient’s systolic blood pressure is below 90 mmHg, 500 ml of IV sodium chloride 0.9% should be given over 10-15 minutes, with repeat doses if necessary. Once blood pressure is over 90 mmHg, sodium chloride 0.9% should be given by intravenous infusion at a rate that replaces the deficit and provides maintenance. Potassium chloride should be included in the fluids, unless anuria is suspected or potassium levels are above 5.5 mmol/l. IV insulin should be infused at a fixed rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour, diluted with sodium chloride 0.9% to a concentration of 1 unit/ml.
If there are no signs of bacterial infection, antibiotics may not be necessary. In cases where there are symptoms of viral infection, such as a red sore throat and myalgia, IV antibiotics may not be required. Subcutaneous rapid-acting insulin should not be used, as IV insulin is more effective in rapidly treating hyperglycemia and can be titrated as needed on an hourly basis. Oral antibiotics may be considered if there are signs of bacterial infection.
In cases where the patient has established diabetes, long-acting insulin should be continued even if on IV insulin. Once blood glucose levels fall below 14 mmol/litre, glucose 10% should be given by intravenous infusion at a rate of 125 ml/hour, in addition to the sodium chloride 0.9% infusion. Glucose levels of 32 require the use of saline with potassium initially. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of DKA is crucial in preventing serious complications and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of sweating, tremors, and palpitations that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. The patient is currently 7 months pregnant and has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the patient has bulging eyes, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and a small goitre. The following laboratory results were obtained:
- Free T4: 42 pmol/l (normal range: 11-22 pmol/l)
- Free T3: 16 pmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5 pmol/l)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): <0.01 µU/l (normal range: 0.17-3.2 µU/l)
- TSH receptor antibody (TRAb): 20 U/l (normal range: <0.9 U/l)
What treatment should be recommended for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbimazole
Explanation:The patient is showing signs of an overactive thyroid, likely due to Graves’ disease. Propranolol can provide temporary relief, but long-term treatment involves blocking the thyroid gland with carbimazole or replacing thyroid hormones with thyroxine. Ibuprofen is not indicated for this condition. Tri-iodothyronine is more potent than thyroxine but less stable, making thyroxine the preferred hormone replacement medication. Propylthiouracil can also be used to block thyroid hormone formation, but its use in the first trimester of pregnancy is avoided due to potential teratogenic effects. PTU can be used in pregnancy, but only at the lowest effective dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of constipation that has been ongoing for a month. She requests medication to alleviate the symptoms. The patient reports feeling more fatigued than usual and has noticed recent weight gain. During the examination, the GP observes dry scaly skin. The patient's medical history indicates recent consultation with an endocrinologist.
What would lead to elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and normal T4 in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Poor compliance with thyroxine
Explanation:Understanding Thyroid Disorders: Differentiating Poor Compliance with Thyroxine from Other Conditions
Thyroid disorders can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to differentiate between different conditions. In the case of poor compliance with thyroxine medication, a patient may present with signs of a low thyroid state, but blood results will show a high TSH and normal T4, indicating recent medication use.
Primary hypothyroidism, on the other hand, would show a low T4 and high TSH, while thyrotoxicosis would reveal a low TSH and high T4, accompanied by symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Secondary hypothyroidism would present with low levels of both T4 and TSH, indicating a pituitary problem.
Sick euthyroid syndrome, which often occurs in individuals with systemic illness, would show low levels of TSH, thyroxine, and T3, but the TSH level may still be within the normal range. Understanding these differences can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last 4 months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
What is the most appropriate next test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Genetic study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Possible Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome
A woman presents with new-onset diabetes, diarrhoea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), along with a family history of renal calculi at a young age. These symptoms suggest the possibility of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) 1 syndrome, an autosomal dominant disease characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, particularly the parathyroid gland and enteropancreatic tumors. The most common tumors in the latter group are gastrinoma and insulinoma, with glucagonoma occurring rarely. Other symptoms may include depression, anemia, glossitis, and in rare cases, a skin manifestation called necrolytic migratory erythema.
To confirm a diagnosis of MEN 1, a genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best option. A family history of renal stones, as in this case, is the most common manifestation of MEN 1.
Other diagnostic tests, such as protein C assessment, colonoscopy, and blood test for Giardia antigen, are not relevant to this particular case. Measuring C-peptide levels can help distinguish between type I and type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease. Giardiasis symptoms may include diarrhea, fatigue, abdominal cramps, bloating, gas, nausea, and weight loss, but tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent organic cause of anxiety symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Organic Causes of Anxiety
Anxiety can be caused by various factors, including organic causes. One of the more common organic causes of anxiety is hypoglycaemia. However, there are other organic causes that can also lead to anxiety. These include alcohol withdrawal, drug intoxication or withdrawal, thyroxine, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias. While phaeochromocytoma is a rare cause of anxiety, carcinoid does not cause anxiety at all. It is important to note that carcinoma of the bronchus and hyperparathyroidism are more likely to present with depression rather than anxiety.
It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of anxiety to provide appropriate treatment. If an organic cause is suspected, further evaluation and testing may be necessary to determine the root cause of the anxiety. By addressing the underlying cause, it may be possible to alleviate or even eliminate the symptoms of anxiety. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of anxiety, including organic causes, to provide the best possible care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute agitation, fever, nausea and vomiting. On examination, she is disorientated and agitated, with a temperature of 40 °C and heart rate of 130 bpm, irregular pulse, and congestive cardiac failure. She has a history of hyperthyroidism due to Graves’ disease, neutropenia and agranulocytosis, and cognitive impairment. She lives alone. Laboratory investigations reveal the following results:
Test Result Normal reference range
Free T4 > 100 pmol/l 11–22 pmol/l
Free T3 > 30 pmol/l 3.5–5 pmol/l
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.01 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
TSH receptor antibody > 30 U/l < 0.9 U/l
What should be included in the management plan for this 68-year-old patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propylthiouracil, iodine, propranolol, hydrocortisone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thyroid Storm in Graves’ Disease Patients
Thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention in patients with Graves’ disease. The following are some treatment options for thyroid storm and their potential effects on the patient’s condition.
Propylthiouracil, iodine, propranolol, hydrocortisone:
This combination of medications can help inhibit the synthesis of new thyroid hormone, tone down the severe adrenergic response, and prevent T4 from being converted to the more potent T3. Propylthiouracil and iodine block the synthesis of new thyroid hormone, while propranolol and hydrocortisone help decrease the heart rate and blood pressure.Carbimazole, iodine, tri-iodothyronine:
Carbimazole and iodine can inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormone, but tri-iodothyronine is very potent and would do the opposite of the therapeutic aim.Esmolol, thyroxine, dexamethasone:
Esmolol and dexamethasone can tone down the severe adrenergic response and prevent T4 from being turned into T3. However, thyroxine would do the opposite of the therapeutic aim and make the situation worse.Lugol’s iodine, furosemide, thyroxine:
Lugol’s iodine can be used to treat hyperthyroidism, but furosemide is not appropriate for addressing thyroid storm. Thyroxine would make the situation worse.Prednisolone, paracetamol, tri-iodothyronine:
Prednisolone can prevent T4 from being converted to T3, but it is usually available in oral form and may not be efficient in addressing thyroid storm. Tri-iodothyronine would exacerbate the patient’s condition, and paracetamol is not indicated for this condition.In conclusion, the treatment options for thyroid storm in Graves’ disease patients depend on the patient’s condition and medical history. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is undergoing evaluation for hypertension that is not responding to treatment. She has a previous medical history of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Her physical examination is unremarkable. During her work-up, she is found to have hypercalcemia with a level of 2.8 mmol/l. Her parathyroid hormone (PTH) is slightly elevated above the normal range. What is the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Hypercalcaemia with Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A (MEN 2A) is a genetic disorder caused by a gain in function mutation in the RET proto-oncogene. The classic triad of MEN 2A includes medullary thyroid carcinoma, primary hyperparathyroidism, and phaeochromocytoma. In cases where a patient presents with a history of medullary thyroid carcinoma and hypercalcaemia with inappropriately elevated PTH levels, primary parahyperthyroidism is implied, and the combination of these symptoms with treatment-resistant hypertension is virtually diagnostic of MEN 2A.
Other conditions associated with hypercalcaemia include multiple myeloma, but PTH levels would be appropriately low. Marfan’s syndrome, a hereditary disorder of connective tissue, is not typically associated with dysfunction of the parathyroid hormone axis. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a main differential diagnosis, but patients with MEN1 typically suffer from hyperparathyroidism, pituitary adenomas (typically prolactinomas), and pancreatic islet cell tumours, not the symptoms described here. Neurofibromatosis, a disorder caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene, is associated with multiple neural tumours and various other manifestations, but disruption of the parathyroid hormone axis is not a feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with Addison's disease has arrived at a remote clinic. She reports that she has finished her supply of hydrocortisone, which she typically takes 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening. Unfortunately, the clinic does not have hydrocortisone available, but prednisolone is an option until hydrocortisone can be obtained. What is the daily dosage of prednisolone that is equivalent to her usual hydrocortisone dosage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7.5 mg
Explanation:Dosage Calculation for Hydrocortisone
When calculating the dosage for hydrocortisone, it is important to consider the equivalent dosage of 1 mg to 4 mg of hydrocortisone. In the case of a patient requiring 7.5 mg of hydrocortisone, it is ideal to administer a combination of 2.5 mg and 5 mg tablets. However, if 2.5 mg tablets are not available, it is better to administer a higher dosage of 10 mg rather than under-dose the patient. This is especially important in cases where the patient is experiencing stress or illness. It is crucial to accurately calculate the dosage of hydrocortisone to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents with complaints of fever, malaise and pain in the neck, particularly when swallowing. She reports having had a viral respiratory infection a week ago. Upon examination, an enlarged thyroid, heart palpitations and excessive sweating are noted. Further tests reveal elevated ESR, leukocytosis, thyroid antibodies and low TSH levels. Additionally, a radionuclide thyroid uptake test shows decreased iodide uptake. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: de Quervain's thyroiditis
Explanation:Differentiating Thyroid Disorders: A Comparison of De Quervain’s, Graves’, Hashimoto’s, Subacute Lymphocytic, and Riedel’s Thyroiditis
Thyroid disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, also known as subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, typically affects women after a viral respiratory infection. Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis may occur initially, but the disease can progress to hypothyroidism with thyroid gland destruction. In contrast, Graves’ disease is characterized by a markedly increased uptake of iodine on a radionuclide thyroid test. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that can present with a hyperthyroid phase, but the patient is unlikely to experience fever and neck pain. Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis occurs only after pregnancy, while Riedel’s thyroiditis is a rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis of the thyroid gland, mimicking a carcinoma. Understanding the unique features of each thyroid disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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What is a clinical characteristic of acromegaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prominent supraorbital ridge
Explanation:Acromegaly: Causes, Symptoms, and Complications
Acromegaly is a condition that results from the overproduction of growth hormone (GH) caused by a pituitary tumour. This leads to the growth of soft tissues, which manifests in various clinical features such as enlarged hands, a prominent supraorbital ridge, protruding jaw, enlarged tongue, and carpal tunnel syndrome. Other symptoms include oily skin and tingling sensations. The tumour may also cause visual field disturbances and hypopituitarism due to its mass effect.
If left untreated, acromegaly can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiomyopathy, hyperglycaemia/diabetes mellitus, and bowel tumours. Cardiomyopathy is a significant cause of mortality in untreated acromegaly. While pituitary adenoma is the most common cause of GH excess, ectopic secretion of GH-releasing hormone from neoplasia such as a carcinoid tumour of the lung is a rare cause.
In summary, acromegaly is a condition that results from the overproduction of GH caused by a pituitary tumour. It leads to various clinical features and can cause complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent long-term health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after being involved in a fight. He had been in the shower after a gym session, when someone made a derogatory comment about his body, and that started the fight. A history reveals that he has had three girlfriends in the last 3 months, but none of the relationships have lasted. He admits that he struggles to achieve an erection. On examination, the patient is of normal height with normal pubic hair. His penis is small and his breasts are enlarged. He said that he had started growing breasts from the age of 11. This often caused him embarrassment. His blood pressure is 119/73 mmHg.
Which of the following syndromes must be ruled out?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reifenstein syndrome
Explanation:Comparing Different Syndromes with Similar Symptoms
When presented with a patient who has female breast development and erectile dysfunction, it is important to consider various syndromes that could be causing these symptoms. One such syndrome is Reifenstein syndrome, which is characterized by partial androgen insensitivity. Another possibility is Turner syndrome, which presents with short stature and amenorrhea in phenotypic females. However, Kallmann syndrome, which includes anosmia as a component, can be ruled out in this case. Similarly, Klinefelter syndrome, which typically results in tall stature and infertility, does not match the patient’s normal height and erectile dysfunction. Finally, 17-α hydroxylase deficiency can be eliminated as a possibility due to the absence of hypertension, which is a common symptom of this enzyme defect. By comparing and contrasting these different syndromes, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with pain, swelling, and redness in his left middle finger for the past two days. He experienced this after pricking his finger while gardening and pruning a bush. Despite his diabetic control being reasonable with a HbA1c of 54 mmol/mol (20-46) on basal bolus insulin consisting of Lispro tds and Humulin I in the evenings, he is now diagnosed with cellulitis. On examination, his middle finger is painful, red, and swollen, with the redness extending to the metacarpophalangeal joint. However, his hand movements are intact, and he is clinically stable with normal observations.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:The patient has digital cellulitis likely caused by Strep. pyogenes or Staph. aureus. Flucloxacillin is the initial treatment, but if there is tendon involvement, IV antibiotics should be initiated. Clindamycin can be used in combination with flucloxacillin for rapid control or in severe cases. Oral antibiotics can be tried if hand movements are intact. The patient should be closely monitored and readmitted for IV antibiotics if there is no improvement within 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old university student complains of a 2-month history of tiredness and weight loss. On further questioning the patient reveals that they have been excessively thirsty and have also been passing urine many times during the day and night. The patient is investigated further and is diagnosed with having type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following is deficient in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-islet cells
Explanation:The Different Types of Islet Cells in the Pancreas
The pancreas contains clusters of endocrine tissue called islets of Langerhans. These islets are composed of different types of cells that secrete various hormones. The most abundant type of islet cell is the beta-islet cell, which produces insulin. Insulin is essential for regulating blood sugar levels, and its deficiency is the hallmark of type 1 diabetes.
Gamma-islet cells, also known as pancreatic polypeptide-producing cells, make up a small percentage of islet cells and are not involved in insulin production. Alpha-islet cells, on the other hand, are located at the periphery of the islets and secrete glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels. Delta-islet cells produce somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon.
Lastly, epsilon-islet cells produce ghrelin, a hormone that stimulates appetite. However, these cells make up less than 1% of the islet cells and are not as well understood as the other types.
In summary, the different types of islet cells in the pancreas play crucial roles in regulating blood sugar levels and other metabolic processes. Understanding their functions and interactions is essential for developing effective treatments for diabetes and other metabolic disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is diagnosed with hypertension after multiple readings show a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg. Further investigation reveals a 4.3-cm right-sided adrenal lesion, and he is found to have elevated plasma free metanephrines at 3000 pmol/l (normal range: 80-510 pmol/l). He is scheduled for elective adrenalectomy. What initial treatment should be initiated to prepare this patient for surgery to remove his adrenal phaeochromocytoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers
Explanation:Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Precautions
Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumour that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is through measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. Management includes the use of alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers such as phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin to dampen sympathetic activity. IV fluids should be readily available for potential blood loss during surgery. Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers can be used after alpha blockers, but not before to avoid unopposed alpha receptor stimulation and hypertensive crisis. Calcium channel blockers are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management. Low-salt diet and low fluid intake are not necessary precautions in this case, as the drop in blood pressure following surgery eliminates the risk of fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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Which gland produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) in the endocrine system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary
Explanation:The Thyroid Hormone Axis
The thyroid hormone axis is a complex system that involves the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland. The hypothalamus produces a hormone called thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). TSH then stimulates the thyroid gland to produce and release the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and tri-iodothyronine (T3).
Both T4 and T3 are primarily bound to proteins in the bloodstream, but it is the free, unbound hormones that are biologically active. The secretion of TSH is inhibited by the presence of thyroid hormones in the bloodstream. This negative feedback loop helps to regulate the levels of thyroid hormones in the body.
