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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of central chest pain. After a brief history and physical examination, the emergency medicine physician suspects a myocardial infarction. During the examination, the physician detects a 4th heart sound. What is the underlying reason for a 4th heart sound?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Forceful atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      S4 occurs late in diastole and is caused by the atria contracting forcefully to compensate for a stiff ventricle. It is commonly observed in patients with heart failure. In contrast, S3 occurs earlier in diastole and is caused by rapid blood flow into the ventricle.

      A pericardial effusion can produce a rubbing sound when the pericardium is examined. A systolic murmur may be caused by a ventricular septal defect, while a diastolic murmur may be caused by mitral regurgitation.

      Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An ENT surgeon is performing a radical neck dissection. She wishes to fully...

    Correct

    • An ENT surgeon is performing a radical neck dissection. She wishes to fully expose the external carotid artery. To do so she inserts a self retaining retractor close to its origin. Which one of the following structures lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      At its origin from the common carotid, the internal carotid artery is located at the posterolateral position in relation to the external carotid artery. Its anterior surface gives rise to the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries.

      Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery

      The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.

      To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.

      The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old man undergoes a routine ECG during his employment health check. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man undergoes a routine ECG during his employment health check. The ECG reveals sinus arrhythmia with varying P-P intervals and slight changes in the ventricular rate. The P waves exhibit normal morphology, and the P-R interval remains constant. The patient has a history of asthma and has been using inhalers more frequently due to an increase in running mileage. What is the probable cause of this rhythm, and how would you reassure the patient about the ECG results?

      Your Answer: Sino-atrial node firing has slight variation in fit patients

      Correct Answer: Ventricular rate changes with ventilation

      Explanation:

      Sinus arrhythmia is a natural occurrence that is commonly observed in young and healthy individuals. It is characterized by a fluctuation in heart rate during breathing, with an increase in heart rate during inhalation and a decrease during exhalation. This is due to a decrease in vagal tone during inspiration and an increase during expiration. The P-R interval remains constant, indicating no heart block, while the varying P-P intervals reflect changes in the ventricular heart rate.

      While anxiety may cause tachycardia, it cannot explain the fluctuation in P-P intervals. Similarly, salbutamol may cause a brief increase in heart rate, but this would not result in varying P-P and P-R intervals. In healthy and fit individuals, there should be no variation in the firing of the sino-atrial node.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      209.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 76-year-old male comes for his yearly checkup with the heart failure nurses....

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old male comes for his yearly checkup with the heart failure nurses. What is the leading cause of heart failure?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of heart failure in the western world is ischaemic heart disease, followed by high blood pressure, cardiomyopathies, arrhythmias, and heart valve issues. While COPD can be linked to cor pulmonale, which is a type of right heart failure, it is still not as prevalent as ischaemic heart disease as a cause. This information is based on a population-based study titled Incidence and Aetiology of Heart Failure published in the European Heart Journal in 1999.

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 78-year-old woman has presented with dyspnea. During cardiovascular examination, a faint murmur...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman has presented with dyspnea. During cardiovascular examination, a faint murmur is detected in the mitral area. If the diagnosis is mitral stenosis, what is the most probable factor that would increase the loudness and clarity of the murmur during auscultation?

      Your Answer: Ask the patient to breathe out

      Explanation:

      To accentuate the sound of a left-sided murmur consistent with mitral stenosis during a cardiovascular examination, the patient should be asked to exhale. Conversely, a right-sided murmur is louder during inspiration. Listening in the left lateral position while the patient is lying down can also emphasize a mitral stenosis. To identify a mitral regurgitation murmur, listening in the axilla is helpful as it radiates. Diastolic murmurs can be heard better with a position change, while systolic murmurs tend to radiate and can be distinguished by listening in different anatomical landmarks. For example, an aortic stenosis may radiate to the carotids, while an aortic regurgitation may be heard better with the patient leaning forward.

      Understanding Mitral Stenosis

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.

      Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.

      Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of intense chest pain that he describes as tearing through his body. He is promptly diagnosed with a Stanford Type A aortic dissection and immediately undergoes surgical repair. What embryonic structure is responsible for the region where the dissection occurred?

      Your Answer: Ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The truncus arteriosus is responsible for giving rise to both the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk during embryonic development.

      When a Stanford Type A aortic dissection occurs, it typically affects the ascending aorta, which originates from the truncus arteriosus.

      During fetal development, the ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circuit by shunting it from the pulmonary arteries back into the aortic arch. In adults, the remnant of this structure is known as the ligamentum arteriosum, which serves as an anchor for the aortic arch.

      The bulbus cordis plays a role in the formation of the ventricles, while the common cardinal vein ultimately becomes the superior vena cava.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old woman visited her physician complaining of palpitations. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visited her physician complaining of palpitations. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and ischemic heart disease. Her current medications include Metformin, insulin injections, candesartan, and metoprolol. The doctor reviewed her medical records and decided to prescribe a medication to prevent complications related to the underlying cause of her palpitations. The doctor informed her that she would need to visit the hospital laboratory regularly to have her blood checked due to the medication's risk of bleeding. Which blood clotting factors are affected by this condition?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Factor IX

      Explanation:

      This patient with a medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and diabetes is likely experiencing atrial fibrillation, which increases the risk of stroke due to the formation of blood clots in the left atrium. To minimize this risk, the anticoagulant warfarin is commonly prescribed, but it also increases the risk of bleeding. Regular monitoring of the International Normalized Ratio is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety. Warfarin works by inhibiting Vitamin K epoxide reductase, which affects the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and S. Factor IX is a vitamin K dependent clotting factor and is deficient in Hemophilia B. Factors XI and V are not vitamin K dependent clotting factors, while Factor I is not a clotting factor at all.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man comes in with a lipoma situated at the back of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with a lipoma situated at the back of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, about 4 cm above the middle third of the clavicle. While performing surgery to remove the growth, problematic bleeding is encountered. What is the most probable origin of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Second part of the subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: External jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The superficial fascia of the posterior triangle contains the external jugular vein, which runs diagonally and drains into the subclavian vein. Surgeons must be careful during exploration of this area to avoid injuring the external jugular vein and causing excessive bleeding. The internal jugular vein and carotid arteries are located in the anterior triangle, while the third part of the subclavian artery is found in the posterior triangle, not the second part.

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which section of the ECG indicates atrial depolarization? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which section of the ECG indicates atrial depolarization?

      Your Answer: P-R interval

      Correct Answer: P wave

      Explanation:

      The depolarization of the atria is represented by the P wave. It should be noted that the QRS complex makes it difficult to observe the repolarization of the atria.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old woman comes into the emergency department with her daughter after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes into the emergency department with her daughter after experiencing shortness of breath for 2 hours. She is in poor condition with a heart rate of 128/min, blood pressure of 90/66 mmHg, O2 saturation of 94% on air, respiratory rate of 29/min, and temperature of 36.3ºC. Her legs are swollen up to her knees, and her JVP is visible at her ear lobe. She has a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, angina, and a smoking history of 20 packs per year.

      What is the underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Reduced perfusion of the kidneys

      Correct Answer: Reduced cardiac output

      Explanation:

      The cause of the patient’s acute heart failure is a decrease in cardiac output, which may be due to biventricular failure. This is evidenced by peripheral edema and respiratory distress, including shortness of breath, high respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturation. These symptoms are likely caused by inadequate heart filling, leading to peripheral congestion and pulmonary edema or pleural effusion.

      The pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is not relevant to the patient’s condition, as it is not explained by her peripheral edema and elevated JVP.

      While shortness of breath in heart failure may be caused by reduced ventilation/perfusion due to pulmonary edema, this is only one symptom and not the underlying mechanism of the condition.

      The overactivity of the renin-angiotensin system is a physiological response to decreased blood pressure or increased renal sympathetic firing, but it is not necessarily related to the patient’s current condition.

      Understanding Acute Heart Failure: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Acute heart failure (AHF) is a medical emergency that can occur suddenly or worsen over time. It can affect individuals with or without a history of pre-existing heart failure. Decompensated AHF is more common and is characterized by a background history of HF. AHF is typically caused by a reduced cardiac output resulting from a functional or structural abnormality. De-novo heart failure, on the other hand, is caused by increased cardiac filling pressures and myocardial dysfunction, usually due to ischaemia.

      The most common precipitating causes of acute AHF are acute coronary syndrome, hypertensive crisis, acute arrhythmia, and valvular disease. Patients with heart failure may present with signs of fluid congestion, weight gain, orthopnoea, and breathlessness. They are broadly classified into four groups based on whether they present with or without hypoperfusion and fluid congestion. This classification is clinically useful in determining the therapeutic approach.

      The symptoms of AHF include breathlessness, reduced exercise tolerance, oedema, fatigue, chest signs, and an S3-heart sound. Signs of AHF include cyanosis, tachycardia, elevated jugular venous pressure, and a displaced apex beat. Over 90% of patients with AHF have a normal or increased blood pressure.

      The diagnostic workup for patients with AHF includes blood tests, chest X-ray, echocardiogram, and B-type natriuretic peptide. Blood tests are used to identify any underlying abnormalities, while chest X-ray findings include pulmonary venous congestion, interstitial oedema, and cardiomegaly. Echocardiogram is used to identify pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade, while raised levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (>100mg/litre) indicate myocardial damage and support the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of chest pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of chest pain that has been present for a week. The pain worsens when he breathes in and is relieved when he sits forward. He also has a non-productive cough. He recently had a viral infection. An ECG was performed and showed global saddle-shaped ST elevation.

      Your Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Chest pain that is relieved by sitting or leaning forward is often a symptom of acute pericarditis. This condition is commonly caused by a viral infection and may also present with flu-like symptoms, non-productive cough, and dyspnea. ECG changes may show a saddle-shaped ST elevation.

      Cardiac tamponade, on the other hand, is characterized by Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds. Dyspnea and tachycardia may also be present.

      A myocardial infarction is unlikely if the chest pain has been present for a week, as it typically presents more acutely and with constant chest pain regardless of body positioning. ECG changes would also occur in specific territories rather than globally.

      A pneumothorax presents with sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, and sweating. No ECG changes would be observed.

      A pulmonary embolism typically presents with acute onset tachypnea, fever, tachycardia, and crackles. Signs of deep vein thrombosis may also be present.

      Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management

      Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.

      The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.

      Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.

      Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.

      In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old male is brought to the trauma unit following a car accident,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is brought to the trauma unit following a car accident, with an estimated blood loss of 1200ml. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 125 beats per minute, blood pressure of 125/100 mmHg, and he feels cold to the touch.

      Which component of his cardiovascular system has played the biggest role in maintaining his blood pressure stability?

      Your Answer: Arterioles

      Explanation:

      The highest resistance in the cardiovascular system is found in the arterioles, which means they contribute the most to the total peripheral resistance. In cases of compensated hypovolaemic shock, such as in this relatively young patient, the body compensates by increasing heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.

      Arteriole vasoconstriction in hypovolaemic shock patients leads to an increase in total peripheral resistance, which in turn increases mean arterial blood pressure. This has a greater effect on diastolic blood pressure, resulting in a narrowing of pulse pressure and clinical symptoms such as cold peripheries and delayed capillary refill time.

      Capillaries are microscopic channels that provide blood supply to the tissues and are the primary site for gas and nutrient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins with diameters ranging from 8-100 micrometers and join multiple capillaries exiting from a capillary bed.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man visits the diabetic foot clinic and has his foot pulses...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the diabetic foot clinic and has his foot pulses checked. During the examination, the healthcare provider palpates the posterior tibial pulse and the dorsalis pedis pulse. What artery does the dorsalis pedis artery continue from?

      Your Answer: Popliteal artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery

      Explanation:

      The dorsalis pedis artery in the foot is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery.

      At the level of the pelvis, the common iliac artery gives rise to the external iliac artery.

      The lateral compartment of the leg is supplied by the peroneal artery, also known as the fibular artery.

      A branch of the popliteal artery is the tibioperoneal trunk.

      The anterior tibial artery is formed by the popliteal artery.

      The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      243.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - As a certified physician, you are standing at the bus stop waiting to...