In summary, the thyroid hormone axis is a tightly regulated system that involves multiple hormones and glands working together to maintain proper levels of thyroid hormones in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic pain but has not yet begun menstruating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haematocolpos
Explanation:Haematocolpos: A Condition of Blood Accumulation in the Vagina
Haematocolpos is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of blood in the vagina. This condition is usually caused by an imperforate hymen, which prevents menstrual blood from flowing out of the body. As a result, the blood accumulates in the vagina, leading to discomfort and pain. Haematocolpos is a rare condition that affects mostly young girls who have not yet started menstruating. It can also occur in women who have undergone surgery to remove the cervix or uterus. Treatment for haematocolpos usually involves surgical intervention to remove the blockage and allow the blood to flow out of the body. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most women with haematocolpos can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has been experiencing gradual enlargement of his hands and feet for the past 4 years, resulting in the need for larger gloves and shoes. Recently, he has also noticed his voice becoming deeper. His family has observed that he snores frequently and he has been experiencing daytime sleepiness. Over the past 6 months, he has been experiencing progressive blurring of vision accompanied by headaches and dizziness. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/20-2 and visual field testing reveals bitemporal hemianopias. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm a diagnosis in this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) measurement
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acromegaly: IGF-1 Measurement vs. OGTT and Other Tests
Acromegaly, a condition caused by a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma, can be diagnosed through various tests. Previously, the OGTT with growth hormone assay was used for screening and monitoring, but it has now been replaced by the IGF-1 measurement as the first-line investigation to confirm the diagnosis.
The insulin tolerance test, which induces hypoglycaemia and increases GH release, is not useful in confirming the presence of a GH-secreting adenoma. Random GH assay is also not helpful as normal subjects have undetectable GH levels throughout the day, making it difficult to differentiate from levels seen in acromegaly.
While up to 20% of GH-secreting pituitary adenomas co-secrete prolactin, the prolactin level alone is not diagnostic. Therefore, the IGF-1 measurement is the preferred test for diagnosing acromegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine health examination before beginning a new job. During the examination, thyroid function tests are conducted on her serum, which reveal elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), reduced total thyroxine (T4), reduced free T4, and reduced triiodothyronine (T3) uptake. What is the most probable clinical manifestation that this patient will exhibit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Hypothyroidism and Hyperthyroidism
Hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism are two conditions that affect the thyroid gland, resulting in a range of symptoms. In hypothyroidism, there is a decrease in T4/T3, leading to symptoms such as lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, difficulty concentrating, and myxoedema coma (a medical emergency). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism results in an increase in thyroid hormones, causing symptoms such as hyperactivity, diarrhea, heat intolerance, and tachycardia. Understanding these symptoms can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up on her blood pressure, which has been difficult to manage despite lifestyle changes and taking a combination of ramipril and felodipine. On examination, there are no clinical indications to aid in diagnosis. The GP conducts a urinalysis, which comes back normal, and orders some blood tests. The results show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 175 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
eGFR >60 ml/min/1.73m2 >60 ml/min/1.73m2
Based on this presentation, what is the most probable secondary cause of hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Secondary Causes of Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can have various underlying causes. While primary hypertension is the most common form, secondary hypertension can be caused by an underlying medical condition. Here are some of the secondary causes of hypertension:
1. Primary Hyperaldosteronism: This is the most common form of secondary hypertension, caused by a solitary adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. It is more prevalent in patients with hypertension who are resistant to treatment.
2. Phaeochromocytoma: This rare condition can cause severe symptoms such as headaches, sweating, abdominal pain, and palpitations associated with periods of very high blood pressure.
3. Glomerulonephritis: Renal disease can be a potential secondary cause of hypertension, typically manifesting as haematuria or proteinuria on urinalysis. The creatinine level may rise, and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls.
4. Diabetic Nephropathy: This condition presents with proteinuria (and likely glucose) on urinalysis. Renal disease may lead to a rise in creatinine and a fall in eGFR.
5. Cushing Syndrome: While unlikely to cause isolated hypertension, other features of Cushing syndrome such as abdominal obesity, striae, and a round face would likely be present on examination.
In conclusion, it is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations, excessive sweating, and a lump in her throat that has been present for 2 months. After conducting tests, the doctor discovers a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbimazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thyroid Disorders: Carbimazole, Thyroxine, Carbamazepine, Surgery, and Radionuclide Iodine
Thyroid disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and require different treatment options depending on the diagnosis. Primary hyperthyroidism, caused by a disorder of the thyroid gland itself, is confirmed with raised serum levels of fT3/fT4 and a suppressed/reduced TSH. Symptoms include sweating, weight loss, palpitations, a goitre, hyperactivity, insomnia, emotional lability, reduced libido, heat intolerance, diarrhoea, increased appetite and menstrual irregularities. First-line treatment is with a thionamide such as carbimazole, which inhibits the thyroid peroxidase enzyme involved in the production and release of thyroid hormones. However, carbimazole is associated with serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, angioedema, lymphadenopathy, hepatic disorders and acute pancreatitis.
Thyroxine is prescribed for patients with hypothyroidism, in which case the TSH would be raised and the T3/T4 hormones low. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include weight gain, constipation, oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea, cold intolerance, tiredness, depression, brittle hair and nails, as well as muscle weakness. Thyroxine is contraindicated in patients with hyperthyroidism as it worsens their symptoms and might precipitate a thyroid storm.
Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used in the treatment of epilepsy. It is a sodium channel blocker that prevents sodium binding and repetitive firing of action potentials. However, one of the most serious side effects associated with the use of carbamazepine is Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. It can be licensed for use in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy and treatment of patients with bipolar disorder that is resistant to lithium.
Surgery is not first line for hyperthyroidism unless there is compression or compromise of the airway, medication has failed to control symptoms, or there is a concurrent suspicious or malignant thyroid nodule. Thyroidectomy has complications such as hypocalcaemia due to the removal of the parathyroid glands, vocal cord paralysis and hypothyroidism. Following a thyroidectomy, the patient will need to go on lifelong thyroid replacement therapy.
Radionu
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old hypertensive man presented with the following blood results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 147 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 4.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 50 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Glucose 4.0 mmol/l
Random: 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Fasting: <7 mmol/l
Hba1c: <53 mmol/l (<7.0%)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hypertension with electrolyte abnormalities
When a young patient presents with hypertension and hypokalaemia, it is important to consider secondary causes of hypertension, such as Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism), which can explain both findings. Coarctation of the aorta is another secondary cause of hypertension, but it does not account for the electrolyte abnormalities. Cushing’s disease/syndrome may also present with hypertension and electrolyte abnormalities, but typically with additional symptoms and higher fasting glucose levels. Polycystic kidney disease can cause hypertension, but not the electrolyte abnormalities. Primary (essential) hypertension is the most common form of hypertension, but secondary causes should be ruled out, especially in younger patients with atypical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a consistent blood pressure reading of >140/90 mmHg. Laboratory tests indicate a serum potassium level of 2.8 mmol/l. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, it is discovered that an external radiology report had previously noted a small retroperitoneal mass of unknown significance. What would be the anticipated serum renin and aldosterone levels in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased renin; increased aldosterone
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship between Renin and Aldosterone Levels in Different Conditions
Renin and aldosterone are two important hormones involved in regulating blood pressure and electrolyte balance in the body. The levels of these hormones can vary in different conditions, providing important clues for diagnosis and treatment.
Decreased renin and increased aldosterone levels are typically seen in Conn syndrome, which is caused by a functioning adenoma in the adrenal cortex. This results in overproduction of aldosterone and a negative feedback loop that reduces renin levels.
On the other hand, increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels are characteristic of primary adrenal insufficiency, which can be caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands or other factors. This leads to a different clinical picture and requires different management.
A rare finding is decreased renin and aldosterone levels, which can occur in pseudohypoaldosteronism and Liddle’s syndrome. These conditions are associated with genetic mutations that affect the regulation of sodium channels in the kidneys.
Increased renin and aldosterone levels are seen in secondary hyperaldosteronism, which can be caused by various conditions such as renal artery stenosis, congestive cardiac failure, nephrotic syndrome, liver cirrhosis, and renin-secreting tumors.
Finally, normal renin levels with increased aldosterone levels suggest a negative feedback effect of aldosterone on renin production. This can occur in various conditions such as primary hyperaldosteronism or other forms of secondary hyperaldosteronism.
In summary, understanding the relationship between renin and aldosterone levels can provide important insights into the underlying pathophysiology of different conditions and guide appropriate management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been referred by her GP due to passing an unusually large volume of urine and complaining of continuous thirst. The following investigations were conducted:
Random plasma:
Investigation Result
Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol/l
Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 4.5 mmol/l
Urine:
Investigation Result
Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
In healthy patients, the urine: plasma osmolality ratio is > 2. A water deprivation test was conducted, and after 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient's weight had dropped by >3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (im) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour
Explanation:Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Comparison with Other Conditions
Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is a pituitary tumor, which reduces antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. Other conditions, such as diabetes mellitus, chronic renal disease, lithium therapy, and primary polydipsia, may also cause polydipsia and polyuria, but they present with different symptoms and responses to treatment.
To diagnose cranial DI, doctors perform a water deprivation test and measure the urine: plasma osmolality ratio. In patients with cranial DI, the ratio is below 2, indicating that the kidneys are not concentrating urine as well as they should be. However, when given desmopressin im (exogenous ADH), the patient’s urine osmolality dramatically increases, showing that the kidneys can concentrate urine appropriately when stimulated by ADH. This confirms the absence of ADH as the cause of cranial DI.
Diabetes mellitus patients present with glycosuria and hyperglycemia, in addition to polydipsia and polyuria. Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy cause nephrogenic DI, which does not respond to desmopressin im. Primary polydipsia causes low urine osmolality, low plasma osmolality, and hyponatremia due to excessive water intake. However, patients with primary polydipsia retain some ability to concentrate urine, and removing the fluid source limits polyuria to some extent.
In conclusion, diagnosing cranial DI requires a thorough comparison with other conditions that cause polydipsia and polyuria. By understanding the symptoms and responses to treatment of each condition, doctors can accurately diagnose and treat patients with cranial DI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents at a well man clinic. He has a significant family history of ischaemic heart disease and is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day. He also consumes approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is found to be obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and has a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg. His investigations reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 10.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), HbA1c of 62 mmol/mol (20-46), and a cholesterol concentration of 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2).
Which intervention would be most effective in reducing his cardiovascular risk?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Managing Hypertension and Diabetes for Cardiovascular Risk Reduction
This patient is diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes, as indicated by the elevated fasting plasma glucose. While metformin has been found to reduce cardiovascular (CV) mortality in obese diabetics, ramipril reduces CV risk in hypertensive diabetics, and statins reduce CV mortality, none of these interventions are as effective as quitting smoking in reducing CV risk. The Nurses’ Health Study provides the best evidence for the risk of smoking in women, with past smokers and current smokers having a higher risk compared to non-smokers. In men, there is less definitive evidence, but it is unlikely that many practitioners would consider the other interventions to be more beneficial than smoking cessation. There is currently no evidence that weight loss alone reduces CV mortality, although this may be due to a lack of studies on the topic.
Overall, managing hypertension and diabetes is crucial for reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease. While medication can help, quitting smoking remains the most effective intervention for reducing CV risk. Further research is needed to determine the impact of weight loss on CV mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practice with a lump in her neck. During examination, the GP observes a diffusely enlarged thyroid swelling with an audible bruit but no retrosternal extension. The patient reports no difficulty with breathing or swallowing. The patient appears underweight and anxious, with a pulse rate of 110 bpm and signs of proptosis, periorbital oedema, lid retraction and diplopia. The GP suspects hyperthyroidism and refers the patient to the Endocrinology Clinic.
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Causes of Hyperthyroidism: Understanding the Different Factors
Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, which results in the production of too much thyroid hormone. There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperthyroidism, each with its own unique characteristics and symptoms. Here are some of the most common causes of hyperthyroidism:
1. Graves’ Disease: This autoimmune disorder is responsible for around 75% of all cases of hyperthyroidism. It occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce too much thyroid hormone. Patients with Graves’ disease may also experience eye symptoms, such as bulging eyes or double vision.
2. Toxic Nodule: A toxic nodule is a benign growth on the thyroid gland that produces excess thyroid hormone. It accounts for up to 5% of cases of hyperthyroidism and can be treated with surgery or radioactive iodine.
3. Toxic Multinodular Goitre: This condition is similar to a toxic nodule, but involves multiple nodules on the thyroid gland. It is the second most common cause of hyperthyroidism and can also be treated with surgery or radioactive iodine.
4. Over-Treating Hypothyroidism: In some cases, treating an underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) with too much thyroid hormone can result in symptoms of hyperthyroidism. This is known as thyrotoxicosis and can be corrected by adjusting the dosage of thyroid hormone medication.
5. Medullary Carcinoma: This rare form of thyroid cancer develops from C cells in the thyroid gland and can cause high levels of calcitonin. However, it does not typically result in hyperthyroidism.
Understanding the different causes of hyperthyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you are experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism, such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, or anxiety, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is scheduled for colorectal carcinoma resection and has type 2 diabetes. He is currently well-controlled on 5 mg glibenclamide daily. What is the best pre-operative plan for managing his blood sugar levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop glibenclamide on the morning of surgery and commence insulin by intravenous infusion
Explanation:Management of Glibenclamide in a Patient Undergoing Major Surgery
During major surgery, it is crucial to maintain optimal glycaemic control in patients with diabetes. In the case of a patient taking glibenclamide, the most appropriate course of action is to discontinue the medication on the morning of surgery. Instead, the patient should be started on intravenous (IV) insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for frequent blood glucose measurements and adjustment of the insulin infusion rate as needed.
By stopping glibenclamide, the risk of hypoglycaemia during surgery is reduced. IV insulin and dextrose with potassium provide a more controlled and predictable method of glycaemic control during the stress of surgery. This approach ensures that the patient’s blood glucose levels remain within a safe range, reducing the risk of complications such as infection, delayed wound healing, and poor surgical outcomes.
In summary, the management of glibenclamide in a patient undergoing major surgery involves discontinuing the medication on the morning of surgery and starting the patient on IV insulin and dextrose with potassium. This approach allows for optimal glycaemic control during the stress of surgery and reduces the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed 1 year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise, and additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg po daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day. On examination, his blood pressure is measured at 129/75 mmHg. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1, HbA1c 62 mmol/mol and creatinine 110 μmol/l.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence metformin
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Cholesterol
To manage a patient with diabetes and high cholesterol, several treatment options are available. If the patient’s HbA1c is above the target level despite diet and exercise, the first-line treatment is metformin. If the patient has poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be used as a second-line option. Pioglitazone can be used cautiously in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy.
However, if the patient’s LDL cholesterol is already adequately controlled, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin. Similarly, if the patient’s blood pressure is already well-managed, there is no need to add an additional antihypertensive medication. By carefully considering the patient’s individual needs and responses to treatment, healthcare providers can help manage diabetes and high cholesterol effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic with a lump in the anterior of his neck. He denies any symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. His family members have noticed that his voice has become increasingly hoarse over the past few weeks. Fine-needle aspiration indicates papillary carcinoma of the thyroid.
Which of the following statements is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy is curative in most cases
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Thyroid Cancer
Thyroidectomy is a common treatment for thyroid cancer, and it is curative in most cases. However, there are several misconceptions about this type of cancer that need to be addressed.
Firstly, papillary carcinoma, the most common type of thyroid cancer, is the least aggressive and can be cured with thyroidectomy. Secondly, a hoarse voice is not necessarily an indication of laryngeal involvement, but rather recurrent laryngeal nerve invasion.
Thirdly, while calcitonin levels are raised in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, this type of cancer is rare and accounts for only a small percentage of cases. Finally, contrary to popular belief, most cases of thyroid cancer are sporadic, and only a small percentage are familial.
It is important to dispel these myths and educate the public about the realities of thyroid cancer to ensure accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her endocrinologist for follow-up. She has a medical history of primary hyperparathyroidism and prolactinoma. After undergoing genetic testing, she was diagnosed with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) syndrome. She is planning to start a family and wants to know the likelihood of her child inheriting MEN1. Her partner has no known medical conditions.
What is the mode of inheritance for MEN1 syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance Patterns of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Syndromes
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are a group of rare genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the development of tumors in multiple endocrine glands. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these syndromes is crucial for genetic counseling and early detection of tumors.
MEN1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the menin gene. This means that if one parent carries the mutation, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their children. Over 1000 mutations have been described in this gene, leading to a loss of tumor-suppressor function and an increased risk of tumors in the parathyroid, pancreas, and pituitary gland, as well as other organs.
Cystic fibrosis, on the other hand, is an example of an autosomal recessive condition. If both parents carry the mutation, there is a 25% chance of their child inheriting the condition.
X-linked dominant and recessive conditions are also possible, but they do not apply to MEN syndromes. In X-linked dominant conditions, affected mothers have a 50% chance of passing the condition to their children, while in X-linked recessive conditions, females can only be carriers but can still pass the condition to their sons.
It is important to note that while most MEN syndromes are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, sporadic cases can also occur. In these cases, a family history may be absent because the parent with the disease may have died before symptoms developed. Genetic testing and counseling can help identify individuals at risk and provide appropriate management and surveillance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her annual check-up. She was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus at the age of 20 and is currently being treated with human mixed insulin twice daily. She has been experiencing dysuria for the past year and has received treatment with trimethoprim four times for cystitis. On examination, there are two dot haemorrhages bilaterally on fundal examination, but no other abnormalities are found. Her blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg. The following investigations were conducted: HbA1c 75 mmol/mol (20-46), fasting plasma glucose 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine 90 µmol/L (60-110), urinalysis glucose +, and 24-hour urine albumin 220 mg/24 hrs (<200). What is the best treatment option to prevent the progression of renal disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with ACEI
Explanation:Treatment Options for Diabetic Nephropathy
Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication of diabetes, affecting up to 40% of patients with type 1 diabetes and 5-40% of patients with type 2 diabetes. Without intervention, it can lead to macroalbuminuria and end-stage renal disease. Treatment options include ACE inhibitors, low dietary protein, and improved glycaemic control.