    Correct

    • As a certified physician, you are standing at the bus stop waiting to head to work. A 78-year-old woman is standing next to you and suddenly begins to express discomfort in her chest. She then collapses and loses consciousness. Fortunately, there is no threat to your safety. What steps do you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Perform basic life support for the lady, ask the husband to call 999

      Explanation:

      In accordance with the Good Medical Practice 2013, it is your responsibility to provide assistance in the event of emergencies occurring in clinical settings or within the community. However, you must consider your own safety, level of expertise, and the availability of alternative care options before offering aid. This obligation encompasses providing basic life support and administering first aid. In situations where you are the sole individual present, it is incumbent upon you to fulfill this duty.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old male patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with complaints of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, shortness of breath on exertion, and orthopnoea. During physical examination, bilateral pitting oedema and malar flush are observed. On auscultation, bibasal crepitations and a grade IV/VI mid-diastolic rumbling murmur following an opening snap are heard, loudest in the left 5th intercostal space midclavicular line with radiation to the axilla.

      The patient is stabilized and scheduled for echocardiography to confirm the underlying pathology. Additionally, Swan-Ganz catheterization is performed to measure the mean pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). What are the most likely findings?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation, raised PCWP

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis, raised PCWP

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis results in an elevation of left atrial pressure, which in turn causes an increase in pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). This is a typical manifestation of acute heart failure associated with mitral stenosis, which is commonly caused by rheumatic fever. PCWP serves as an indirect indicator of left atrial pressure, with a normal range of 6-12 mmHg. However, in the presence of mitral stenosis, left atrial pressure is elevated, leading to an increase in PCWP.

      Understanding Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure

      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is a measurement taken using a Swan-Ganz catheter with a balloon tip that is inserted into the pulmonary artery. The pressure measured is similar to that of the left atrium, which is typically between 6-12 mmHg. The primary purpose of measuring PCWP is to determine whether pulmonary edema is caused by heart failure or acute respiratory distress syndrome.

      In modern intensive care units, non-invasive techniques have replaced PCWP measurement. However, it remains an important diagnostic tool in certain situations. By measuring the pressure in the pulmonary artery, doctors can determine whether the left side of the heart is functioning properly or if there is a problem with the lungs. This information can help guide treatment decisions and improve patient outcomes. Overall, understanding PCWP is an important aspect of managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old man undergoes a carotid endarterectomy and appears to be recovering well...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man undergoes a carotid endarterectomy and appears to be recovering well after the surgery. During a ward review after the operation, he reports experiencing hoarseness in his voice. What is the probable reason for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Damage to the vagus

      Explanation:

      Carotid surgery poses a risk of nerve injury, with the vagus nerve being the only one that could cause speech difficulties if damaged.

      The vagus nerve is responsible for a variety of functions and supplies structures from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches, as well as the fore and midgut sections of the embryonic gut tube. It carries afferent fibers from areas such as the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, lungs, heart, and great vessels. The efferent fibers of the vagus are of two main types: preganglionic parasympathetic fibers distributed to the parasympathetic ganglia that innervate smooth muscle of the innervated organs, and efferent fibers with direct skeletal muscle innervation, largely to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.

      The vagus nerve arises from the lateral surface of the medulla oblongata and exits through the jugular foramen, closely related to the glossopharyngeal nerve cranially and the accessory nerve caudally. It descends vertically in the carotid sheath in the neck, closely related to the internal and common carotid arteries. In the mediastinum, both nerves pass posteroinferiorly and reach the posterior surface of the corresponding lung root, branching into both lungs. At the inferior end of the mediastinum, these plexuses reunite to form the formal vagal trunks that pass through the esophageal hiatus and into the abdomen. The anterior and posterior vagal trunks are formal nerve fibers that splay out once again, sending fibers over the stomach and posteriorly to the coeliac plexus. Branches pass to the liver, spleen, and kidney.

      The vagus nerve has various branches in the neck, including superior and inferior cervical cardiac branches, and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery and hooks under it to insert into the larynx. In the thorax, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus on the aortic arch and hooks around the inferior surface of the arch, passing upwards through the superior mediastinum and lower part of the neck. In the abdomen, the nerves branch extensively, passing to the coeliac axis and alongside the vessels to supply the spleen, liver, and kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Sophie, a 6-week-old baby, presents to the emergency department for evaluation. Her mother...

    Correct

    • Sophie, a 6-week-old baby, presents to the emergency department for evaluation. Her mother has observed that Sophie has been experiencing shortness of breath for the past 3 weeks, particularly during feeding. Sophie was born at 36 weeks and her mother reports no other issues since birth.

      During the examination, a continuous machinery murmur with a left-sided sub-clavicular thrill is detected, and a diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus is made. Surgery is not deemed necessary, but a medication that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis is recommended.

      What is the most probable pharmacological treatment that will be offered?

      Your Answer: Indomethacin

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis in infants with patent ductus arteriosus is achieved through the use of indomethacin. This medication (or ibuprofen) is effective in promoting closure of the ductus arteriosus by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.

      Beta-blockers such as bisoprolol are not used in the management of PDA, making this answer incorrect.

      Steroids like dexamethasone and prednisolone are not typically used in the treatment of PDA, although they may be given to the mother if premature delivery is expected. Therefore, these answers are also incorrect.

      Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.

      This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.

      The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 85-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of breathlessness at rest....

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of breathlessness at rest. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension, for which he takes metformin, lisinopril, and metoprolol. He also smokes five cigarettes a day. On examination, he has a heart rate of 100 bpm, blood pressure of 128/90 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 26 with oxygen saturation of 88% on 2l/minute. He has a regular, slow rising pulse, an ejection systolic murmur, crepitations at both lung bases, and oedema at the ankles and sacrum.

      What investigation is most crucial for his immediate management?

      Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Managing Pulmonary Edema from Congestive Cardiac Failure

      Pulmonary edema from congestive cardiac failure requires prompt investigation and management. The most crucial investigation is an ECG to check for a possible silent myocardial infarction. Even if the ECG is normal, a troponin test may be necessary to rule out a NSTEMI. Arterial blood gas analysis is also important to guide oxygen therapy. Additionally, stopping medications such as metformin, lisinopril, and metoprolol, and administering diuretics can help manage the condition.

      It is likely that the patient has aortic stenosis, which is contributing to the cardiac failure. However, acute management of the valvular disease will be addressed separately. To learn more about heart failure and its management, refer to the ABC of heart failure articles by Millane et al. and Watson et al.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old male engineer presents to the emergency department after falling at work...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male engineer presents to the emergency department after falling at work while climbing a flight of stairs. He reports experiencing shortness of breath during exertion for the past week, but denies chest pain, vomiting, or coughing up blood. The symptoms are not affected by changes in position or respiration.