In the case of a patient with microalbuminuria and poor glycaemic control but normal blood pressure, ACE inhibitors would be the preferred choice for renal protection. This is supported by evidence showing a 50% lower albumin excretion rate at two years in treated versus untreated patients with type 1 diabetes. However, it is important to rule out any urinary tract infections, as they can contribute to albumin excretion.
While good glycaemic control has not shown clear benefits in treating microalbuminuria in patients with type 1 diabetes, it is still important to improve overall glycaemic control to prevent further complications. A low protein diet has been proven effective for overt proteinuria but not for microalbuminuria. Therefore, in this case, the focus should be on ACE inhibitors and glycaemic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in the local supermarket. He is in an acute confusional state and unaccompanied, so a history is not available. Upon examination, the doctor noted digital clubbing and signs of a right-sided pleural effusion. The patient was euvolaemic.
Investigations:
Serum:
Na+ 114 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
K+ 3.6 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
Urea 2.35 mmol/l (2.5–6.7 mmol/l)
Osmolality 255 mOsmol/kg (282–295 mOsm/kg)
Urine:
Osmolality 510 mOsmol/kg (raised)
Na+ 50 mmol/l (25–250 mmol/l, depending on hydration state)
Which of the following could be the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small cell lung cancer
Explanation:Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a common electrolyte disturbance that can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this case, the patient’s acute confusional state is likely due to significant hyponatraemia. The low serum urea level and osmolality suggest dilutional hyponatraemia, but the raised urine osmolality indicates continued secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), known as syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).
SIADH can be associated with malignancy (such as small cell lung cancer), central nervous system disorders, drugs, and major surgery. In this patient’s case, the unifying diagnosis is small cell lung cancer causing SIADH. Digital clubbing also points towards a diagnosis of lung cancer.
Other conditions that can cause hyponatraemia include nephrotic syndrome, Addison’s disease, cystic fibrosis, and excessive diuretic therapy. However, these conditions have different biochemical profiles and clinical features.
Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyponatraemia and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant notes that the patient's breath smells like fruit punch. The patient was found holding a glass containing clear liquid and the ambulance attendant had noted a syringe on the patient's coffee table and a pool of vomit near the patient.
With which of the following would this presentation be most consistent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:Differentiating between medical conditions based on breath scent
When trying to identify a medical condition based on the scent of a patient’s breath, it is important to consider various factors. The presence of acetone on the breath is strongly suggestive of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled type I diabetes. In contrast, profound hypoglycaemia resulting from insulin overdose does not produce a specific scent. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma, typically seen in older patients with type II diabetes, also does not produce a fruity scent. Heroin overdose and alcohol intoxication do not involve acetone production and therefore do not produce a fruity scent. It is important to consider all relevant factors when attempting to identify a medical condition based on breath scent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has diabetes controlled by diet. Her sugars have been running at 13 mmol/l; HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol, and she has a body mass index of 32.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Type II Diabetes: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
When a patient presents with an HbA1c of >48 mmol/mol, it is important to commence treatment for their type II diabetes. The first-line treatment for overweight individuals who are not adequately controlled with diet is metformin. However, dietary advice should always be given and reinforced, as it is clear that this patient’s diabetes is not being controlled with diet alone.
If the HbA1c is still high on metformin monotherapy, gliclazide or pioglitazone can be used in conjunction with metformin. Insulin would only be considered if dual therapy was found to be ineffective or if there were intolerable side-effects from oral hypoglycaemic agents. It is important to note that insulin would likely worsen this patient’s obesity.
As healthcare professionals, it is our responsibility to stay up-to-date on the latest treatment options for type II diabetes and to work with our patients to find the best course of action for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses worry about osteoporosis. He has questions about bone formation and calcium homeostasis, and you explain the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels.
Which of the following statements about PTH is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It causes indirect osteoclastic activation via RANK-L
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH) indirectly activates osteoclasts by increasing the production of RANK-L by osteoblasts. This leads to bone degradation and the release of calcium. PTH also decreases the release of osteoprotegerin, which is a decoy receptor for RANK-L. This further enhances osteoclast activity and bone degradation. Additionally, PTH causes a decrease in serum calcium by promoting calcium release from bone. It also enhances renal phosphate excretion by decreasing phosphate reabsorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man with known type 1 diabetes is admitted to hospital with abdominal pain, drowsiness and severe dehydration. On examination he has a temperature of 38.2 degrees, and crackles at the bases of both lungs. Investigations show the following results:
Urinary ketones: 3+
Serum ketones: 3.6 mmol/l
Serum glucose: 21.8 mmol/l
pH 7.23
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 litre 0.9% normal saline over 1 h
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Medications and Fluids
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening complication of diabetes that requires urgent treatment. The initial management of DKA involves fluid resuscitation with normal saline, followed by insulin infusion to correct hyperglycemia. Antibiotics are not the immediate management option of choice, even if an intercurrent infection is suspected. Glucose therapy should be administered only after initial fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion. Here is a breakdown of the medications and fluids used in the management of DKA:
1. 1 litre 0.9% normal saline over 1 h: This is the first-line treatment for DKA. Urgent fluid resuscitation is necessary to correct hypovolemia and improve tissue perfusion.
2. Amoxicillin 500 mg po TDS for 5 days: Antibiotics may be necessary if an intercurrent infection is suspected, but they are not the immediate management option of choice for DKA.
3. Clarithromycin 500 mg po bd for 5 days: Same as above.
4. Insulin 0.1 units/kg/h via fixed rate insulin infusion: After initial fluid resuscitation, insulin infusion is necessary to correct hyperglycemia and prevent further ketone production.
5. 1 litre 10% dextrose over 8 h: Glucose therapy is necessary to prevent hypoglycemia after insulin infusion, but it should not be administered initially as it can exacerbate hyperglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man presents with back pain after a fall. He has a history of prostate cancer with metastases to the liver and bones. He takes tamsulosin and bendroflumethiazide daily and paracetamol as needed. Upon admission, his renal function is stable, but his liver function is abnormal with an INR of 2, ALT of 210 U/L, AST of 90 U/L, ALP of 180 U/L, bilirubin of 30 mmol/L, and albumin of 24 g/L. What pain relief medication would you recommend for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS with codeine phosphate 30 mg QDS PRN
Explanation:Medication Considerations for Patients with Liver Dysfunction
When prescribing medication for patients with liver dysfunction, it is important to exercise caution and consider the potential risks. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided, especially in patients with coagulopathy, as they can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Opiates should also be prescribed with caution, particularly in patients who are opiate naïve.
In cases of acute or acute-on-chronic liver failure, paracetamol may not be recommended. However, in patients with fully compensated cirrhosis, it can be used with caution and at a reduced dose. It is crucial for healthcare providers to carefully evaluate the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with liver dysfunction. By doing so, they can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a midline cyst that rises upwards when he sticks out his tongue. You suspect it to be a thyroglossal cyst. Where does the thyroid gland originate from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen caecum
Explanation:Development of the Thyroid Gland and its Relationship to Other Structures
The thyroid gland develops from the foramen caecum on the tongue, which is a diverticulum between the first and second branchial arches. It descends to its final position in the neck, passing anteriorly to the hyoid bone. During this descent, a thyroglossal duct traces its path, which usually obliterates but can cause formation of a thyroglossal cyst if persistent. The third branchial pouch forms the inferior parathyroid glands and some cells of the thymus, while the fourth branchial pouch forms the superior parathyroid glands. It is important to note that the foramen caecum of the frontal bone shares its name with the structure on the tongue where the thyroid gland begins development, but the thyroid gland does not start development from the base of the skull. Understanding the relationship between these structures is crucial in the study of embryology and endocrinology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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What would be the natural response to hypocalcaemia in a normal and healthy individual, considering the various factors that influence serum calcium levels, including hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased kidney phosphate reabsorption, high PTH, low calcitonin
Explanation:The likely cause of haematemesis in IHD patients is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management. The history of patients with Ischemic Heart Disease (IHD) is crucial in determining the cause of their current presentation with haematemesis. As most of these patients are receiving aspirin, it is important to consider the possibility of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced peptic ulceration as the likely cause. To confirm this, an endoscopy should be performed, and the patient should be started on proton pump inhibition.
It is important to note that gastric carcinoma typically presents with dysphagia and weight loss, while gastritis and oesophagitis present with a burning sensation in the chest and epigastric area, worsened by lying flat and triggered by certain foods or drinks. On the other hand, a Mallory-Weiss tear usually presents with haematemesis after multiple vomiting episodes due to abrasion and trauma to the oesophageal endothelium.
The likely cause of haematemesis in IHD patients is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management. By considering the patient’s medical history and conducting necessary tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition, ensuring the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visited her GP complaining of low mood, weight gain, and irregular menstrual cycles. The GP conducted some tests and referred her to the hospital. The results of the investigations were as follows:
- Sodium: 150 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
- Potassium: 2.5 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
- Fasting blood glucose: 7.7 mmol/l (5–7.2 mmol/l)
- 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion: 840 nmol/24 hours (<300 nmol/24 hours)
- Plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): undetectable
- Dexamethasone suppression test:
- 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 0.5 mg/6 hours orally (po) for 2 days: 880 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l)
- 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 2 mg/6 hours po for 2 days: 875 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l)
What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenocortical tumour
Explanation:Adrenocortical Tumour: Localizing the Source of Excessive Cortisol Production
Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the overproduction of glucocorticoids, which can lead to weight gain, mood disturbances, and irregular menses. In this case, the patient has proven high 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion, indicating excessive cortisol levels. However, the lack of response to low-dose dexamethasone and the low potassium and high sodium levels suggest that an adrenocortical tumour is the most likely cause.
An adrenocortical tumour results in excess cortisol secretion by the adrenal glands, leading to negative feedback at the pituitary level and very low or undetectable levels of ACTH. This is consistent with the patient’s presentation, ruling out Cushing’s disease, Conn’s syndrome, and acromegaly. Additionally, the absence of detectable ACTH levels rules out paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.
In conclusion, the patient’s clinical picture and test results suggest an adrenocortical tumour as the source of excessive cortisol production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents with a four-month history of amenorrhoea. During investigations, her GP notes an elevated prolactin concentration of 1500 mU/L (50-550). The patient's mother reports that she had previously experienced regular periods since her menarche at 12 years of age. Physical examination reveals a healthy female with normal pubertal development and no abnormalities in any system. There is no galactorrhoea upon expression. Further investigations show oestradiol levels of 5000 pmol/L (130-800), prolactin levels of 2000 mU/L (50-550), LH levels of 2 U/L (3-10), and FSH levels of 2 U/L (3-15). What test should be requested for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:Pregnancy Hormones
During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes significant hormonal changes. One of the key hormones involved is oestradiol, which is produced in large quantities by the placenta. In pregnant women, oestradiol levels can be significantly elevated, which can be confirmed through a pregnancy test. Additionally, pregnant women often have suppressed levels of LH/FSH and elevated levels of prolactin, which helps to produce breast milk. Prolactin levels can increase by 10 to 20 times during pregnancy and remain high if the woman is breastfeeding after the baby is born. It’s important to note that even routine examinations may not detect a pregnancy until later stages, such as 16 weeks. these hormonal changes can help women better prepare for and manage their pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents to the endocrinology clinic with symptoms of hypogonadism. He reports consuming five cans of lager per week, which is believed to be the cause of his abnormal liver function tests. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis affecting his hips and knees. What tests should be performed to determine the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum ferritin and iron studies
Explanation:Haemochromatosis as a Cause of Hypogonadism
The patient’s medical history suggests that haemochromatosis may be the underlying cause of their hypogonadism. While their moderate alcohol consumption of 10 units per week may contribute to liver dysfunction, other potential explanations should be explored. Additionally, the patient’s history of type 2 diabetes and seronegative arthropathy are consistent with iron storage diseases. Haemochromatosis can lead to reduced insulin production, resulting in a presentation similar to type 2 diabetes. To confirm the diagnosis, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be evaluated, as elevated levels of both are highly indicative of haemochromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of palpitations, tremors, sweating, and diarrhoea. She has a medical history of gestational hypertension and type 1 diabetes, which is managed with insulin. The patient gave birth to her first child 8 weeks ago without any complications.
Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 109 bpm, respiratory rate of 19 breaths/minute, temperature of 37.7ºC, oxygen saturation of 98%, blood pressure of 129/88 mmHg, and blood glucose of 4 mmol/L.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:The recommended treatment for the thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is typically propranolol alone. This is because the condition is usually temporary and self-resolving, with thyroid function returning to normal within a year after childbirth. Carbimazole is not necessary as it is typically reserved for more severe cases of hyperthyroidism. Dexamethasone is not appropriate as it is used to treat thyroid storm, a complication of thyrotoxicosis that is not present in this case. Levothyroxine is also not indicated as it is used to treat hypothyroidism, which is the opposite of the patient’s current condition.
Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management
Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. In the hypothyroidism phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. However, in the final stage, the thyroid gland returns to normal function, although there is a high recurrence rate in future pregnancies.
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis, which suggests an autoimmune component to the condition. Management of postpartum thyroiditis depends on the stage of the condition. During the thyrotoxic phase, symptom control is the main focus, and propranolol is typically used. Antithyroid drugs are not usually used as the thyroid gland is not overactive. In the hypothyroid phase, treatment with thyroxine is usually necessary to restore normal thyroid function.
It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to properly diagnose and manage postpartum thyroiditis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What would be advantageous to prescribe for her along with hydrocortisone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Medications for Addison’s Disease: What Works and What Doesn’t
Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. Patients with this condition require replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid replacement therapy used in Addison’s disease. However, medications such as aspirin, the combined oral contraceptive pill, and the progesterone only pill have no role in treating this condition. Additionally, dexamethasone is not used as a replacement therapy for Addison’s disease. It is important for patients with Addison’s disease to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate medications for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old patient with a history of phaeochromocytoma develops a neck mass. Resection of the neck mass demonstrates a multifocal tumour with haemorrhage, necrosis and spread outside the thyroid capsule. The tumour is composed of polygonal cells in nests. Amyloid deposits are seen in the intervening fibrovascular stroma.