      The patient has no significant medical history except for a recent bout of self-resolving diarrhea. He is not taking any regular medications and has no known drug allergies. There is no relevant family history. He was recently informed that asbestos has been found in his apartment complex, where he has lived for eight years.

      During the examination, the patient appears comfortable at rest. His heart rate is 87 beats per minute, blood pressure is 124/94 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 99% on room air, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and temperature is 39.1ºC.

      A systolic and diastolic murmur is audible throughout the praecordium, with radiations to the axilla. There is tenderness over both nipples where he recently had them pierced, but no pain over the ribs.

      The patient has visible needle marks over his antecubital fossa and reports being in recovery from intravenous drug use for the past four years. He admits to recreational marijuana smoking and consuming 24 units of alcohol per week.

      An ECG taken on admission shows regular sinus rhythm. An echocardiogram reveals vegetations over the aortic and mitral valve, and blood cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, which feature in the patient's history is a potential risk factor?

      Your Answer: Marijuana smoking

      Correct Answer: New piercing

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis is the likely diagnosis, which can be suspected if there is a fever and a murmur. The presence of vegetations on echo and positive blood cultures that meet Duke criteria can confirm the diagnosis. Of the given options, the only known risk factor for infective endocarditis is getting a new piercing. Alcohol binging can increase the risk of alcoholic liver disease and dilated cardiomyopathy, while asbestos exposure can lead to asbestosis and mesothelioma. Marijuana smoking may be associated with psychosis and paranoia.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - John, a 35-year-old male, is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The...

    Incorrect

    • John, a 35-year-old male, is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The ambulance crew explains that the patient has homonymous hemianopia, weakness of left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia.

      He has a strong past medical and family history deep vein thromboses.

      A CT is ordered and the report suggests a stroke affecting the middle cerebral artery. Months later he is under investigations to explain the stroke at his young age. He is diagnosed with Factor V Leiden thrombophilia, which causes the blood to be in a hypercoagulable state.

      What are the potential areas of the brain that can be impacted by an emboli in this artery?

      Your Answer: Frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital lobes

      Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes are mainly supplied by the middle cerebral artery, which is a continuation of the internal carotid artery. As a result, any damage to this artery can have a significant impact on a large portion of the brain. The middle cerebral artery is frequently affected by cerebrovascular events. The posterior cerebral artery, on the other hand, supplies the occipital lobe. The anterior cerebral artery supplies a portion of the frontal and parietal lobes.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral...

    Correct

    • An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral vascular disease presents with palpitations and syncope. His ECG reveals an irregularly irregular pulse of 124 beats/min. What factor in his medical history will be given the most consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: Age

      Explanation:

      To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct a CHA2DS2-VASc score assessment. This involves considering various factors, including age (which is weighted heaviest, with 2 points given for those aged 75 and over), hypertension (1 point), and congestive heart disease (1 point). Palpitations, however, are not included in the CHA2DS2-VASc tool.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old competitive swimmer visits the paediatric clinic after experiencing palpitations during races...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old competitive swimmer visits the paediatric clinic after experiencing palpitations during races or intense training. She has never had shortness of breath or chest pain, but one persistent episode led her to the emergency department where an ECG was taken. Based on the shortening of one of the ECG intervals, a provisional diagnosis of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome was made. What does this abnormal section of the ECG represent in terms of electrical activity?

      Your Answer: The time between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation

      Correct Answer: The time between atrial depolarisation and ventricular depolarisation

      Explanation:

      The PR interval on an ECG represents the duration between atrial depolarisation and ventricular depolarisation. In Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, an accessory pathway called the Bundle of Kent exists between the atrium and ventricle, allowing electrical signals to bypass the atrioventricular node and potentially leading to tachyarrhythmias. This results in a shorter PR interval on the ECG. Atrial repolarisation is not visible on the ECG, while the depolarisation of the sinoatrial node is represented by the p wave. The QT interval on the ECG represents the time between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarisation, not the PR interval.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      76.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old patient is initiated on warfarin after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old patient is initiated on warfarin after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The patient has a medical history of a metallic heart valve.

      The patient is informed that INR levels will be used to monitor the effects of warfarin. INR is a ratio of the value during warfarin treatment to the normal value, which is used to measure a specific aspect of clotting.

      What is the value that is utilized during this monitoring process?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin time

      Explanation:

      Warfarin leads to an extended prothrombin time, which is the correct answer. The prothrombin time assesses the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade, and warfarin affects factor VII from the extrinsic pathway, as well as factor II (prothrombin) and factor X from the common pathway. This results in a prolonged prothrombin time, and the INR is a ratio of the prothrombin time during warfarin treatment to the normal prothrombin time.

      The activated partial thromboplastin time is an incorrect answer. Although high levels of warfarin may prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time, the INR is solely based on the prothrombin time.

      Bleeding time is also an incorrect answer. While warfarin can cause a prolonged bleeding time, the INR measures the prothrombin time.

      Fibrinogen levels are another incorrect answer. Fibrinogen is necessary for blood clotting, and warfarin can decrease fibrinogen levels after prolonged use. However, fibrinogen levels are not used in the INR measurement.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 49-year-old male has sustained a facial burn at work. During the morning...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has sustained a facial burn at work. During the morning ward round, it is observed in the surgeon's notes that the facial artery has good arterial blood supply, leading to hope for satisfactory healing. What is the name of the major artery that the facial artery branches off from?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic artery

      Correct Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The facial artery is the primary source of blood supply to the face, originating from the external carotid artery after the lingual artery. It follows a winding path and terminates as the angular artery at the inner corner of the eye.

      The internal carotid artery provides blood to the front and middle parts of the brain, while the vertebral artery, a branch of the subclavian artery, supplies the spinal cord, cerebellum, and back part of the brain. The brachiocephalic artery supplies the right side of the head and arm, giving rise to the subclavian and common carotid arteries on the right side.

      Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery

      The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.

      To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.

      The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 22-year-old male student is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male student is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance. He is unconscious, hypotensive, and tachycardic. According to his friend, he started feeling unwell after being stung by a bee in the park. The medical team suspects anaphylactic shock and begins resuscitation. While anaphylactic shock causes widespread vasodilation, which mediator is responsible for arteriole constriction?

      Your Answer: Parasympathetic nervous input

      Correct Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      Arteriolar constriction is facilitated by various mediators such as noradrenaline from the sympathetic nervous system, circulating catecholamines, angiotensin-2, and locally released endothelin peptide by endothelial cells. Endothelin primarily acts on ET(A) receptors to cause constriction, but it can also cause dilation by acting on ET(B) receptors.

      On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system, nitric oxide, and prostacyclin are all responsible for facilitating arteriolar dilation, rather than constriction.

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old woman comes to you complaining of severe body aches and pains...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to you complaining of severe body aches and pains that have been ongoing for the past 2 weeks. She has been taking atorvastatin for the last 5 years and is aware of its potential side effects, but insists that she has never experienced anything like this before.

      Upon examination, her CK levels are found to be above 3000 U/L. Reviewing her medical records, it is noted that she had a medication review with her cardiologist just 2 weeks ago.

      What could be the possible cause of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: The cardiologist switched her from ramipril to beta-blockers

      Correct Answer: The cardiologist started her on amiodarone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and elevated CK levels suggest that she may have rhabdomyolysis, which is a known risk associated with taking statins while also taking amiodarone. It is likely that her cardiologist prescribed amiodarone. To reduce her risk of statin-induced rhabdomyolysis, her atorvastatin dosage should be lowered.

      It is important to note that digoxin and beta-blockers do not increase the risk of statin-induced rhabdomyolysis, and there is no association between laxatives and this condition.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old male has presented with a record of blood pressure readings taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male has presented with a record of blood pressure readings taken at home over the past week. His readings have consistently been above the accepted range for his age. He is a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day.

      Your senior has prescribed a low dose of ramipril and recommended lifestyle modifications and exercise.

      You have been asked by your senior to discuss the use of this medication and provide any necessary dietary advice.

      Which of the following is the most important piece of information to communicate to this patient?

      A) Taking ramipril with paracetamol compounds its hypotensive effect
      B) Taking ramipril with alcohol compounds its hypotensive effect
      C) Taking ramipril with coffee compounds its hypotensive effect
      D) Taking ramipril with tea compounds its hypotensive effect

      Please select the correct answer and provide an explanation.

      Your Answer: Taking ramipril with coffee compounds its hypotensive effect

      Correct Answer: Taking ramipril with alcohol compounds its hypotensive effect

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors’ hypotensive effects are worsened by alcohol consumption, leading to symptoms of low blood pressure such as dizziness and lightheadedness. Additionally, the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors may be reduced by hypertension-associated medications like acetaminophen and venlafaxine. Caffeine, found in both tea and coffee, can also elevate blood pressure.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.6
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old man has an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and is pronounced dead at...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and is pronounced dead at the scene. A post-mortem examination is carried out to determine the cause of death, which demonstrates 90% stenosis of the left anterior descending artery.

      What is the ultimate stage in the development of this stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 29 - A patient's ECG displays broad complex QRS complexes, indicating a possible ventricular origin...

    Incorrect

    • A patient's ECG displays broad complex QRS complexes, indicating a possible ventricular origin issue or aberrant conduction. What is the typical resting membrane potential of ventricular contractile fibers in the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: -90mV

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - A patient in their 50s experiences hypotension, wheezing, and shortness of breath after...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s experiences hypotension, wheezing, and shortness of breath after undergoing head and neck surgery. The possibility of a significant air embolism is being considered.

      What factors may have contributed to the occurrence of this event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negative atrial pressures

      Explanation:

      Air embolisms can occur during head and neck surgeries due to negative pressures in the venous circulation and atria caused by thoracic wall movement. If a vein is cut during the surgery, air can enter the veins and cause an air embolism. Atherosclerosis may cause other types of emboli, such as clots. It is important to note that a pneumothorax refers to air in the thoracic cavity, not an embolus in the vessels.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 31 - A 23-year-old male university student presents to the emergency department with lightheadedness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male university student presents to the emergency department with lightheadedness and a fall an hour earlier, associated with loss of consciousness. He admits to being short of breath on exertion with chest pain for several months. The patient denies vomiting or haemoptysis. The symptoms are not exacerbated or relieved by any positional changes or during phases of respiration.

      He has no relevant past medical history, is not on any regular medications, and has no documented drug allergies. There is no relevant family history. He is a non-smoker and drinks nine unite of alcohol a week. He denies any recent travel or drug use.

      On examination, the patient appears to be comfortable at rest. His heart rate is 68/min, blood pressure 112/84 mmHg, oxygen saturation 99% on air, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, temperature 36.7ºC.

      An ejection systolic murmur is audible throughout the praecordium, loudest over the sternum bilaterally. No heaves or thrills are palpable, and there are no radiations. The murmur gets louder when the patient is asked to perform the Valsalva manoeuvre. The murmur is noted as grade II. Lung fields are clear on auscultation. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with bowel sounds present. His body mass index is 20 kg/m².

      His ECG taken on admission reveals sinus rhythm, with generalised deep Q waves and widespread T waves. There is evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and findings suggest the possibility of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which is characterized by exertional dyspnea, chest pain, syncope, and ejection systolic murmur that is louder during Valsalva maneuver and quieter during squatting. The ECG changes observed are also consistent with HOCM. Given the patient’s young age, it is crucial to rule out this diagnosis as HOCM is a leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals.

      Brugada syndrome, an autosomal dominant cause of sudden cardiac death in young people, may also present with unexplained falls. However, the absence of a family history of cardiac disease and the unlikely association with the murmur and ECG changes described make this diagnosis less likely. It is important to note that performing Valsalva maneuver in a patient with Brugada syndrome can be life-threatening due to the risk of arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation.

      Chagas disease, a parasitic disease prevalent in South America, is caused by an insect bite and has a long dormant period before causing ventricular damage. However, the patient’s age and absence of exposure to the disease make this diagnosis less likely.

      Myocardial infarction can cause central chest pain and ECG changes, but it is rare for it to present with falls. Moreover, the ECG changes observed are not typical of myocardial infarction. The patient’s young age and lack of cardiac risk factors also make this diagnosis less likely.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the acute medical ward with red flag sepsis, possibly originating from the urinary tract. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is recorded as 90/60mmHg, and he exhibits cool, mottled skin peripherally. To increase his preload and stroke volume, a fluid bolus is administered. What other physiological parameter is likely to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      When stroke volume increases, pulse pressure also increases. This is important to consider in the management of shock, where intravenous fluids can increase preload and stroke volume. Factors that affect stroke volume include preload, cardiac contractility, and afterload. Pulse pressure can be calculated by subtracting diastolic blood pressure from systolic blood pressure.