What is the most likely secretion of the polygonal cells?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcitonin
Explanation:Hormones and Tumors: Understanding the Link
Calcitonin, PTH, TSH, T4, and T3 are hormones that can be produced by various tumors. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which can occur sporadically or as part of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) types IIa and IIb, is known for its local production of amyloid and secretion of calcitonin. PTH can be produced by parathyroid tumors, while PTH-related protein can be a paraneoplastic product of various tumors, including lung cancer. TSH is produced by pituitary adenomas, while T4 and T3 are produced by thyroid tumors composed of follicular cells. Understanding the link between hormones and tumors can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review for his hypertension. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient has prominent supraorbital ridges, large hands and feet, and acanthosis nigricans of the axillae. The GP also discovers enlargement of the thyroid gland and hepatomegaly. Besides hypertension, what other condition is frequently linked to acromegaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Associations of Acromegaly with Various Medical Conditions
Acromegaly is a medical condition caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone. It is associated with various medical conditions, including insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus, which can lead to acromegaly. Left ventricular hypertrophy is also associated with acromegaly, which can cause right ventricular hypertrophy. Ulnar nerve entrapment is another association, along with carpal tunnel syndrome affecting the median nerve. Acanthosis nigricans involves hyperpigmentation of the skin, but there is no general pigmentation associated with acromegaly. Acromegaly is also associated with cardiovascular disease, which can increase the risk of atrial fibrillation, although it is not a direct cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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The blood results of a 58-year-old man were analyzed, revealing the following plasma values: Total Ca2+ at 2.80 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), Albumin at 40 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l), PO43− at 0.25 mmol/l (normal range: 0.70–1.40 mmol/l), Alkaline phosphatase at 170 iu/l (normal range: 30–130 IU/l), and Parathyroid hormone (PTH) at 8 ng/l (normal range: 10–65 ng/l). Based on these results, what condition is this patient likely experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell lung cancer
Explanation:Disorders of Parathyroid Hormone: Causes and Effects
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. However, various disorders can disrupt this delicate balance, leading to a range of health problems. Here are some common disorders of PTH and their effects:
Squamous Cell Lung Cancer
In some cases of squamous cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and renal cell carcinomas, the body produces parathyroid-related protein (PTHrP), which mimics the action of PTH. This leads to increased calcium and decreased phosphate levels, as well as elevated alkaline phosphatase due to increased bone turnover. However, unlike primary hyperparathyroidism, PTH levels are lowered due to negative feedback.Chronic Renal Failure
In chronic renal failure, the body’s ability to convert 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to calcitriol is impaired. This results in decreased calcium and increased phosphate reabsorption, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism as the body tries to compensate for low calcium levels.Primary Hyperparathyroidism
In primary hyperparathyroidism, the parathyroid glands produce too much PTH, leading to elevated calcium levels and decreased phosphate levels. This can cause a range of symptoms, including bone pain, kidney stones, and digestive issues.Post-Thyroidectomy
Thyroidectomy, or the surgical removal of the thyroid gland, can sometimes result in damage or removal of the parathyroid glands. This leads to low PTH levels, which in turn causes low calcium and high phosphate levels. This can cause muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and other symptoms.Pseudohypoparathyroidism
In pseudohypoparathyroidism, the body’s cells fail to respond appropriately to PTH, leading to elevated PTH levels but low calcium and high phosphate levels. This can cause a range of symptoms, including muscle spasms, seizures, and developmental delays.In conclusion, disorders of PTH can have a significant impact on the body’s calcium and phosphate levels, leading to a range of symptoms and health problems. Understanding these disorders and their effects is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male presents for his first annual review of type 2 diabetes. He has also been experiencing osteoarthritis in his hips and 2nd/3rd metacarpophalangeal joints. His current medications include aspirin and metformin. Prior to starting a statin, his liver function tests are checked and reveal the following results: AST 78 U/L (5-40), ALT 88 U/L (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 210 U/L (60-110), and Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (0-22). He does not consume alcohol and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. He has tested negative for hepatitis B and C viruses, ANA, ASMA, LKM, and AMA. His caeruloplasmin levels are normal. What is the probable cause of his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Haemochromatosis
This patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of haemochromatosis, an iron storage disorder. The presence of diabetes despite a normal BMI, liver function abnormalities, and arthropathy are all suggestive of this condition. To confirm the diagnosis, the recommended investigation is to measure the patient’s serum ferritin levels followed by transferrin saturation. If haemochromatosis is confirmed, the treatment will involve regular venesection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes for three years comes in for her annual check-up. Despite optimizing her oral hypoglycemic therapy, she has gained around 5 kg in weight over the past year and her HbA1c has worsened. She is also taking ramipril, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine, but her blood pressure remains difficult to control, with a reading of 172/102 mmHg. During the examination, she has developed abdominal striae, thin skin with bruising, and proximal weakness. The doctor suspects Cushing's syndrome. What is the most appropriate test for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hour urine free cortisol concentration
Explanation:Screening Tests for Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. To diagnose this condition, appropriate screening tests are necessary. The preferred test is the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, where 1 mg of dexamethasone is given at 11 pm, and cortisol levels are measured at 9 am the following morning. A cortisol concentration less than 50 nmol/L after this test is considered normal.
Another effective test is a 24-hour urine collection to measure free cortisol in the urine. An elevated cortisol level, usually above 250 nmol/day, indicates Cushing’s syndrome. However, random cortisol or 9 am cortisol tests do not provide any diagnostic information.
In investigating the possible cause of Cushing’s syndrome, chest x-rays and adrenal CT scans are useful. These tests can help identify the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to perform appropriate screening tests to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female patient visits her doctor's office for a follow-up appointment. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and is currently taking a daily dose of 100 micrograms of thyroxine. The doctor has access to the patient's thyroid function and other test results from the previous week.
Which test would be most effective in monitoring the patient's progress and treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels
Explanation:Thyroxine and TSH Levels in Hypothyroidism
Thyroxine is a medication that can help reduce the high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) that are often seen in individuals with hypothyroidism. When TSH levels are high, it indicates that the thyroid gland is not producing enough thyroid hormones, which can lead to a range of symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. By taking thyroxine, individuals with hypothyroidism can help regulate their TSH levels and improve their overall health.
To monitor the effectiveness of thyroxine treatment, doctors often use TSH as a key monitoring test. The goal is to get TSH levels into the normal range, which indicates that the thyroid gland is producing enough hormones. Other tests that may be used in the initial investigation and diagnosis of hypothyroidism include triiodothyronine, free thyroxine (T4), thyroid peroxidase antibody, and protein-bound iodine levels. By using a combination of these tests, doctors can get a better of a patient’s thyroid function and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite following a diet plan, his glycaemic control is not optimal and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46). You decide to initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg bd. As per NICE NG28 guidelines for diabetes management, what is the recommended interval for rechecking his HbA1c after each intensification of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three to six months
Explanation:HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control
The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glucose levels in the blood over a period of time. It reflects the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose, and there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of this molecule and average plasma glucose concentrations. This makes it a widely used tool in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control. Studies have also shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.
The life span of a red blood cell is 120 days, and HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to re-check HbA1c with each treatment intensification at 3/6 monthly intervals. HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial in managing diabetes and reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman with a history of renal stones and osteoporosis presents with abnormal laboratory results. Her bone density scan shows a T score of -3.2 in the femur and -2.7 in the spine. She has no other symptoms and is not taking any medications. Upon further investigation, a right-sided parathyroid nodule is discovered through Sestamibi Technetium (99mTc) and ultrasound scan. The patient's laboratory results are as follows: calcium 2.9 mmol/l (normal range 2.20-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate 0.6 mmol/l (normal range 0.7-1.5 mmol/l), PTH 80 ng/l (normal range 15-60 ng/l), creatinine 72 μmol/l (normal range 50-120 μmol/l), and 24-hour urinary calcium : creatinine 0.03 (normal range <0.02). What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid surgery
Explanation:Management of Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Indications for Surgery and Treatment Options
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by persistent hypercalcemia with an inappropriately elevated or normal parathyroid hormone (PTH). Patients with this condition may also have hypercalciuria, which can lead to renal stones and nephrocalcinosis. Parathyroidectomy is the recommended treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism, with success rates of about 97%.
Indications for parathyroidectomy include symptomatic disease, age under 50 years, adjusted serum calcium concentration that is 0.25 mmol/l or more above the upper end of the reference range, estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2, renal stones or presence of nephrocalcinosis on ultrasound or CT, and presence of osteoporosis or osteoporotic fracture.
Patients with calcium >3.4 mmol/l or who are significantly symptomatic or have an acute kidney injury and dehydration should be admitted for urgent treatment and assessment. However, asymptomatic patients with normal renal function and likely longstanding hypercalcemia may not require hospitalization.
For patients who are not candidates for surgery or decline it, other treatment options include bisphosphonate therapy, cinacalcet, and vitamin D replacement. Bisphosphonate therapy can improve bone mineral density but will not prevent further renal stones. Cinacalcet is an allosteric modulator of the calcium-sensing receptor that can be used in patients who meet hypercalcemia criteria for parathyroidectomy but cannot undergo surgery. However, it can cause mild-to-moderate adverse events such as nausea, vomiting, arthralgia, diarrhea, myalgia, and paraesthesia. Vitamin D replacement should be considered if vitamin D levels are low, but careful monitoring is required to avoid masking hypercalcemia and increasing the risk of parathyroid tumorigenesis.
In summary, the management of primary hyperparathyroidism involves identifying indications for parathyroidectomy and considering alternative treatment options for patients who are not candidates for surgery or decline it. Close monitoring and follow-up are essential to ensure optimal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old male who works as a truck driver and has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes for the past 8 years is due for his annual check-up. Despite being on maximum oral hypoglycemic therapy, his HbA1c levels are alarmingly high at 91 mmol/mol (20-42). He has not experienced any hypoglycemic episodes or developed retinopathy. You suggest switching to insulin, but he declines as it would result in him losing his HGV license and having to reapply. The DVLA is aware of his diabetes and current treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue to review patient in clinic and accept that he continues to drive
Explanation:Diabetes and Driving: the Guidelines
When it comes to diabetes and driving, there are certain guidelines that must be followed. In cases where a patient has poor glycaemic control, but no other features that would prevent them from driving, they cannot be forced to switch to insulin or have their driving privileges revoked. However, patients who hold a HGV license and are treated on insulin will initially lose their license and have to re-apply for it.
It’s important to note that regular medical check-ups are necessary for patients who wish to maintain their HGV license. These check-ups should occur every three years to ensure that the patient’s diabetes is under control and that they are fit to drive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a three month history of weight gain. During this time her weight has increased from 56 kg to 81 kg.
She works as a teacher and was in a long-term relationship until three months ago. Following the break-up, she started to drink more and her meals became erratic. She has been recently diagnosed with anxiety. In addition, she recently broke her left ankle after falling while hiking.
Her regular medications now include sertraline, vitamin D, and a benzoyl peroxide gel for acne.
What is the next best test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood for midnight cortisol
Explanation:Screening for Cushing’s Syndrome
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome, including acne, weight gain, depression, and brittle bones. The most appropriate screening test for this condition is a midnight cortisol level in the blood or a 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. While a dexamethasone suppression test can also be used, a single midnight cortisol level has the same sensitivity and is easier to administer.
It is important to note that morning cortisol levels are more appropriate for diagnosing Addison’s disease. Additionally, while morning cortisol levels are used after a dexamethasone suppression test, the upper limit of normal is not well-defined, unlike the lower limit of normal. Therefore, levels below 550 ng/ml may indicate steroid insufficiency, but high levels cannot provide specific information.
While hypothyroidism may explain some of the patient’s symptoms, a TSH test is not the best option for screening for Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, while blood sugar levels may be abnormal in this case, they will not aid in diagnosing the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Given the severity of the patient’s symptoms, it is important to take action and screen for Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male presents with symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol per week. He works as a taxi driver.
During examination, his BMI is found to be 33.4 kg/m2, and his blood pressure is 132/82 mmHg. All other aspects of his cardiovascular examination are normal.
Further investigations confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, with the following results:
- Fasting blood glucose: 12.1 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
- HbA1c: 75 mmol/mol (20-42)
- Total cholesterol: 5.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diet and lifestyle advice with metformin
Explanation:Early Use of Metformin for Type 2 Diabetes
Typical type 2 diabetes can be managed with diet and lifestyle advice along with metformin. However, the EASD/ADA guidelines were revised in 2007-2008 due to the growing evidence supporting the early use of metformin. As a result, relying solely on diet and lifestyle advice is no longer considered sufficient.
The updated guidelines emphasize the importance of early intervention with metformin to improve glycemic control and prevent complications associated with type 2 diabetes. This approach is particularly important for patients who are at high risk of developing cardiovascular disease or have other comorbidities. By starting treatment early, patients can achieve better outcomes and reduce the risk of long-term complications.
In summary, the early use of metformin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes, along with diet and lifestyle modifications. This approach can help patients achieve better glycemic control and reduce the risk of complications associated with the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)
Explanation:Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison
Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.
In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.
Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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What is the recommended course of treatment for a 16-year-old boy with Reifenstein syndrome who has hypospadias, micropenis, and small testes in the scrotum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testosterone replacement
Explanation:Management of Reifenstein Syndrome: Hormonal and Surgical Options
Reifenstein syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disease that results in partial androgen insensitivity. In phenotypic males with this condition, testosterone replacement therapy is recommended to increase the chances of fertility. However, if the patient had been raised as a female and chose to continue this way, oestrogen replacement therapy would be appropriate. Surgical management may be necessary if the patient has undescended testes, but in this case, orchidectomy is not indicated as the patient has small testes in the scrotum. While psychological counselling is always necessary, it is not the first line of treatment. Overall, the management of Reifenstein syndrome involves a combination of hormonal and surgical options tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old teacher visits her GP, complaining of hot flashes and night sweats. She suspects that she may be experiencing symptoms of menopause. Can you identify which set of results below are consistent with postmenopausal values?
A: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 0.5
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 1.1
Oestrogen (pmol/L) 26
Progesterone (pmol/L) <5
B: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 0.5
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 1.2
Oestrogen (pmol/L) 120
Progesterone (pmol/L) 18
C: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 68
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 51
Oestrogen (pmol/L) 42
Progesterone (pmol/L) <5
D: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 1.0
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 0.8
Oestrogen (pmol/L) 250
Progesterone (pmol/L) 120
E: FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L) 8.0
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L) 7.2
Oestrogen (pmol/L) 144
Progesterone (pmol/L) <5Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:postmenopausal Blood Tests
postmenopausal blood tests often reveal elevated levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), as well as low levels of estrogen. These changes in hormone levels are responsible for most of the symptoms associated with menopause, which can be difficult to diagnose. However, once characteristic symptoms are well-established, gonadotrophin levels are typically significantly elevated.
The menopause is defined as the date of a woman’s last period, without further menses for at least a year. As such, the diagnosis can only be made retrospectively. Prior to menopause, women may experience irregular menstruation, heavy bleeding, and mood-related symptoms. While fertility is greatly reduced during this time, there is still some risk of pregnancy, and many healthcare providers recommend continuing contraception for a year after the last menstrual period.
In summary, postmenopausal blood tests can provide valuable information about a woman’s hormone levels and help diagnose menopause. However, it’s important to recognize that menopause is a gradual process that can be accompanied by a range of symptoms. Women should work closely with their healthcare providers to manage these symptoms and ensure their ongoing health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. She was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
Examination reveals dehydration, pulse 100 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 90/60 mmHg. Initial blood tests show: glucose 2.9 mmol/l, sodium (Na+) 126 mmol/l, potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l, urea 8.2 mmol/l, creatinine 117 µmol/l.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Medical Conditions: Addison’s Disease and Other Differential Diagnoses
Addison’s Disease:
Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. The most common cause in the UK is autoimmune destruction of the adrenals, while worldwide tuberculosis is the most common cause. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or haemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function is not capable of coping with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone. Treatment of a crisis requires intravenous glucocorticoids, as well as supportive measures and fluid resuscitation.Differential Diagnoses:
Peutz–Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps. Insulinoma causes hypoglycaemia, but the other features are absent. Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid, while Conn syndrome is also known as primary hyperaldosteronism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a thyroid lump and you suspect she may have follicular carcinoma of the thyroid. What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spreads mainly via blood
Explanation:Thyroid Carcinoma: Diagnosis and Management
Thyroid carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland. There are different types of thyroid carcinoma, including follicular, papillary, anaplastic, and medullary carcinomas. The spread of the cancer varies depending on the type of carcinoma.
Follicular carcinoma spreads mainly via the bloodstream, while papillary and medullary carcinomas spread via the lymphatic system. Anaplastic cancer spreads locally. The prognosis for thyroid carcinoma is generally good, with a 90% survival rate at 10 years, especially in young people without local or metastatic spread.
The initial treatment for differentiated thyroid carcinoma, such as follicular and papillary carcinomas, is total or near-total thyroidectomy. Fine needle aspiration cytology can help differentiate between follicular adenoma and carcinoma, but a thyroid lobectomy is often necessary to confirm the diagnosis. The distinguishing features of follicular carcinoma are vascular invasion and capsule invasion, which can only be seen accurately on a full histological specimen.
Solitary thyroid nodules are best investigated using a combination of clinical examination, thyroid function tests, ultrasound and radio-isotope scans, and often FNA. Thyroid tumours can be classified as adenomas, carcinomas, and lymphomas. Carcinomas can be further sub-classified as papillary, follicular, anaplastic, or medullary.
In conclusion, the diagnosis and management of thyroid carcinoma require a multidisciplinary approach. Early detection and treatment can lead to a good prognosis, but accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 70-year-old man presents with his daughter, who reports that her father has been experiencing a poor appetite, weight loss of at least 4.5 kg, and lack of energy for the past three months. The patient denies any cough or fever, but he tires easily.
Upon examination, the patient appears subdued, is afebrile, and has an irregular pulse of 100 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 156/88 mmHg. Fundoscopic examination reveals grade II hypertensive changes, and the JVP is elevated by 8 cm. Crackles are heard at both lung bases, but the abdomen is normal. The patient has general weakness, particularly in the hip flexors, but the neurologic exam is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory investigations show a hemoglobin level of 110 g/L (115-165), a white cell count of 7.3 ×109/L (4-11), and a urea level of 8.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5). What diagnostic test would be most helpful in establishing the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
Explanation:Thyrotoxicosis as a Possible Cause of Heart Failure and Proximal Myopathy
This patient is showing signs of heart failure, along with fast atrial fibrillation, weight loss, and proximal myopathy. Although hyperthyroidism is typically associated with an increased appetite, elderly patients may experience apathy and loss of appetite. These symptoms suggest thyrotoxicosis, which would be confirmed by a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. The absence of a thyroid goitre does not rule out Graves’ disease or a toxic nodule as the underlying cause.
Echocardiography can confirm the heart failure, but it cannot determine the underlying cause. Therefore, the examiners want the reader to deduce that thyrotoxicosis may be the culprit. It is important to consider this possibility in patients presenting with heart failure and proximal myopathy, even in the absence of a thyroid goitre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A cohort of individuals with type I diabetes mellitus, aged 50-60 years, with blood glucose levels between 8.0 and 10.0 mmol/l for a minimum of 10 years, underwent rectal biopsies. The results revealed the presence of osmotic cellular injury in arterioles. What clinical complication is linked with this type of injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impotence
Explanation:The Sorbitol/Aldose Reductase Pathway and Diabetic Complications
Hyperglycaemia in diabetes can lead to the formation of sorbitol in tissues that do not require insulin for glucose uptake, such as the retina, kidney, and nerves. This occurs through the sorbitol/aldose reductase pathway, which is implicated in microvascular damage to nervous tissue, retina, and kidney. When glucose is present in excess, it enters this pathway where aldose reductase reduces it to sorbitol, which cannot cross cell membranes and accumulates, producing osmotic stresses on cells by drawing water into the cell. Sorbitol dehydrogenase can then oxidise sorbitol to fructose, which also produces NADH from NAD+. Excessive activation of this pathway leads to increased levels of reactive oxygen species, which can promote cell damage.