      Decreased cardiac output is not a result of increased stroke volume, as cardiac output is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to an increase in cardiac output.

      Similarly, decreased mean arterial pressure is not a result of increased stroke volume, as mean arterial pressure is calculated by multiplying cardiac output by total peripheral resistance. An increase in stroke volume would lead to an increase in mean arterial pressure.

      Lastly, increased heart rate is not a direct result of increased stroke volume, as heart rate is calculated by dividing cardiac output by stroke volume. An increase in stroke volume would actually lead to a decrease in heart rate.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 33 - A 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. After conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V4-V6, leading to a diagnosis of anterolateral ST-elevation MI. What is the primary artery that provides blood to the lateral region of the left ventricle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      When the right coronary artery is blocked, it can lead to inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and changes in leads II, III, and aVF on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is because the right coronary artery typically supplies blood to the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes, which can result in arrhythmias. The right marginal artery, which branches off from the right coronary artery near the bottom of the heart, runs along the heart’s lower edge towards the apex.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 34 - A 67-year-old male presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain on the left side that radiates to his back. He also reports vomiting. The patient has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.5°C, a respiratory rate of 28/min, a pulse of 110/min, and a blood pressure of 160/82 mmHg. The abdomen is tender to touch, especially over the hypochondrium, and bowel sounds are present. Urinalysis reveals amylase 3+ with glucose 2+.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain with Radiation to the Back

      The occurrence of acute abdominal pain with radiation to the back can be indicative of two possible conditions: a dissection or rupture of an aortic aneurysm or pancreatitis. However, the presence of amylase in the urine suggests that the latter is more likely. Pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, which can cause severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The presence of amylase in the urine is a common diagnostic marker for pancreatitis.

      In addition, acute illness associated with pancreatitis can lead to impaired insulin release and increased gluconeogenesis, which can cause elevated glucose levels. Therefore, glucose levels may also be monitored in patients with suspected pancreatitis. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat pancreatitis as it can lead to serious complications such as pancreatic necrosis, sepsis, and organ failure.

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      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 35 - A 79-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe, crushing chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with severe, crushing chest pain. His ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads V1-4. What electrical state of the heart is likely to be impacted based on his ECG findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The period when the entire ventricle is depolarised

      Explanation:

      The ST segment on an ECG represents the time when the ventricles are fully depolarized, occurring between the QRS complex and the T wave. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the PR interval represents the time between atrial and ventricular depolarization. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, and the T wave represents repolarization. Overall, the ECG reflects the various electrical states of the heart.

      Understanding the Normal ECG

      The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.

      The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.

      Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 36 - A 50-year-old man comes to the cardiac clinic for a follow-up exercise stress...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the cardiac clinic for a follow-up exercise stress test. The physician discusses the cardiac adaptations during physical activity.

      What statement best describes this patient's pulse pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Their increased stroke volume will increase pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Increasing stroke volume leads to an increase in pulse pressure, while decreasing stroke volume results in a decrease in pulse pressure. This is because pulse pressure is determined by the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure, and an increase in stroke volume raises systolic pressure. During exercise, stroke volume increases to meet the body’s demands, leading to an increase in pulse pressure. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that a decrease in pulse pressure will increase stroke volume, or that a decrease in stroke volume will not affect pulse pressure.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 37 - A 70-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department displaying indications and symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department displaying indications and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome. Among the following cardiac enzymes, which is the most probable to increase first after a heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoglobin

      Explanation:

      Enzyme Markers for Myocardial Infarction

      Enzyme markers are used to diagnose myocardial infarction, with troponins being the most sensitive and specific. However, troponins are not the fastest to rise and are only measured 12 hours after the event. Myoglobin, although less sensitive and specific, is the earliest marker to rise. The rise of myoglobin occurs within 2 hours of the event, with a peak at 6-8 hours and a fall within 1-2 days. Creatine kinase rises within 4-6 hours, peaks at 24 hours, and falls within 3-4 days. LDH rises within 6-12 hours, peaks at 72 hours, and falls within 10-14 days. These enzyme markers are important in the diagnosis and management of myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 38 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the cardiology clinic by her mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the cardiology clinic by her mother due to concerns of episodes of turning blue, especially when laughing or crying. During the examination, the toddler is observed to have clubbing of the fingernails and confirmed to be cyanotic. Further investigation with an echocardiogram reveals a large ventricular septal defect, leading to a diagnosis of Eisenmenger's syndrome. What is the ultimate treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart- lung transplant

      Explanation:

      The most effective way to manage Eisenmenger’s syndrome is through a heart-lung transplant. Calcium-channel blockers can be used to decrease the strain on the right side of the circulation by increasing the right to left shunt. Antibiotics are also useful in preventing endocarditis. However, the use of oxygen as a long-term treatment is still a topic of debate and is not considered a definitive solution. Patients with Eisenmenger’s syndrome may also experience significant polycythemia, which may require venesection as a treatment option.

      Understanding Eisenmenger’s Syndrome

      Eisenmenger’s syndrome is a medical condition that occurs when a congenital heart defect leads to pulmonary hypertension, causing a reversal of a left-to-right shunt. This happens when the left-to-right shunt is not corrected, leading to the remodeling of the pulmonary microvasculature, which eventually obstructs pulmonary blood and causes pulmonary hypertension. The condition is commonly associated with ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus.

      The original murmur may disappear, and patients may experience cyanosis, clubbing, right ventricular failure, haemoptysis, and embolism. Management of Eisenmenger’s syndrome requires heart-lung transplantation. It is essential to diagnose and treat the condition early to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of Eisenmenger’s syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.

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      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 39 - A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dyspnoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dyspnoea and fatigue that has been going on for 2 days. She reports experiencing similar episodes repeatedly over the past few years. She has no other medical history.

      During the examination, you observe sporadic erythematous lesions on her shins and detect a pansystolic murmur. You request a chest x-ray, which reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and an enlarged heart.

      What additional symptom is linked to this ailment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced ventricular ejection fraction

      Explanation:

      Patients with reduced ejection fraction heart failure (HF-rEF) usually experience systolic dysfunction, which refers to the impaired ability of the myocardium to contract during systole.