While most body cells require insulin for glucose to enter the cell, the cells of the retina, kidney, and nervous tissues are insulin-independent, allowing for a free interchange of glucose intracellularly to extracellularly. Any glucose not used for energy will be converted into sorbitol, leading to osmotic cellular injury. This can result in microvascular damage to nervous tissue, retina, and kidney, causing diabetic complications.
Cerebral infarction, congestive heart failure, pyelonephritis, and rectal ulceration are not directly related to osmotic vascular injury caused by the sorbitol/aldose reductase pathway. However, atherosclerotic cerebrovascular disease and coronary artery disease are more frequent with diabetes mellitus and can cause damage to the brain and heart, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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What are the cells in the pancreas that produce glucagon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha cells
Explanation:Endocrine Cells and Their Secretions
The pancreas is an important organ in the endocrine system, and it contains different types of cells that secrete various hormones. Alpha cells in the pancreas produce glucagon, which helps to increase blood sugar levels. Beta cells, on the other hand, secrete insulin, which helps to lower blood sugar levels. Delta cells produce somatostatin, which regulates the release of insulin and glucagon.
In addition to the pancreas, the thyroid gland also contains specialized cells called parafollicular C cells. These cells secrete calcitonin, which helps to regulate calcium levels in the body. Finally, Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testes and are involved in the development of sperm. the different types of endocrine cells and their secretions is important for maintaining proper hormonal balance in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old Hispanic male presents to his primary care physician complaining of fatigue. He has noticed a slight increase in weight and has been feeling increasingly tired over the past year. The patient has a history of asthma and manages it with inhaled salbutamol as needed, typically no more than once a week. He also has type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet.
During the examination, the patient's blood pressure is measured at 172/98 mmHg, his body mass index is 29.7 kg/m2, and his pulse is 88 beats per minute. No other abnormalities are noted. Over the next month, his blood pressure readings are consistently high, measuring at 180/96, 176/90, and 178/100 mmHg.
Which medication would be recommended for the treatment of this patient's high blood pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Hypertension Treatment in Patients with Type 2 Diabetes
Patients with type 2 diabetes and sustained hypertension require treatment. The first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetes is ACE inhibitors. These medications have no adverse effects on glucose tolerance or lipid profiles and can delay the progression of microalbuminuria to nephropathy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can reduce morbidity and mortality in patients with vascular disease and diabetes.
However, bendroflumethiazide should be avoided in patients with a history of gout as it may provoke an attack. Beta-blockers should also be avoided for routine treatment of uncomplicated hypertension in patients with diabetes. They can precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma. In cases where there is no alternative, a cardioselective beta blocker should be selected and initiated at a low dose by a specialist, with close monitoring for adverse effects.
Alpha-blockers, such as doxazosin, are reserved for the treatment of resistant hypertension in conjunction with other antihypertensives. It is important to follow guidelines, such as those provided by NICE and the British National Formulary, for the diagnosis and management of hypertension in adults with diabetes. A treatment algorithm for hypertension can also be helpful in guiding treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl (who has been recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa) exercises regularly. During one period of exercise, she becomes very light-headed. Several minutes later, she breaks into a sweat and develops palpitations. A friend takes her to an Emergency Department where a serum glucose of 2.2 mmol/l is demonstrated. The patient is given a soft drink to sip and feels better half an hour later.
Which of the following hormones most likely triggered the sweating and palpitations the patient experienced?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epinephrine
Explanation:Hormones and their Role in Hypoglycaemia
Hypoglycaemia, or low blood sugar, can be caused by various factors including exercise and minimal glycogen and lipid stores. Hormones play a crucial role in the body’s response to hypoglycaemia.
Epinephrine is released in response to hypoglycaemia and promotes hepatic glucose production and release. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) triggers cortisol release, which stimulates gluconeogenesis over several hours. Calcitonin modulates serum calcium levels but does not play a direct role in hypoglycaemia.
Insulin secretion is associated with hypoglycaemia but does not cause symptoms such as sweating or palpitations. Similarly, thyroxine can cause similar symptoms but is not responsible for a specific role in the body’s response to hypoglycaemia. Understanding the role of hormones in hypoglycaemia can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman without prior medical history visits her primary care physician complaining of hand pain and overall bone pain that has persisted for four weeks. She also reports experiencing pain in her groin that spreads to her lower back approximately 20 minutes before urination. Additionally, she has been experiencing frequent thirst despite drinking fluids regularly. Laboratory tests reveal hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with hypercalcaemia, polydipsia, and renal calculus formation. This condition is typically caused by a parathyroid adenoma that secretes excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to increased osteoclastic activity and bone resorption. PTH also increases calcium absorption from the intestines and renal activation of vitamin D, further contributing to hypercalcaemia. Hypophosphataemia is a common feature of hyperparathyroidism due to the promotion of renal phosphate excretion by PTH.
Metastatic carcinoma and multiple myeloma are unlikely diagnoses for this patient as there is no evidence of malignancy in the patient’s history, and phosphate levels are typically normal or increased in these conditions. Secondary hyperparathyroidism, on the other hand, occurs as a compensatory mechanism for hypocalcaemia, which is not present in this patient. Chronic kidney disease is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is associated with reduced activation of vitamin D and impaired calcium absorption.
Overall, primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for this patient based on their symptoms and laboratory results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with a long history of smoking presents with a complaint of haemoptysis. Upon examination, muscle wasting and hypertension are observed. Further testing reveals elevated urine free cortisol, elevated ACTH, and non-suppressible cortisol following high dose dexamethasone testing. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer
Explanation:Ectopic ACTH Production and Associated Tumours
Patients with Cushing’s syndrome and non-suppressible cortisol levels may have ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion, which is commonly associated with small cell lung cancer. Other tumours that may cause ectopic ACTH production include those of the thymus, pancreas, thyroid, and adrenal gland. Unlike typical hypercortisolism symptoms, patients with ectopic ACTH production may experience polyuria, polydipsia, oedema, muscle wasting, fatigue, hypertension, and hypokalaemia.
Laboratory tests can confirm excessive cortisol production and lack of dexamethasone suppression of morning cortisol levels. Plasma ACTH levels greater than 200 pg/mL may indicate ectopic ACTH production and prompt a search for an underlying malignancy, particularly a primary lung or pancreatic tumour. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate the possibility of ectopic ACTH production in patients with Cushing’s syndrome and non-suppressible cortisol levels, as it may indicate an underlying tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic patient in their 60s is admitted through the Emergency department due to hyperglycemia. The patient is dehydrated and has acute on chronic renal impairment, with an eGFR of 30 ml/min/1.73 m2. What diabetes medication(s) can be safely prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide and saxagliptin
Explanation:Caution in Prescribing Hypoglycaemic Medication in Renal Impairment
When prescribing hypoglycaemic medication to patients with renal impairment, caution should be exercised. This is because reduced renal excretion increases the risk of hypoglycaemia. Metformin should not be prescribed or should be discontinued when the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 45 ml/min due to the potential for lactic acidosis. Liraglutide, an injectable GLP1 agonist, should also be avoided if the eGFR is less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2. Rosiglitazone has been withdrawn from the market and should not be prescribed. Gliclazide and other sulfonylureas can be used in renal impairment, but a reduced dose may be necessary due to the potential for hypoglycaemia caused by reduced renal excretion. Saxagliptin, a DPP4 inhibitor, should be prescribed at half dose if the eGFR is less than 50 ml/min/1.73 m2. It is important to consider the patient’s renal function when prescribing hypoglycaemic medication to avoid adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of a swollen right ankle joint that is not painful. Upon examination, radiographs reveal a joint that has been destroyed and contains a significant number of loose bodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charcot's joint
Explanation:Charcot’s Joint: A Destructive Process Affecting Weight-Bearing Joints
Charcot’s joint is a condition that primarily affects the weight-bearing joints in the extremities, including the feet, ankles, knees, and hips. It is a destructive process that can often be mistaken for an infection in these areas. The condition is characterized by a decreased sensation in the affected area and peripheral neuropathy. It is most commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, leprosy, and tabes dorsalis.
Charcot’s joint is a serious condition that can lead to significant disability if left untreated. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly. Treatment typically involves immobilization of the affected joint and management of the underlying condition. With proper care, it is possible to prevent further damage and preserve joint function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old professional athlete is being evaluated at the Endocrinology Clinic for presenting symptoms of low mood, decreased energy, and difficulty in preserving muscle mass. The patient also reports dry skin and hair loss. As part of the diagnostic process, the doctor requests a glucagon stimulation test.
What is elevated after the glucagon stimulation test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C-peptide, cortisol and growth hormone
Explanation:Glucagon and Hormone Production: Effects on C-peptide, Cortisol, Growth Hormone, and TSH
Glucagon, a hormone produced by the pancreas, has various effects on hormone production in the body. One of these effects is the stimulation of insulin and C-peptide production. C-peptide is cleaved from proinsulin during insulin production, and its levels can be used to measure insulin secretion. Glucagon also indirectly stimulates cortisol production by causing the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) via the hypothalamus. Additionally, glucagon can stimulate growth hormone production, making it an alternative test for measuring growth hormone levels. However, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion is not affected by glucagon injection. Understanding the effects of glucagon on hormone production can aid in the diagnosis and management of various endocrine disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is being evaluated by his physician for possible issues with his hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were recorded:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.5 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l)
fT3 3.5 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l)
What condition is indicated by these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Need more information
Explanation:The Importance of fT4 in Thyroid Diagnosis
When diagnosing thyroid conditions, the fT4 level is a crucial piece of information that cannot be overlooked. A patient with high TSH could be hyperthyroid, hypothyroid, or euthyroid with this TSH level, and the fT4 level is needed to determine the correct diagnosis. While a normal fT3 level can rule out hyperthyroidism, it cannot exclude the diagnosis if the fT4 level is high. Similarly, fT3 levels are of no use in diagnosing hypothyroidism, as they can be normal in a hypothyroid patient due to increased T4 to T3 conversion. Without the fT4 level, a diagnosis of primary or secondary hypothyroidism or a TSH-secreting tumor cannot be made. Therefore, it is crucial to obtain the fT4 level when evaluating thyroid function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman visited her doctor after fracturing her humerus in a minor accident. She reported feeling fatigued, weak, and depressed. The doctor conducted the following tests:
Total Ca2+ 3.22 mmol/l (2.12–2.65 mmol/l)
Albumin 40 g/l (35–50 g/l)
PO43− 0.45 mmol/l (0.8–1.5 mmol/l)
Alkaline phosphatase 165 iu/l (30–150 iu/l)
Based on these results, what is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a medical condition that is usually caused by a parathyroid adenoma or, in rare cases, by multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndromes. This condition is characterized by an increase in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels, which leads to increased calcium reabsorption and decreased phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys, as well as increased calcium absorption from the bones. As a result, patients with primary hyperparathyroidism typically exhibit hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia, with normal or low albumin levels. Additionally, alkaline phosphatase levels are usually elevated due to increased bone turnover.
The most common symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism are related to high calcium levels, including weakness, fatigue, and depression. Diagnosis is typically made through blood tests that measure PTH, calcium, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase levels, as well as imaging studies such as ultrasound or sestamibi scans.
Other conditions that can cause hypercalcemia include excess vitamin D, bone metastases, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and myeloma. However, each of these conditions has distinct diagnostic features that differentiate them from primary hyperparathyroidism. For example, excess vitamin D causes hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia, with normal alkaline phosphatase levels, while bone metastases typically present with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and normal or elevated phosphate levels.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and diagnostic features of primary hyperparathyroidism is essential for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is referred by his GP to the endocrine clinic after a blood test revealed hypercalcaemia. The man originally presented to his GP following episodes of abdominal pain and loin pain.
A thorough history from the patient reveals that his father had similar symptoms which started at the age of 49 but he later passed away from a pancreatic tumour. The patient’s grandfather also had a high calcium level, but the patient does not remember what happened to him. The Endocrinologist explains to the patient that he suffers from a disease which runs in the family and part of his treatment would involve the surgical removal of the majority of the parathyroid glands.
Which of the following should this patient also be considered at risk of?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic islet cell tumour
Explanation:The patient’s hypercalcaemia is due to a parathyroid gland issue, not a germ cell tumour of the testis, which is not related to the MEN syndromes. Pineal gland tumours can cause sleep pattern abnormalities, but this is not the case for this patient. Phaeochromocytoma, a tumour of the adrenal glands, typically presents with headaches, high blood pressure, palpitations, and anxiety, and is part of MEN 2a and 2b, but not MEN 1. Thyroid medullary carcinoma, which is part of MEN 2a and 2b, presents with diarrhoea and often metastasises by the time of diagnosis, but is not associated with MEN 1. Pancreatic islet cell tumours, also known as pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours, are part of MEN 1 and can cause hypoglycaemia if they arise from insulin-producing cells. These tumours can be benign or malignant, with the majority being benign. MEN syndromes are rare and characterised by adenomas and adenocarcinomas, with specific pathologies varying depending on the type of MEN syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old obese woman, with a history of type II diabetes mellitus, complains of weight gain during the past 3 years, despite her adherence to a balanced diet. She has diffuse skeletal pain. She is not married and does not have a sexual partner. Her family history is unremarkable. Her blood pressure is 160/105 mmHg. Her face is plethoric and round and she has hypertrichosis of the upper lip (hirsutism). There are purple striae on the abdomen and thigh, and mild wasting of the upper and lower limb muscles. Her full blood count shows a slight increase in the polymorphonuclear leukocyte count, without a left shift. Her haemoglobin is 180 (115–155 g/l).
Which of the following changes in serum calcium, phosphate and parathyroid hormone concentrations would you expect to find in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium - decreased; phosphate - decreased; parathyroid hormone - increased
Explanation:Interpreting Calcium, Phosphate, and Parathyroid Hormone Levels in a Patient with Prolonged Hypercortisolism
A patient presents with diffuse bone pain and laboratory results show decreased calcium and phosphate levels, along with increased parathyroid hormone levels. This is indicative of secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is a common complication of hypercortisolism. Elevated serum cortisol levels can lead to hypocalcaemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism, causing increased osteoclast activity and osteoblast dysfunction, ultimately resulting in osteoporosis and pathological fractures.
If the patient had increased phosphate levels instead of decreased levels, it would suggest renal impairment. If the patient had increased calcium levels and decreased phosphate levels, it would suggest primary hyperparathyroidism. If the patient had decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate levels, it would suggest hypoparathyroidism. If all levels were normal, it may be too early in the course of hypercortisolism to see changes in these markers.
In summary, interpreting calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone levels can provide valuable information in diagnosing and managing complications of hypercortisolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 48-year old teacher is found to have a raised fasting glucose and abnormal cholesterol results following routine blood testing as a part of her NHS health check. She is noted to have a BMI of 32. She is also hypertensive. The reviewing physician suspects that the patient has metabolic syndrome.
Which of the following statements is true about the metabolic syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients usually have high circulating insulin levels
Explanation:Understanding Metabolic Syndrome and its Associated Features
Metabolic syndrome is a condition characterized by three or more of the following: increased waist circumference, BMI >30 kg/m2, raised triglycerides, reduced HDL cholesterol, hypertension, and raised fasting glucose. It typically occurs in individuals with central obesity and insulin resistance, leading to elevated circulating insulin and C-peptide levels. However, significant weight loss can reverse insulin resistance and resolve the features of metabolic syndrome.
Contrary to what one might expect, high serum HDL is typical in metabolic syndrome, while low serum HDL is a diagnostic criteria. Additionally, metabolic syndrome is a key risk factor for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which is fairly common in these patients. Hyperuricaemia is also common in metabolic syndrome, rather than hypouricaemia.
Finally, while metabolic syndrome incidence does increase with age, it does not necessarily peak in the fifth decade of life. Understanding these features can aid in the diagnosis and management of metabolic syndrome and its associated conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a 10 year history of hypertension and diabetes has been on a medication regimen for the past two years. He takes metformin 1 g bd, gliclazide 80 mg bd, rosuvastatin 10 mg daily, ramipril 10 mg daily, aspirin 75 mg daily, and amlodipine 10 mg daily. During his annual review, his blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg, and he has background diabetic retinopathy. His foot pulses are normal, but he has peripheral sensory loss to the ankles in both feet. His lab results show HbA1c of 55 mmol/mol (20-46), urea of 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine of 176 µmol/L (60-110), and cholesterol of 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2). Which medication should be discontinued?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Metformin Use in Patients with Chronic Renal Impairment
Patients with chronic renal impairment may have elevated levels of creatinine and urea, which can affect the clearance of drugs like metformin. Current guidelines recommend discontinuing metformin if creatinine levels exceed 150 µmol/L to prevent life-threatening lactic acidosis. This complication was traditionally thought to be caused by an accumulation of the drug, but recent studies suggest that tissue hypoxia and other acute or chronic conditions may also play a role.
Metformin is excreted unchanged in the urine, and its half-life is prolonged in patients with decreased creatinine clearance. This can occur chronically in patients with chronic renal impairment or acutely with dehydration, shock, or intravascular administration of iodinated contrast agents. These factors can alter renal function and increase the risk of lactic acidosis.
While some conditions may act as triggers for lactic acidosis, such as sepsis, acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, cardiac failure, and chronic liver disease, it is unlikely that the patient in this case has renal artery stenosis requiring the withdrawal of the ACEi. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients with chronic renal impairment who are taking metformin and adjust their dosage or discontinue the drug if necessary to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing sweating, agitation, palpitations, and restlessness for the past three days. She gave birth to a healthy baby through vaginal delivery at 39 weeks gestation two months ago. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. The following investigations were conducted:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe propranolol
Explanation:The appropriate management for the thyrotoxicosis phase of postpartum thyroiditis is prescribing propranolol for symptomatic relief. This patient’s presentation of hyperthyroidism 2 months postpartum suggests postpartum thyroiditis, which is typically self-resolving. Propranolol is the most suitable option for managing the symptoms of this condition. Prescribing NSAIDs and monitoring would be more appropriate for subacute (de Quervain’s) thyroiditis, which is not the case here. Prescribing carbimazole or levothyroxine would not be necessary or appropriate for this patient’s condition.
Understanding Postpartum Thyroiditis: Stages and Management
Postpartum thyroiditis is a condition that affects some women after giving birth. It is characterized by three stages: thyrotoxicosis, hypothyroidism, and normal thyroid function. During the thyrotoxicosis phase, the thyroid gland becomes overactive, leading to symptoms such as anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. In the hypothyroidism phase, the thyroid gland becomes underactive, causing symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. However, in the final stage, the thyroid gland returns to normal function, although there is a high recurrence rate in future pregnancies.
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies are found in 90% of patients with postpartum thyroiditis, which suggests an autoimmune component to the condition. Management of postpartum thyroiditis depends on the stage of the condition. During the thyrotoxic phase, symptom control is the main focus, and propranolol is typically used. Antithyroid drugs are not usually used as the thyroid gland is not overactive. In the hypothyroid phase, treatment with thyroxine is usually necessary to restore normal thyroid function.
It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Therefore, it is crucial to properly diagnose and manage postpartum thyroiditis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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What are the symptoms of Addison's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition that occurs when the adrenal cortex is destroyed, leading to a deficiency in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid. These hormones are essential for various bodily functions, including glucose production from amino acids. The symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, fatigue, muscle weakness, dizziness, fainting, non-specific abdominal pain, and gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea and vomiting. Signs of the condition include postural hypotension and hyperpigmentation.
Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. In the United Kingdom, the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, which may be associated with other autoimmune diseases such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease. Worldwide, tuberculosis is the leading cause of primary adrenal insufficiency. Other rare causes of the condition include congenital adrenal hyperplasia, HIV infection, infiltrating metastases, and haemochromatosis involving the adrenal glands.
In summary, Addison’s disease is a condition that results from the destruction of the adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in essential hormones. The symptoms and signs of the condition can be varied, and the biochemical features include hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. While autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex is the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in the United Kingdom, tuberculosis is the leading cause worldwide. Other rare causes of the condition include congenital adrenal hyperplasia, HIV infection, infiltrating metastases, and haemochromatosis involving the adrenal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease and thyrotoxicosis. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are found to be 7.3 μU/l (normal range: 0.17–3.2 μU/l). A full blood count is performed and reveals the following: haemoglobin (Hb) is low, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is high, platelet count is normal, white cell count (WCC) is normal.
What is the most likely cause of her anaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of macrocytic anaemia in a patient with a history of Graves’ disease
This patient presents with a macrocytic anaemia, which can have various causes. Given her history of Graves’ disease and autoimmune hyperthyroidism, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause, despite the usual association of hyperthyroidism with a suppressed TSH. Pernicious anaemia, another autoimmune disease that can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, should also be considered. However, in this case, the high TSH makes hypothyroidism more likely. Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency can also cause macrocytic anaemia, but the patient’s history and laboratory findings suggest hypothyroidism as the primary diagnosis. Haemolysis is not a likely cause in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is instructed to collect his urine for 24 hours. What level of urine albumin concentration indicates the presence of microalbuminuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50 mg/day
Explanation:Microalbuminuria and Proteinuria
Microalbuminuria is a condition where the urine albumin excretion ranges from 30-300 mg per 24 hours. If the concentration exceeds 300 mg/24 hours, it signifies albuminuria, and if it exceeds 3.5 g/24 hours, it signifies overt proteinuria. Microalbuminuria is not only an early indicator of renal involvement but also a sign of increased cardiovascular risk, with a twofold risk above the already increased risk in diabetic patients. The albumin:creatinine ratio is a useful surrogate of the total albumin excretion, and it is measured using the first morning urine sample where possible. An albumin:creatinine ratio of ≥2.5 mg/mmol (men) or 3.5 mg/mmol (women) indicates microalbuminuria, while a ratio of ≥30 mg/mmol indicates proteinuria. these conditions is crucial in managing and preventing complications associated with renal and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents to the general practitioner (GP) with worries about his facial appearance, which he believes has changed significantly over the past five years. He also reports that his shoes no longer fit properly, and that his hands seem larger. The GP suspects that he may be suffering from acromegaly, and the patient is referred to the Endocrinology Department for further evaluation and treatment.
Regarding acromegaly, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of colon cancer
Explanation:Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Causes, and Risks
Acromegaly is a rare hormonal disorder that results from excess growth hormone (GH) in adulthood. This condition is typically caused by a pituitary tumour, which secretes GH and insulin growth factor 1 (IGF-1), leading to increased cellular growth and turnover. Unfortunately, this increased cellular activity also increases the risk of colon cancer.
While an enlarged upper jaw is often associated with acromegaly, it is actually the lower jaw that is more commonly affected, resulting in the classic underbite seen in these patients. Additionally, untreated acromegaly can lead to osteoarthritis, which is associated with excessive cartilage and connective tissue growth, but not autoimmune destruction of the joint.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of acromegaly, such as enlarged hands and feet, thickened skin, and deepening of the voice, as early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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You review a 56-year-old man who has type II diabetes. He is taking metformin 2 g per day and his HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol. You consider adding sitagliptin to his regime.
Which of the following fits best with the mode of action of sitagliptin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is an inhibitor of DPP-IV
Explanation:Different Mechanisms of Action for Diabetes Medications
Sitagliptin is a medication that inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPP-IV), an enzyme responsible for breaking down glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1). By inhibiting DPP-IV, sitagliptin promotes an increase in GLP-1 levels, which leads to a decrease in glucagon release and lower blood glucose levels.
On the other hand, an increase in DPP-IV activity would promote glucagon release and inhibit insulin secretion, worsening hyperglycemia. This is why sitagliptin inhibition of DPP-IV is beneficial for managing diabetes.
Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione medication, is a PPAR-gamma agonist. This means that it activates peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), a protein that regulates glucose and lipid metabolism. By activating PPAR-gamma, pioglitazone increases insulin sensitivity and decreases insulin resistance, leading to lower blood glucose levels.
Glucokinase activators are a type of medication that is currently undergoing trials for the management of type II diabetes. These medications activate glucokinase, an enzyme that plays a crucial role in glucose metabolism. By activating glucokinase, these medications increase glucose uptake and utilization, leading to lower blood glucose levels.
In summary, different diabetes medications work through different mechanisms of action to manage blood glucose levels. Sitagliptin inhibits DPP-IV to increase GLP-1 levels, pioglitazone activates PPAR-gamma to increase insulin sensitivity, and glucokinase activators activate glucokinase to increase glucose uptake and utilization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy with an 8-year history of type I diabetes presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a 24-hour history of vomiting. He tested his glucose and ketones at home and they were both high, glucose 30 mmol/L, ketones 3 mmol/L, so he attended the ED. He admits to omitting his insulin frequently. He appears dehydrated, has ketotic fetor, BP 112/76 mmHg, pulse 108 beats per minute, temp 37 degrees, oxygen saturations 98% on room air. Clinical examination is otherwise normal. The following are his laboratory investigations:
Test Result Normal range
pH 7.2 7.35–7.45
Ketones 3 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
Glucose 28 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 11 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Base excess -5 mEq/l −2 to +2 mEq/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 3 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is required to make a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Diagnostic Criteria and Metabolic Imbalance
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes that results from a complex metabolic imbalance. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include hyperglycaemia (glucose >11 mmol/l), ketosis (>3 mmol/l), and acidemia (pH <7.3, bicarbonate <15 mmol/l). DKA is caused by insulin deficiency and an increase in counterregulatory hormones, which lead to enhanced hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, severe hyperglycaemia, and enhanced lipolysis. The resulting accumulation of ketone bodies, including 3-beta hydroxybutyrate, leads to metabolic acidosis. Fluid depletion, electrolyte shifts, and depletion are also common in DKA. While anion gap is not included in the UK diagnostic criteria, it is typically high in DKA (>10). Understanding the diagnostic criteria and metabolic imbalance of DKA is crucial for its prevention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after experiencing sudden hair growth, specifically on her face. She is feeling increasingly self-conscious about it and wants to address the issue. Blood tests were conducted, revealing an elevated testosterone level of 9.8 nmol/l (reference range 0.8-3.1 nmol/l). What is the next course of action in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to Endocrinology as a suspected cancer referral
Explanation:Referral for Suspected Androgen-Secreting Tumour in a Patient with Hirsutism
This patient presents with sudden-onset hair growth and a raised testosterone level, which raises suspicion for an androgen-secreting tumour. An urgent referral for further investigation is necessary to rule out malignancy. While polycystic ovary syndrome can also cause hirsutism, the patient’s testosterone level warrants exclusion of a tumour. Topical eflornithine may provide symptomatic relief, but it is not a substitute for further investigation. Routine referral to endocrinology is not appropriate in this case, as it may delay diagnosis and treatment of a potential malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has been progressively worsening. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly.
What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels
Explanation:Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for investigating pituitary tumors, which are a common cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to assess whether a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not specific to acromegaly and is part of the physical exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of headaches. His blood pressure measures 168/100 mmHg. Routine tests show sodium levels of 142 mmol/l (136–145), potassium levels of 2.8 mmol/l (3.5–5.0), chloride levels of 100 mmol/l (95–105), and normal levels of urea and creatinine. His plasma renin levels are undetectable, and his aldosterone levels are elevated. What is the most probable cause of his hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism
Explanation:Differentiating Primary Hyperaldosteronism from Other Causes of Hypertension
Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is a condition characterized by elevated aldosterone levels leading to low renin levels through negative feedback loops. This is the primary cause of hypertension in this condition. On the other hand, secondary hypertension can be caused by various conditions such as acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, and phaeochromocytoma. However, these conditions are not associated with low renin and elevated aldosterone levels. Renal artery stenosis, on the other hand, causes both high renin and aldosterone levels, leading to secondary hyperaldosteronism. Therefore, differentiating primary hyperaldosteronism from other causes of hypertension is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her susceptibility to osteoporosis. She underwent a hysterectomy and oophorectomy due to uterine fibroids five years ago, which resulted in mild hot flashes that have since subsided. The patient is anxious about the possibility of fractures after her mother broke her hip at the age of 72. She inquires about osteoporosis medications. Her BMI is 17.3 kg/m2, and her T score is <−2.5. She was on Depo-Provera from the age of 39 to 45, during which time she experienced amenorrhea. The physical examination, including breast examination, is normal. What would you suggest to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate
Explanation:Treatment for Osteoporosis in a High-Risk Patient
Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased risk of fractures. This condition is more common in women, especially those with a low body mass index (BMI), a positive family history, and those who have undergone oophorectomy. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for osteoporosis, but she no longer experiences menopausal symptoms.
To diagnose severe osteoporosis, a T score of <−2.5 SD is required, along with one or more fragility fractures. In this patient's case, the most appropriate therapy would be a bisphosphonate. This medication helps to increase bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. It is important to note that bisphosphonates have potential side effects, such as gastrointestinal upset and osteonecrosis of the jaw, but the benefits generally outweigh the risks. In summary, this patient’s high-risk factors for osteoporosis make her a candidate for treatment with a bisphosphonate. It is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of this medication with the patient before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of cold intolerance, constipation, weight gain, hair loss, and irregular periods. Her thyroid function tests reveal low levels of both serum T4 and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Despite administering thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), there is no expected increase in TSH. What is the most probable reason for the patient's hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes and Indicators of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by low levels of thyroid hormones in the body. There are several causes and indicators of hypothyroidism, including secondary hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, tertiary hypothyroidism, and T4 receptor insensitivity.
Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when there is a pituitary defect or a hypothalamic defect, resulting in decreased levels of both serum T4 and serum TSH. A pituitary defect can be indicated by the failure of TSH to increase after injection of TRH.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that leads to primary hypothyroidism, with low serum T4 and increased levels of serum TSH.
Iodine deficiency causes hypothyroidism due to inadequate iodine being available for thyroid hormone production. TSH plasma levels are increased as a result of loss of negative feedback, similar to primary hypothyroidism.
Tertiary hypothyroidism, or a hypothalamic defect, is indicated by a normal to prolonged increase in TSH after injection of TRH.
T4 receptor insensitivity also presents with signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. The negative feedback effects of T4 would also be affected, leading to increased serum TSH and increased serum T4 levels.
Overall, understanding the causes and indicators of hypothyroidism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman, without past medical history, is referred by her General Practitioner to a Lipid Clinic. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 29 kg/m2. She has a background history of sleep apnoea and complains of weight gain, fatigue and constipation.
On examination, you notice that her skin is dry and she has scalp hair loss. Her laboratory results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Total cholesterol 8.2 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Low density-lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol 1.8 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
Triglycerides 1.2 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure thyroid-stimulating hormone and free T4
Explanation:Management of Hypercholesterolemia in a Patient with Suspected Hypothyroidism
To manage hypercholesterolemia in a patient with suspected hypothyroidism, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of hypothyroidism first. Blood tests for thyroid function, specifically thyroid-stimulating hormone and free T4, should be conducted. If hypothyroidism is confirmed, it should be treated accordingly.
Statin therapy, such as atorvastatin, is the first-line pharmacological agent for managing hypercholesterolemia. However, in this case, potential hypothyroidism needs to be treated first before starting statin therapy. If high cholesterol levels persist after treating hypothyroidism, a statin therapy can be started, and fibrate therapy can be added if necessary.
While dietary and lifestyle advice is important, it is unlikely to address the underlying problems in this case. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm and treat hypothyroidism before managing hypercholesterolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:
Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 67 µmol/L (60-110)
What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
Explanation:Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.
Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.
It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.
In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, the patient's body mass index (BMI) is measured at 26 kg/m2, and a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is established.
Regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism
Explanation:Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Myths and Facts
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand DKA:
Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism: Patients with DKA are at an increased risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), especially in the pediatric age group and in patients with type-1 diabetes. Low-molecular-weight heparin is recommended to prevent this risk.
DKA can be treated with oral hypoglycemics: This is a myth. Oral hypoglycemics are ineffective in managing DKA as the underlying cause is an imbalance between insulin and other regulatory hormones.
Respiratory acidosis is typical: Metabolic acidosis occurs in DKA, and patients may develop a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (Kussmaul respiration).
Hypokalemia is common at presentation: There is a risk of developing hypokalemia during admission due to insulin administration, but potassium levels are usually normal or high on admission.
It often occurs in type II diabetes: This is a myth. DKA usually occurs in people with type I diabetes as it is related to low insulin levels, which leads to ketogenesis.
Understanding these facts about DKA can help in its early recognition and prompt management, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman is brought to Accident and Emergency after being found near-unconscious by her daughter. Her daughter indicates that she has a long-term joint disorder that has been controlled with oral medication and uses steroids excessively. She has recently been suffering from depression and has had poor compliance with medications. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile.
Basic blood investigations reveal:
Investigation Patient Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Glucose 2.7 mmol/l <11.1 mmol/l (random)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions
Addisonian crisis is a condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, often due to autoimmune disease or other factors such as tuberculosis or adrenal haemorrhage. Symptoms are vague and insidious, including weight loss, depression, anorexia, and gastrointestinal upset. Diagnosis is made through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment involves oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid. Any stressful activity should lead to an increase in steroid dosage.