      Types of Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a clinical syndrome where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic needs. It can be classified in multiple ways, including by ejection fraction, time, and left/right side. Patients with heart failure may have a normal or abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), which is measured using echocardiography. Reduced LVEF is typically defined as < 35 to 40% and is termed heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HF-rEF), while preserved LVEF is termed heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). Heart failure can also be described as acute or chronic, with acute heart failure referring to an acute exacerbation of chronic heart failure. Left-sided heart failure is more common and may be due to increased left ventricular afterload or preload, while right-sided heart failure is caused by increased right ventricular afterload or preload. High-output heart failure is another type of heart failure that occurs when a normal heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. By classifying heart failure in these ways, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying causes and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It is important to note that many guidelines for the management of heart failure only cover HF-rEF patients and do not address the management of HF-pEF patients. Understanding the different types of heart failure can help healthcare professionals provide more effective care for their patients.

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      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 40 - A patient suffering from primary pulmonary hypertension at the age of 50 is...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffering from primary pulmonary hypertension at the age of 50 is prescribed bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist. What is the role of endothelin in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction and bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Endothelin, which is produced by the vascular endothelium, is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor with long-lasting effects. It is believed to play a role in the development of primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

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      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 41 - Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath over the past 5 days. Last night she woke up suddenly because she couldn't catch her breath and developed a dry cough. Her breathing improved when she sat upright on the edge of her bed. She denies any chest pain, leg pain or fainting spells.

      Her past medical history includes a myocardial infarction 5 years ago for which she underwent a coronary artery bypass graft, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She has been smoking for 30 years and doesn't drink any alcohol.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left-sided heart failure

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for a patient experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is left-sided heart failure. This symptom, which involves sudden waking at night due to shortness of breath, is a common feature of heart failure, particularly on the left side. Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms. Right-sided heart failure is also an unlikely diagnosis as it presents with different features such as raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly.

      Features of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. It is characterized by several features that can help in its diagnosis. Dyspnoea, or shortness of breath, is a common symptom of chronic heart failure. Patients may also experience coughing, which can be worse at night and accompanied by pink or frothy sputum. Orthopnoea, or difficulty breathing while lying down, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, or sudden shortness of breath at night, are also common symptoms.

      Another feature of chronic heart failure is the presence of a wheeze, known as a cardiac wheeze. Patients may also experience weight loss, known as cardiac cachexia, which occurs in up to 15% of patients. However, this may be hidden by weight gained due to oedema. On examination, bibasal crackles may be heard, and signs of right-sided heart failure, such as a raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly, may be present.

      In summary, chronic heart failure is a condition that can be identified by several features, including dyspnoea, coughing, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheezing, weight loss, bibasal crackles, and signs of right-sided heart failure. Early recognition and management of these symptoms can help improve outcomes for patients with chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 42 - As a junior doctor, you are taking the medical history of a patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor, you are taking the medical history of a patient who is scheduled for an elective knee replacement. During the physical examination, you hear a diastolic murmur and observe a collapsing pulse while checking the heart rate. Upon examining the hands, you notice pulsations of red coloration on the nail beds. Other than these findings, the examination appears normal.

      What could be the probable reason behind these examination results if the patient is slightly older?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The patient’s examination findings suggest aortic regurgitation, which is characterized by an early diastolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur that is louder when the patient sits forward and at the left sternal edge. Aortic regurgitation can also cause a collapsing pulse, dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, and visible pulsing red colouration of the nails (quincke’s sign).

      It is important to note that aortic stenosis does not cause a diastolic murmur or collapsing pulse. Instead, it typically produces an ejection systolic murmur that is louder on expiration and may cause a slow rising pulse.

      Similarly, mitral regurgitation does not cause a diastolic murmur or collapsing pulse. It typically produces a pansystolic murmur.

      Mitral stenosis causes a mid-late diastolic murmur but does not commonly cause a collapsing pulse.

      Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur but does not commonly cause a collapsing pulse or diastolic murmur.

      Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. The most common causes of AR due to valve disease include rheumatic fever, calcific valve disease, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, AR due to aortic root disease can be caused by conditions such as aortic dissection, hypertension, and connective tissue diseases like Marfan’s and Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      The features of AR include an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. In severe cases, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur may also be present. Suspected AR should be investigated with echocardiography.

      Management of AR involves medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery in symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.

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      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old is suffering from tonsillitis and experiencing significant pain. Which nerve is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old is suffering from tonsillitis and experiencing significant pain. Which nerve is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tonsillar fossa is primarily innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve, with a smaller contribution from the lesser palatine nerve. As a result, patients may experience ear pain (otalgia) after undergoing a tonsillectomy.

      Tonsil Anatomy and Tonsillitis

      The tonsils are located in the pharynx and have two surfaces, a medial and lateral surface. They vary in size and are usually supplied by the tonsillar artery and drained by the jugulodigastric and deep cervical nodes. Tonsillitis is a common condition that is usually caused by bacteria, with group A Streptococcus being the most common culprit. It can also be caused by viruses. In some cases, tonsillitis can lead to the development of an abscess, which can distort the uvula. Tonsillectomy is recommended for patients with recurrent acute tonsillitis, suspected malignancy, or enlargement causing sleep apnea. The preferred technique for tonsillectomy is dissection, but it can be complicated by hemorrhage, which is the most common complication. Delayed otalgia may also occur due to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

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      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 44 - A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible over the aortic region. The patient also reports experiencing dyspnoea and angina. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Aortic Stenosis from Other Cardiac Conditions

      Aortic stenosis is a common cardiac condition that can be identified through auscultation. However, it is important to differentiate it from other conditions such as aortic sclerosis, HOCM, pulmonary stenosis, and aortic regurgitation. While aortic sclerosis may also present with an ejection systolic murmur, it is typically asymptomatic. The presence of dyspnoea, angina, or syncope would suggest a diagnosis of aortic stenosis instead. HOCM would not typically cause these symptoms, and pulmonary stenosis would not be associated with a murmur at the location of the aortic valve. Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, would present with a wide pulse pressure and an early diastolic murmur. Therefore, careful consideration of symptoms and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate between these cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 45 - A 24-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a bottle...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a bottle of insecticide and experiencing multiple episodes of vomiting. The suspected diagnosis is organophosphate poisoning and the patient is being treated with supportive measures and atropine. What potential side effect of atropine administration should be monitored for in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypohidrosis

      Explanation:

      Hypohidrosis is a possible side-effect of Atropine.

      Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that works by blocking the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor in a competitive manner. Its side-effects may include tachycardia, mydriasis, dry mouth, hypohidrosis, constipation, and urinary retention. It is important to note that the other listed side-effects are typically associated with muscarinic agonist drugs like pilocarpine.

      Understanding Atropine and Its Uses

      Atropine is a medication that works against the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. It is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia and organophosphate poisoning. In cases of bradycardia with adverse signs, IV atropine is the first-line treatment. However, it is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or pulseless electrical activity (PEA) during advanced life support.

      Atropine has several physiological effects, including tachycardia and mydriasis. However, it is important to note that it may trigger acute angle-closure glaucoma in susceptible patients. Therefore, it is crucial to use atropine with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. Understanding the uses and effects of atropine can help individuals make informed decisions about their healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 46 - An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of dizziness upon standing. He has...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of dizziness upon standing. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. The doctor diagnoses him with orthostatic hypotension.

      What are the possible causes of this type of heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systolic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Types of Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a clinical syndrome where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic needs. It can be classified in multiple ways, including by ejection fraction, time, and left/right side. Patients with heart failure may have a normal or abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), which is measured using echocardiography. Reduced LVEF is typically defined as < 35 to 40% and is termed heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HF-rEF), while preserved LVEF is termed heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). Heart failure can also be described as acute or chronic, with acute heart failure referring to an acute exacerbation of chronic heart failure. Left-sided heart failure is more common and may be due to increased left ventricular afterload or preload, while right-sided heart failure is caused by increased right ventricular afterload or preload. High-output heart failure is another type of heart failure that occurs when a normal heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. By classifying heart failure in these ways, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying causes and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It is important to note that many guidelines for the management of heart failure only cover HF-rEF patients and do not address the management of HF-pEF patients. Understanding the different types of heart failure can help healthcare professionals provide more effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 47 - A 56-year-old male comes to your clinic complaining of occasional chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male comes to your clinic complaining of occasional chest pain that usually occurs after meals and typically subsides within a few hours. He has a medical history of bipolar disorder, osteoarthritis, gout, and hyperparathyroidism. Currently, he is undergoing a prolonged course of antibiotics for prostatitis.

      During his visit, an ECG reveals a QT interval greater than 520 ms.

      What is the most likely cause of the observed ECG changes?

      - Lithium overdose
      - Paracetamol use
      - Hypercalcemia
      - Erythromycin use
      - Amoxicillin use

      Explanation: The most probable cause of the prolonged QT interval is erythromycin use, which is commonly associated with this ECG finding. Given the patient's medical history, it is likely that he is taking erythromycin for his prostatitis. Amoxicillin is not known to cause QT prolongation. Lithium toxicity typically presents with symptoms such as vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and agitation. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with a short QT interval, making it an unlikely cause. Paracetamol is not known to cause QT prolongation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin use

      Explanation:

      The prolonged QT interval can be caused by erythromycin.

      It is highly probable that the patient is taking erythromycin to treat his prostatitis, which is the reason for the prolonged QT interval.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 48 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful left foot...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful left foot that he woke up with. Initially, he didn't want to bother the doctor, but now he's concerned because he can't feel his foot or move his toes. Upon examination, the left foot is cold to the touch and very pale. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute limb ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia and Compartment Syndrome

      Acute limb ischaemia is a condition that is characterized by six Ps: pain, pallor, pulselessness, perishingly cold, paresthesia, and paralysis. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention from a vascular surgeon. Delaying treatment for even a few hours can lead to amputation or death. On the other hand, acute compartment syndrome occurs when the pressure within a closed muscle compartment exceeds the perfusion pressure, resulting in muscle and nerve ischaemia. This condition usually follows a traumatic event, such as a fracture. However, in some cases, there may be no history of trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 49 - A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of flushing and warmth. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of flushing and warmth. She has been in good health lately, except for a stomach bug she had two weeks ago. Her medical history includes hyperlipidemia, hypertension, myocardial infarction, and type II diabetes mellitus. Although she used to smoke, she has quit and does not drink alcohol. She lives with her husband in a bungalow.

      During the consultation, she reveals that her cardiologist recently prescribed niacin to her. Her recent lab results show an increase in total cholesterol.

      Which of the following is responsible for the adverse effects observed in this patient?

      Substance P
      15%
      Bradykinin
      20%
      Prostaglandins
      48%
      Serotonin
      9%
      Kallikreins
      8%

      The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itching, are caused by prostaglandins.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandins

      Explanation:

      The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itchiness, are caused by the release of prostaglandins. Niacin activates dermal Langerhans cells, which leads to an increase in prostaglandin release and subsequent vasodilation. To prevent these side effects, aspirin is often given 30 minutes before niacin administration. Aspirin works by altering the activity of COX-2, which reduces prostaglandin release.

      Substance P acts as a neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, and its neurokinin (NK) receptor 1 is found in specific areas of the brain that affect behavior and the neurochemical response to both psychological and somatic stress.

      Bradykinin is an inflammatory mediator that causes vasodilation, but it is not responsible for the adverse effects seen with niacin use.

      Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in regulating various processes in the brain. Low levels of serotonin are often associated with anxiety, panic attacks, obesity, and insomnia. However, serotonin does not mediate the side effects observed with niacin use.

      Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is a medication used to treat hyperlipidaemia. It is effective in reducing cholesterol and triglyceride levels while increasing HDL levels. However, its use is limited due to the occurrence of side-effects. One of the most common side-effects is flushing, which is caused by prostaglandins. Additionally, nicotinic acid may impair glucose tolerance and lead to myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 50 - A 3-week old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who has noticed yellowish discharge from her umbilicus on a daily basis. The baby was born without any complications and is healthy otherwise.

      Which embryological structure is most likely responsible for this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allantois

      Explanation:

      If the allantois persists, it can result in a patent urachus, which may manifest as urine leakage from the belly button.

      A patent urachus is a remnant of the allantois from embryonic development that links the bladder to the umbilicus, enabling urine to flow through and exit from the abdominal area.

      When the vitelline duct fails to close, it can lead to the formation of a Meckel’s diverticulum.

      The ductus venosus acts as a bypass for umbilical blood to avoid the liver in the fetus.

      The umbilical vessels serve as a conduit for blood to and from the fetus during gestation. They are not connected to the bladder and would not cause daily leakage.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (9/27) 33%
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