Other conditions, such as insulin overdose, salicylate overdose, meningococcal septicaemia, and paracetamol overdose, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out based on the clinical information given. Insulin overdose can cause low glucose levels due to loss of the anti-insulin effect of cortisol. Salicylate overdose can cause a range of symptoms, but the ones described here are not suggestive of this condition. Meningococcal septicaemia may present with hypotension and tachycardia, but the remaining features do not fit this diagnosis. Paracetamol overdose typically presents with liver toxicity symptoms, which are not described in the given information. Therefore, the specific symptoms described are indicative of an Addisonian crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient visits the Endocrinology Clinic with a complaint of worsening headache and bitemporal hemianopia for the past three weeks. The patient has a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndrome type 1. The endocrinologist considers the possibility of MEN 1 and orders the appropriate investigations to arrive at a differential diagnosis. According to the definition, which three types of tumors must be present for a diagnosis of MEN 1, with at least two of them being present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma, pancreatic islet cells, parathyroid
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) Syndromes
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) syndromes are a group of inherited disorders that cause tumors to develop in the endocrine glands. MEN type 1 is characterized by the occurrence of tumors in any two of the parathyroids, anterior pituitary, and pancreatic islet cells. A pituitary adenoma is a common manifestation of MEN type 1, which can cause bitemporal hemianopia.
To remember the features of MEN type 1, think of the letter P: Pituitary adenoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia, and Pancreatic islet cell tumors. On the other hand, MEN type 2 involves medullary thyroid carcinoma with either phaeochromocytoma or parathyroid tumor.
It is essential to recognize the different MEN syndromes to facilitate early diagnosis and management. Regular screening and genetic counseling are recommended for individuals with a family history of MEN syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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What is the accurate description of growth hormone (GH) and its role in normal growth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It stimulates cartilage and bone growth via somatomedin C
Explanation:Functions and Characteristics of Growth Hormone
Growth hormone (GH) plays a crucial role in stimulating cartilage and bone growth through the production of somatomedin C, also known as insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). While GH has direct effects throughout the body, its receptors have a limited distribution outside the central nervous system (CNS). GH is secreted in a pulsatile manner, with its concentration peaking during sleep. The synthesis of GH is stimulated by the action of somatostatin, which inhibits its release and is sometimes referred to as ‘growth hormone-inhibiting hormone’. In addition to its other actions, GH has a proinsulin-like effect, which is in contrast to its anti-insulin-like effects, such as promoting gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable vitamin D supplement for a patient with liver and kidney failure, considering the need for enzymatic conversion of naturally occurring analogues?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcitriol (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)
Explanation:Vitamin D Activation
Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health and immune function. However, not all forms of vitamin D are active and readily available for use by the body.
Alphacalcidol, a partly activated form of vitamin D, is not the correct answer as it still requires further hydroxylation by the liver. Similarly, cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) and ergocalciferol (vitamin D2) are naturally occurring analogues that require activation by both the liver and kidneys.
The correct answer is calcitriol (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol), an active form of vitamin D that has undergone the necessary hydroxylation by both the kidneys and liver.
It is important to understand the different forms of vitamin D and their activation processes in order to ensure adequate intake and absorption for optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the Endocrinology Clinic complaining of bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism. During the examination, the patient seems lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg and blood tests show Na+ 136 mmol/l, K+ 2.8 mmol/l and random glucose 8.2 mmol/l. The doctor orders a low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test. What is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iatrogenic
Explanation:Causes of Cushing Syndrome: Understanding the Different Types
Cushing Syndrome is a rare condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. Cortisol is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate metabolism and stress response. There are several different causes of Cushing Syndrome, including:
1. Iatrogenic: This is the most common cause of Cushing Syndrome and is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. People who take oral corticosteroids are at a higher risk, but the condition can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.
2. Ectopic ACTH secretion: This is a very rare cause of Cushing Syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumor.
3. Primary adrenal disorder: This is primary hypercortisolism, which is an unusual cause for Cushing Syndrome.
4. Pituitary-dependent: This is Cushing’s disease, which is much rarer than Cushing Syndrome, arising from a pituitary tumor.
5. Pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome: This describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing Syndrome.
Understanding the different types of Cushing Syndrome can help with diagnosis and treatment. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a weekend trip to visit some friends at another university. She forgot to pack her insulin.
When she returned, she went to visit her General Practitioner (GP).
What would analysis of her blood results most likely reveal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unchanged HbA1c
Explanation:Effects of Insulin Absence in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Patients
Insulin-dependent diabetes patients rely on insulin to regulate their blood glucose levels. Without insulin, several physiological changes occur in the body. The HbA1c levels, which reflect the average blood glucose levels over several weeks, would not change significantly over a few days without insulin. However, missing insulin doses for a weekend can put the patient at risk of developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening condition. In the absence of insulin, the body cannot utilise glucose, leading to hyperglycaemia and the generation of ketones as an alternative energy source. The raised glucagon levels in response to the absence of insulin would raise glucose levels in the bloodstream, but target organs would still not be able to utilise this resource. Triglyceride hydrolysis and increased release from adipose tissue would give raised fatty acid levels, which are utilised to synthesise ketones. Overall, the absence of insulin in insulin-dependent diabetes patients can have significant effects on their metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist with complaints of recent mood swings and increased irritability towards his spouse. He reports experiencing diarrhea, a significant increase in appetite, weight gain, and difficulty standing up from a seated position. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heartbeat is noted.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Hyperthyroidism, Phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s Syndrome and Cushing’s Disease, and Schizoaffective Disorder
Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Symptoms include weight loss, increased appetite, heat intolerance, palpitations, and irritability. Signs include a fast heart rate, tremors, and thin hair. Graves’ disease, a type of hyperthyroidism, may also cause eye problems. Diagnosis is made through blood tests that show elevated thyroid hormones and low thyroid-stimulating hormone levels. Treatment options include medications like beta-blockers and carbimazole, radioiodine therapy, or surgery.
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumor that causes excessive production of adrenaline and noradrenaline. Symptoms include high blood pressure, palpitations, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment involves surgical removal of the tumor.
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by high levels of cortisol in the body. Symptoms include weight gain, mood changes, fatigue, and easy bruising. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment options include surgery, radiation therapy, and medications.
Cushing’s disease is a type of Cushing’s syndrome caused by a pituitary tumor that produces too much adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Symptoms are similar to those of Cushing’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment options include surgery, radiation therapy, and medications.
Schizoaffective disorder is a mental illness that combines symptoms of schizophrenia and mood disorders like depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and mood swings. Treatment involves a combination of medications and therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old HIV-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness and is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis. During examination, he exhibits hypotension and hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further testing reveals a diagnosis of Addison's disease. What is the most common biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased potassium
Explanation:Biochemical Findings in Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition characterized by primary adrenocortical insufficiency, which is caused by the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. The most prominent biochemical findings in patients with Addison’s disease are hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and mild non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. This article discusses the various biochemical changes that occur in Addison’s disease, including increased potassium, increased glucose, increased bicarbonate, increased sodium, and reduced urea. These changes are a result of the loss of gland function, which leads to reduced glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The sodium-retaining and potassium and hydrogen ion-secreting action of aldosterone is particularly affected, resulting in the biochemical changes noted above. The article also highlights the most common causes of Addison’s disease, including tuberculosis, autoimmune disease, and removal of exogenous steroid therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the labour ward in active labour. She is experiencing regular contractions, sweating heavily, and in significant pain.
What hormone is responsible for her contractions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxytocin
Explanation:Hormones Involved in Labour: Understanding Their Functions
During labour, various hormones are released in the body to facilitate the birthing process. One of the main hormones involved is oxytocin, which is released from the posterior pituitary. Oxytocin stimulates the uterine muscles to contract, and its positive feedback loop further increases contractions by stimulating prostaglandin production and releasing more oxytocin.
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is another hormone released from the posterior pituitary, but it regulates water homeostasis in the kidneys and is not involved in causing contractions during labour. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary stimulates the thyroid’s production of T4 to T3, but it does not cause sweating or contractions during labour.
Prolactin, also released from the anterior pituitary, enables milk production, but it is not involved in active labour. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus acts on the anterior pituitary to release luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which are essential for reproduction but not involved in causing contractions during labour.
Understanding the functions of these hormones can help in managing labour and ensuring a safe delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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Which test can be used to distinguish between insulinoma and exogenous insulin administration in a patient experiencing hypoglycaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma C peptide
Explanation:The Role of C Peptide in Distinguishing Between Exogenous and Endogenous Insulin
Plasma C peptide levels are useful in differentiating between the presence of exogenous insulin and excess endogenous insulin during hypoglycemia. If there is an excess of exogenous insulin, the C peptide level will be suppressed, but the insulin level will still be detectable or elevated. However, it is important to note that not all clinical laboratory assays can detect the new insulin analogues.
C peptide also has other uses, such as checking for pancreatic insulin reserve. This information can help distinguish between type 1 diabetes, which is caused by autoimmune destruction of the pancreas, and type 2 diabetes, which is caused by insulin resistance or relative insulin insufficiency.
Proinsulin is the storage form of insulin, and only a small amount enters systemic circulation. It is cleaved into insulin and a connecting (C) peptide, which are secreted in equal amounts. However, there is more measurable C peptide in circulation due to its longer half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior medical history has been unremarkable and his immunisations are up-to-date. The mother is concerned about his growth. After you determine that the baby has grown appropriately since the last visit and is unchanged from the 50th centile, you provide the mother with advice regarding growth.
What signalling pathway does growth hormone (GH) use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A tyrosine kinase receptor that uses the JAK/STAT pathway
Explanation:Comparison of Second Messenger Systems and Receptor Types in Hormonal Signaling
Hormones utilize various signaling pathways to transmit their messages to target cells. One important aspect of hormonal signaling is the use of second messengers, which relay the hormone signal from the cell surface to the intracellular environment. Here, we compare and contrast the second messenger systems and receptor types used by different hormones.
Growth hormone (GH) and prolactin both use the tyrosine kinase receptor, followed by activation of Janus kinase (JAK), signal transduction, and activation of transcription (STAT). In contrast, platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), fibroblast growth factor (FGF), insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and insulin use the MAP kinase or RAS system. Aldosterone uses steroid receptors, while GH uses the tyrosine kinase receptor.
Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) works as a second messenger for hypothalamic hormones such as gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), and pituitary hormones such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.
Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) is a second messenger that activates protein kinases and mediates endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), and nitric oxide.
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a second messenger of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and several other hormones, but not GH.
In summary, different hormones use distinct second messenger systems and receptor types to transmit their signals, highlighting the complexity and diversity of hormonal signaling pathways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who has three children presents to the general practice clinic with complaints of feeling tired and overwhelmed. She had previously been prescribed citalopram for about 6 months after the birth of her first child. Her medical history includes the use of depo progesterone for contraception, which she believes is hindering her ability to lose weight. On examination, her BMI is 29 and her blood pressure is 142/72 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a slightly elevated TSH level of 4.5 µU/l. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Thyroid Function and Sub-Clinical Hypothyroidism
Thyroid function can be assessed through the levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 in the blood. Subclinical hypothyroidism is diagnosed when TSH is mildly elevated, while free T4 remains within the normal range. This indicates that the thyroid is working hard to produce even this amount of T4. Treatment with thyroxine replacement is debated and usually reserved for patients with symptoms and thyroid autoantibodies.
Hypothyroidism is diagnosed when free T4 levels fall below the minimum range, while thyrotoxicosis is ruled out when free T4 is not raised and there are no symptoms. Depression may be a plausible diagnosis, but an elevated TSH level suggests otherwise. Sick euthyroid syndrome may occur in critically ill patients and involves abnormal levels of free T4 and T3 despite seemingly normal thyroid function.
Overall, understanding thyroid function and sub-clinical hypothyroidism can help guide appropriate diagnosis and treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man, who has recently started his second year of university, is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends early on a Friday evening. His friends report he has vomited several times and that he appears confused and ‘not himself’. Upon examination, the patient appears disorientated and unwell. His temperature is 37.2 °C, heart rate 118 bpm and regular, blood pressure 106/68 mmHg. He has dry mucous membranes and his breath smells like nail polish remover. The chest is normal on auscultation, and his abdomen is soft and appears to be non-tender. Capillary blood glucose is 26 mmol/l, and urine dip is strongly positive for glucose and ketones.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) results are given below:
Investigation Result Normal range
pH 6.9 7.35–7.45
paCO2 3.4 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
paO2 12.5 kPa 10.0–14.0 kPa
HCO3 8.3 mEq/l 22–28 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluids and fixed-rate insulin infusion
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires urgent treatment. The management of DKA involves IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities, and a fixed-rate insulin infusion to reduce blood ketone and glucose levels. The aim is to normalise blood glucose levels and clear blood ketones. Once the blood glucose level falls below 12 mmol/l, IV fluids should be switched from normal saline to 5% dextrose to avoid inducing hypoglycaemia.
It is important to identify the precipitating cause of DKA, which could be infection, surgery, medication, or non-compliance with insulin therapy. A toxicology screen is not indicated unless there is a suspicion of drug overdose.
Oral rehydration is insufficient for managing DKA, and IV fluids are critical for correcting dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities. A variable-rate insulin infusion is not recommended as the focus of insulin therapy in DKA is to correct blood ketone levels.
Confusion in DKA is likely related to dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities, and urgent CT brain is not indicated unless there is a suspicion of head injury. Overall, prompt recognition and management of DKA is essential to prevent life-threatening complications.
Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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Through which of the following molecules is the hypercalcaemia of malignancy most commonly mediated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone related protein
Explanation:The Role of Parathyroid Hormone-Related Protein in Hypercalcaemia
Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) is a group of protein hormones that are produced by various tissues in the body. Its discovery was made when it was found to be secreted by certain tumors, causing hypercalcaemia in affected patients. Further studies revealed that the uncontrolled secretion of PTHrP by many tumor cells leads to hypercalcaemia by promoting the resorption of calcium from bones and inhibiting calcium loss in urine, similar to the effects of hyperparathyroidism.
Overall, PTHrP plays a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body, and its overproduction can lead to serious health complications. the mechanisms behind PTHrP secretion and its effects on the body can aid in the development of treatments for hypercalcaemia and related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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An investigator intended to test the antiglycaemic action of a new drug, which acts by increasing the peripheral uptake of glucose and reduces postprandial glucose level. He noted that in the elderly control group, subjects receiving an oral glucose load have higher postprandial insulin concentrations and more rapid glucose clearance, compared to subjects receiving isoglycaemic intravenous glucose infusion.
Which of the following is the most likely mediator of this effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Hormones and their Functions
The gastrointestinal tract secretes various hormones that play important roles in digestion and metabolism. One such hormone is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is an incretin hormone that enhances insulin secretion in response to oral glucose intake. On the other hand, cholecystokinin induces gallbladder contraction and bile release, while secretin increases pancreatic and biliary bicarbonate secretion and reduces gastric acid secretion. Gastrin, on the other hand, stimulates gastric acid secretion. Lastly, somatostatin inhibits the secretion of gastric acid and other gastrointestinal hormones. Understanding the functions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man visits his primary care physician for his annual check-up, reporting constant fatigue and thirst. He has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and obesity. The doctor orders a screening for type II diabetes and the results are as follows:
Test Result Normal Range
HbA1C 48 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
Fasting plasma glucose 7.2 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 90 ml/min > 90 ml/min
Which of the following is included in the diagnostic criteria for type II diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose ≥7.0 mmol/l
Explanation:To diagnose diabetes, several criteria must be met. One way is to measure fasting plasma glucose levels, which should be at least 7.0 mmol/l after an eight-hour fast. Another method is to test for HbA1C levels, which should be at least 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) using a certified and standardized method. A 2-hour plasma glucose test after a 75 g glucose load should result in levels of at least 11.1 mmol/l. If a patient exhibits classic symptoms of diabetes or hyperglycemic crisis, a random plasma glucose test should show levels of at least 11.1 mmol/l. All results should be confirmed by repeat testing. It’s important to note that 1-hour plasma glucose levels are not used in the diagnostic criteria for type II diabetes, but are part of screening tests for gestational diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient is found to have an HbA1c of 43 mmol/mol at a recent chronic disease health check after being assessed as being at high risk of diabetes mellitus. The patient is being called in to discuss the result with her registered general practitioner. How should the patient’s diagnosis be coded in her notes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-diabetes
Explanation:Understanding Blood Sugar Levels and Diabetes Diagnosis
Blood sugar levels are an important indicator of a person’s risk for developing diabetes. Pre-diabetes is a term used to describe individuals with elevated blood sugar levels that do not yet qualify as diabetes. A diagnosis of pre-diabetes indicates a high risk of developing diabetes and warrants intervention to identify modifiable risk factors and reduce the risk through lifestyle changes.
Normoglycaemic individuals have blood sugar levels within the normal range of 3.9-5.5 mmol/l. Diabetes mellitus type 2 is diagnosed when HbA1c is 48 mmol/mol or higher, or fasting glucose is 7.1 mmol/l or higher. A positive result on one occasion is enough for diagnosis if the patient presents with symptoms of diabetes, but two separate confirmatory tests are required for asymptomatic patients.
Impaired fasting glucose is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l, while impaired glucose tolerance is defined as a serum glucose level of 7.8-11.0 mmol/l at 2 hours post-ingestion of a 75-g oral glucose load. Understanding these levels and their implications can help individuals take proactive steps to manage their blood sugar levels and reduce their risk of developing diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has undergone the following investigations by his General Practitioner (GP).
Plasma:
Investigations Results Normal Value
Total Ca2+ 1.85 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 42 g/l 35–55 g/l
PO43- 1.8 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 160 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 80 ng/l 10–65 ng/l
What is the most probable underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure
Explanation:Understanding Hyperparathyroidism and Related Conditions
Hyperparathyroidism is a condition characterized by high levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the blood, which can lead to imbalances in calcium and phosphate levels. There are several different types of hyperparathyroidism, as well as related conditions that can affect the parathyroid gland and its function.
Chronic renal failure is one such condition, in which impaired 1α-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol leads to reduced calcium and phosphate excretion due to renal impairment. This results in secondary hyperparathyroidism, with elevated PTH levels in response to low plasma ionized calcium. Alkaline phosphatase is also elevated due to renal osteodystrophy.
As chronic renal failure progresses, the parathyroid glands may become hyperplastic or adenomatous, leading to tertiary hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, PTH secretion is substantially increased, causing elevated calcium levels that are not limited by feedback control.
Malignant hyperparathyroidism is another condition that can mimic hyperparathyroidism, but is caused by the production of PTH-related protein (PTHrP) by cancer cells. In this case, PTH levels are low, but calcium levels are high and phosphate levels are low.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by high PTH levels, leading to high calcium and low phosphate levels. Primary hypoparathyroidism, on the other hand, is caused by gland failure and results in low PTH production, leading to low calcium and high phosphate levels. Secondary hypoparathyroidism occurs when PTH production is suppressed by hypercalcemia, but this is not the correct answer in a patient with low calcium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy
Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.
The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old waitress presents with a 2-day history of increasing confusion. She has no significant medical history, takes only oral contraceptives, and denies any substance use. Blood and urine tests suggest a possible diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following statements regarding SIADH secretion is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may occur in subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:Understanding SIADH: Causes and Treatment Options
SIADH, or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is a condition characterized by excessive production of ADH, leading to hyponatraemia. While it can occur in various medical conditions, subarachnoid haemorrhage is a known cause of SIADH. In such cases, monitoring sodium levels is crucial. The treatment of choice for SIADH is fluid restriction, but in severe cases, hypertonic saline may be used. Demeclocycline, a tetracycline, is sometimes used to treat hyponatraemia in SIADH. It’s important to note that small cell lung cancer, not adenocarcinoma of the lung, is a well-known cause of SIADH through ectopic ADH secretion. Understanding the causes and treatment options for SIADH is essential for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient is undergoing treatment with recombinant human growth hormone (GH). What is a known side effect of GH therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure
Explanation:Side Effects of Recombinant Human Growth Hormone Treatment
Recombinant human growth hormone (hGH) treatment is associated with several side effects. One of the most common side effects is raised intracranial pressure (ICP) with a normal MRI, which is a secondary form of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH). This is believed to be caused by the antidiuretic effect of hGH, particularly in patients with impaired renal homeostasis. However, in patients with intact homeostatic mechanisms, hGH can elevate plasma renin and aldosterone, which counteracts the antidiuretic effect. If IIH is diagnosed, hGH treatment should be stopped and resumed at a lower dose if IIH resolves.
Aside from IIH, other recognized side effects of hGH include slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), malignancies, gynaecomastia, and impaired glucose metabolism. However, melanoma, osteoporosis, prostatic hypertrophy, and prolongation of the QT interval are not commonly recognized side effects of hGH treatment. It is important to monitor patients closely for these side effects and adjust treatment accordingly to minimize any potential harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of headaches and tiredness during exercise for the past three weeks. He is a smoker of five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol each week. There is no significant family history. On examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, and his blood pressure is 182/102 mmHg. However, there are no abnormalities on examination of heart, chest, or abdomen. The investigations reveal a sodium level of 144 mmol/L (137-144), haemoglobin level of 155 g/L (130-180), potassium level of 2.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), white cell count of 8.2 ×109/L (4-11), urea level of 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), platelet count of 188 ×109/L (150-400), creatinine level of 90 µmol/L (60-110), and glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). The ECG shows tall R waves in leads V5-6 and deep S waves in leads V1-2. The chest x-ray is reported as normal. What possible diagnosis would you consider for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome
Explanation:Hypertension and Hypokalaemia: Possible Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism
This patient is showing signs of hypertension, as indicated by the left ventricular hypertrophy on their ECG. Additionally, their hypertension is accompanied by hypokalaemia, which may suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome. This condition is caused by excessive production of aldosterone from either an adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, resulting in salt and water retention, hypertension, and potassium excretion leading to hypokalaemia. In some cases, primary hyperaldosteronism has been detected in up to 5% of patients in hypertension clinics. It is important to investigate potential secondary causes for hypertension, particularly in young or difficult-to-control hypertensive patients. Renal artery stenosis is unlikely to cause such severe hypokalaemia, and one would expect a mildly elevated creatinine if it were severe enough to cause hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of secondary amenorrhoea and suspects she may be pregnant. Which of the following sets of results is indicative of early pregnancy?
A
FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 0.5
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 1.1
Oestrogen (pmol/L): 26
Progesterone (pmol/L): <5
B
FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 0.5
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 1.2
Oestrogen (pmol/L): 120
Progesterone (pmol/L): 18
C
FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 68
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 51
Oestrogen (pmol/L): 42
Progesterone (pmol/L): <5
D
FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 1.0
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 0.8
Oestrogen (pmol/L): 120
Progesterone (pmol/L): 160
E
FSH (follicular phase 2.9-8.4 U/L): 8.0
LH (follicular phase 1.3-8.4 U/L): 7.2
Oestrogen (pmol/L): 144
Progesterone (pmol/L): <5Your Answer:
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:Blood Test Ranges in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, blood tests may have different ranges due to the dilutional effect caused by the increased circulating volume, which can peak at almost 4L. This can result in lower levels of sodium, potassium, albumin, gamma globulins, hemoglobin, urea, creatinine, and urate. Additionally, pregnancy is associated with raised prolactin, low LH and FSH, and increased levels of estrogen and progesterone, with progesterone typically being greater than estrogen.
Compared to non-pregnant women, pregnant women may have increased white blood cell count and platelets, as well as higher levels of cholesterol, triglycerides, and ESR. Alkaline phosphatase levels may also be increased, as the placenta produces this enzyme. It is important to note that while some changes in blood test results are due to the dilutional effect of pregnancy, others may indicate underlying health issues, such as iron deficiency anemia. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to interpret blood test results in the context of pregnancy and individual patient health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain, and irregular menstrual cycles. The GP conducted some tests and referred her to the hospital. The results of the investigations are as follows:
- Sodium: 150 mmol/l (normal value: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium: 2.5 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Fasting blood glucose: 7.7 mmol/l (normal value: <7 mmol/l)
- 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion: 840 nmol/24 h
- Plasma ACTH (0900 h): 132 ng/l (normal value: 0-50 ng/l)
- Dexamethasone suppression test:
- 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 0.5 mg/6 h orally (po) for two days: 880 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
- 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 2 mg/6 h PO for two days: 875 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 28-year-old woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndrome Secondary to Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung Causing Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome is a clinical state resulting from chronic glucocorticoid excess and lack of normal feedback mechanisms of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis. While Cushing’s disease, paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung, and adrenocortical tumor are specific conditions resulting in Cushing syndrome, this patient’s symptoms are caused by paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.
In some cases of small cell carcinoma of the lung, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production occurs, leading to elevated plasma ACTH and cortisol levels. The mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol results in sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to glucose intolerance and hyperglycemia. The differentiation between Cushing’s disease and ectopic ACTH secretion is made by carrying out low- and high-dose dexamethasone suppression tests. In cases of ectopic ACTH secretion, there is usually no response to dexamethasone, as pituitary ACTH secretion is already maximally suppressed by high plasma cortisol levels.
The absence of response to dexamethasone suggests an ectopic source of ACTH production, rather than Cushing’s disease. Other differential diagnoses for Cushing syndrome include adrenal neoplasia, Conn’s syndrome, and premature menopause. However, in this case, the blood test results suggest ectopic production of ACTH, indicating paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell lung carcinoma as the most likely cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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Which type of tumor is typically linked to a paraneoplastic syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes
Paraneoplastic syndromes are commonly linked to certain types of cancer, such as bronchial carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and renal cell carcinoma. These syndromes are characterized by clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm, but are not directly related to the infiltration of the primary tumor or its metastases. Paraneoplastic syndromes may or may not be caused by hormone secretion.
One example of a paraneoplastic syndrome is Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur in association with small cell bronchial carcinoma due to the secretion of ectopic ACTH. Another example is hypercalcemia, which can occur in the absence of bony metastases and may be caused by the secretion of a PTH-related peptide. Other paraneoplastic syndromes include myopathy and cerebellar ataxia.
In summary, paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of clinical effects that are associated with the presence of a neoplasm but are not directly related to the tumor itself. These syndromes can be caused by hormone secretion or other factors and can occur in a variety of cancer types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly check-up with his GP. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings and no signs of fluid overload. His blood pressure is 126/84 mmHg, and his heart rate is 67 bpm. A urine dipstick test shows only 1+ protein.
The results of his routine blood panel are as follows:
- Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (125-175)
- White cell count: 5.7 ×109/L (4-11)
- Mean cell volume: 82 fL (75-100)
- Platelets: 359 ×109/L (150-400)
- Sodium: 137 mmol/L (135-145)
- Potassium: 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
- Urea: 8.9 mmol/L (2-7)
- Creatinine: 169 μmol/ (75-110)
- Glucose: 6.7 mmol/L (4-7)
- HbA1c: 48 mmol/mol (42-53)
- eGFR: 29 ml/min (>60)
- Lactate: 2.4 mmol/L (0.5-2)
- Venous pH: 7.35 (7.35-7.45)
Currently, the patient is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, bisoprolol 5 mg daily, gliclazide 80 mg twice daily, metformin 1 g twice daily, and ramipril 2.5 mg daily. Based on this information, which medication should be discontinued?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Medications and Renal Impairment
Metformin is a commonly used oral antidiabetic drug that inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, making it a first-line agent in the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, it should be closely monitored in patients with impaired renal function due to the risk of developing lactate acidosis. Current guidelines recommend avoiding metformin in renal impairment if possible, reducing the dose if eGFR is less than 45 ml/min, and discontinuing it if less than 30 ml/min. Gliclazide, another antidiabetic drug, stimulates insulin release and is mostly cleared by the liver, but should be avoided in severe renal impairment and monitored in mild to moderate cases. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor used in hypertension and heart failure, is beneficial in delaying diabetic nephropathy but may require dose adjustments in established renal impairment. Aspirin, commonly used in cardiovascular pathologies, should be avoided in severe renal failure but can be continued in moderate impairment. Bisoprolol, a cardio-specific beta-blocker, is safe to continue in renal impairment, with dose adjustments only needed when eGFR is less than 20 ml/min.
Overall, it is important to closely monitor medication use in patients with renal impairment and adjust doses or discontinue use as necessary to prevent adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone
Explanation:Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome
Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to postural hypotension and reduced cortisol levels, while aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.
An increased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be an unusual result and does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism. Similarly, an increased cortisol level with increased aldosterone may occur in rare cases of adrenal adenoma but does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome.
A decreased cortisol level with decreased aldosterone would be true in primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case in Sheehan’s syndrome. Finally, a decreased cortisol level with increased aldosterone would also be an unusual result as aldosterone levels are not affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.
Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with Sheehan’s syndrome, a decreased cortisol level with normal aldosterone is expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old teacher comes to the clinic with a complaint of secondary amenorrhoea lasting for six months. She reports experiencing white discharge from her breasts. Despite taking a home urine pregnancy test, the result was negative. What is the most useful blood test to aid in the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Prolactinomas: Pituitary Tumours that Affect Hormone Secretion
Prolactinomas are tumours that develop in the pituitary gland and secrete prolactin, a hormone that stimulates milk production in women. These tumours can be either microscopic or macroscopic, with the latter causing mass effects that can lead to headaches, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. In addition to galactorrhoea, prolactinomas can also cause menstrual disturbances, amenorrhoea, and infertility. Some prolactinomas may also co-secrete other pituitary hormones, such as growth hormone, which can further complicate the diagnosis and treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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You encounter a 27-year-old patient who has recently found out that she is pregnant. Her medical history reveals that she was diagnosed with hypothyroidism eight years ago and has been on a stable dose of levothyroxine since then. What is the appropriate course of action regarding her medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The dose of levothyroxine should be increased when pregnancy is diagnosed
Explanation:Managing Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy: Recommendations for Levothyroxine Dosing and Thyroid Function Testing
Hypothyroidism in pregnancy requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for both the mother and fetus. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend increasing the dose of levothyroxine by 25-50 μg and referring the patient to an endocrinologist upon diagnosis of pregnancy. It is important to note that iodine supplements are not recommended for treating hypothyroidism in pregnancy. Adequate thyroid function is crucial for fetal neurological development, so stopping levothyroxine is not an option. Thyroid function tests (TFTs) should be taken at baseline and every four weeks, as changes in drug pharmacodynamics and kinetics can occur during pregnancy. The target thyroid stimulating hormone range should be low-normal at 0.4-2 mU/l, and the dose of levothyroxine should remain unchanged until specialist review.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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The hypothalamus is responsible for producing which hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corticotrophin-releasing hormone
Explanation:Hormones of the Hypothalamus
The hypothalamus produces several hormones that regulate various bodily functions. These hormones include thyrotrophic-releasing hormone (TRH), gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), antidiuretic hormone (also known as vasopressin), dopamine (prolactin-inhibiting hormone), somatostatin (growth hormone-inhibiting hormone), and oxytocin.
CRH is responsible for regulating the release of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary. Oxytocin is produced by the cells in the paraventricular nucleus and secreted from the posterior pituitary. These hormones play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body. By regulating the release of other hormones, they help to control various bodily functions such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction.
In summary, the hormones of the hypothalamus are essential for maintaining the proper functioning of the body. They work together to regulate the release of other hormones and ensure that bodily functions are kept in balance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism
The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At her annual check-up, she reports that she is feeling well. Among the results of her blood tests are the following: serum calcium 2.90 mmol/l (2.1–2.8 mmol/l), serum phosphate 0.80 mmol/l (1.0–1.5 mmol/l) and alkaline phosphatase 215 iu/l (53–128 iu/l).
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of these results in this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for hypercalcaemia with hypophosphataemia and normal alkaline phosphatase
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a common cause of hypercalcaemia, often detected incidentally on routine blood tests. In this condition, the parathyroid glands produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, which increases calcium reabsorption from bones and kidneys and decreases phosphate reabsorption from kidneys. As a result, patients may have elevated serum calcium and low serum phosphate levels, but normal or slightly elevated alkaline phosphatase levels.
Other possible causes of hypercalcaemia with hypophosphataemia and normal alkaline phosphatase include occult malignancy, especially if it involves bone, but this would usually result in a higher alkaline phosphatase level. Paget’s disease of bone, a chronic disorder of bone remodeling, may also cause hypercalcaemia, but it typically presents with a much higher alkaline phosphatase level as a marker of bone destruction.
Thyrotoxicosis, a condition of excess thyroid hormone, can also lead to hypercalcaemia, but this patient has no symptoms suggestive of hyperthyroidism. Phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor of the adrenal gland that secretes catecholamines, may cause hypertension, but it is not typically associated with hypercalcaemia or hypophosphataemia.
Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which may be part of a multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2 syndrome that also involves the thyroid gland and adrenal medulla. Further evaluation, including imaging studies and genetic testing, may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and guide management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of >20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
Which of the following is the patient’s condition due to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation
Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.
While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.
Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall over the curb. She tells you that she is a refugee from Afghanistan. Imaging reveals a fracture of the pubic rami.
What is the most probable reason for this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Common Musculoskeletal Conditions: Osteomalacia, Tuberculosis, Osteoporosis, Osteogenesis Imperfecta, and Osteosarcoma
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs due to vitamin D deficiency or defects in phosphate metabolism, resulting in soft bones. Patients may experience bone and joint pain, muscle weakness, or fractures. Treatment involves vitamin D or calcium supplementation, braces, or surgery.
Tuberculosis can affect the musculoskeletal system, particularly the spine and weightbearing joints. Extrapulmonary tuberculosis can cause a pathological fracture, but osteomalacia is more likely in this case.
Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease that commonly affects patients over 50 years old. It results from an imbalance in bone formation and resorption, leading to osteoporotic fractures from low energy trauma.
Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disease characterized by easily fractured bones, bone deformities, and bowed legs and arms. It is caused by mutations in collagen type 1.
Osteosarcoma is a primary bone tumor that frequently presents in children and young adults. Symptoms include bone pain and tissue swelling or mass, most commonly affecting the knee joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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