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Question 1
Incorrect
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A tool known as PrePex™ has been sanctioned by various organizations to reduce the spread of HIV. What is the purpose of this device?
Your Answer: Drug delivery system
Correct Answer: Painless circumcision
Explanation:PrePex Device Offers Painless Male Circumcision for HIV Prevention
The PrePex device is a new method of male circumcision that is painless, sutureless, and does not require anaesthesia. It has been approved in countries such as Rwanda and is currently only available in sub-Saharan Africa. The World Health Organization (WHO) has found scientific evidence that male circumcision can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission. As a result, WHO is promoting this strategy in sub-Saharan Africa, where there has been a significant increase in the number of circumcision operations. However, it is important to note that circumcision should be used in conjunction with other measures, such as condom use, to reduce the incidence of HIV infection. The PrePex device is not designed for any other purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with HIV and started on antiretroviral medication. She initially responded well to treatment, but now presents with fatigue and abdominal discomfort after 8 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- Haemoglobin: 92 g/L (115-165)
- Urea: 6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Bilirubin: 3 mg/dL; direct: 0.2 mg/dL (0.3-1.9)
- AST: 39 IU/L (<35)
- ALP: 150 IU/L (44-140)
Which specific antiretroviral drug is this patient currently taking?Your Answer: Atazanavir
Explanation:Drug Reaction with Atazanavir and Indinavir
The use of protease inhibitors such as atazanavir and indinavir can lead to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. This condition was observed in a patient who had normal renal function and mildly raised liver enzymes. The reaction is usually benign and reversible upon discontinuation of the drug. The mechanism of this drug reaction is competitive inhibition of the UGT1A1 enzyme. Individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome are more susceptible to this reaction.
Other drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS have different side effect profiles. Nevirapine can cause hepatitis, which is characterized by elevated liver enzymes. Stavudine can cause peripheral neuropathy and pancreatitis, but it is being phased out of treatment regimens. Tenofovir can lead to renal dysfunction, which was not observed in this patient. Zidovudine can cause anemia, hepatitis, and myopathy, among other side effects.
In conclusion, the patient’s presentation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is most likely due to the use of atazanavir or indinavir. Discontinuation of the drug is usually sufficient to reverse the condition. Other drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS have different side effect profiles and should be considered when evaluating patients for drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29-year-old man from Manchester presents to you with a complaint that he has been treated for oral thrush by one of your colleagues for several months, but the topical treatment has not been effective. He is currently taking an oral anticoagulant for a DVT that occurred without any apparent cause, and has recently experienced an outbreak of shingles. He has not taken any antibiotics recently and has recently separated from his long-term male partner. Upon examination, he appears to be thin and has typical Candida on his tongue and palate. Which test would be the most appropriate to perform in this case?
Your Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Oral Candidiasis and its Association with Immune System Defects
Oral candidiasis, a fungal infection in the mouth, is a concerning condition in young healthy individuals as it may indicate an underlying defect in the immune system. Further investigation is necessary to identify the root cause of the infection. In London, men who have sex with men have a high prevalence of HIV, which is a likely diagnosis in such cases. HIV weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and other health complications.
Apart from HIV, other immune system defects may also lead to oral candidiasis. Recurrent attacks of shingles in a young person may also indicate a weakened immune system. Additionally, HIV infection is a predisposing factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a condition where blood clots form in the veins deep within the body. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of oral candidiasis and other related conditions to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Overall, oral candidiasis is a red flag for immune system defects, and healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying and addressing the root cause of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman complains of an itchy rash on her hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Several other residents in her nursing home have reported similar symptoms.
What could be the possible diagnosis?Your Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei. The mite burrows into the skin, resulting in a rash that is itchy and typically affects the skin folds and interdigital webs of the arms and legs. The itch may persist for a few weeks even after successful treatment. The condition is spread through skin contact and sharing of clothes and bedding. Treatment involves the use of permethrin-containing lotions.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vasculitis that affects the blood vessels in the skin. Psoriasis is characterized by plaques on the extensor surfaces of the body, which are topped with thick, silvery scales. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions in elderly patients. If the blisters are intact, bullous pemphigoid or cicatricial pemphigoid may be considered. Look for involvement in other sites, as erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid is associated with new medication and involves the flexural areas of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman, who is 20 weeks’ pregnant, presents to the Emergency Department with concerns about her exposure to chickenpox. She recently spent time with her niece who was diagnosed with the virus. The patient is worried about the potential impact on her pregnancy and reports having had chickenpox as a child. Upon examination, there is no rash present. What is the best course of action to address the patient’s concerns?
Your Answer: Check varicella zoster immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies
Explanation:Managing Chickenpox in Pregnancy: Testing and Treatment Options
Chickenpox, caused by the varicella zoster virus, can pose a risk to pregnant women and their unborn babies. If a patient is unsure whether they have had chickenpox in the past, it is important to test for immunity before deciding on a course of action. This is done by checking varicella zoster IgG levels. If a patient has confirmed lack of immunity and is exposed to chickenpox, they may be offered varicella zoster immunoglobulin as prophylaxis. High-risk patients with confirmed chickenpox may require IV acyclovir treatment, while oral acyclovir is reserved for certain patients. Reassurance alone is not appropriate in this situation. It is important to take steps to manage chickenpox in pregnancy to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department with a red rash. Her mother reports that it started behind her ears and then spread down her head and neck before spreading to the rest of her body. The mother is unsure if her daughter has received all of her vaccinations. Upon further questioning, the mother reveals that her daughter had been feeling unwell with cold-like symptoms and a low-grade fever in the week leading up to the rash.
During the examination, you observe grey/white spots in the girl's mouth and throat, indicating an infectious illness. What is the most severe complication that can arise from this illness?Your Answer: Encephalitis
Correct Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Explanation:Measles and its Complications
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. Patients usually experience non-specific cold-like symptoms such as cough, fever, coryza, and conjunctivitis for a week before the appearance of a rash. Koplik spots, grey/white spots in the oral mucous membranes, are a telltale sign of the disease. Treatment is supportive, and symptoms usually resolve within one to two weeks in mild cases.
However, measles can lead to various complications, including diarrhea, vomiting, conjunctivitis, and laryngitis. Less common complications include meningitis, pneumonia, encephalitis, hepatitis, bronchitis, thrombocytopenia, and croup. Rare complications such as optic neuritis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur. SSPE is a fatal condition that can develop several years after the measles infection and is characterized by gradual psycho-neurological deterioration, seizures, ataxia, and coma. Fortunately, SSPE is rare, occurring in only 1 in 100,000 cases of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old graduate is referred to the renal clinic by the local health center. She has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking 10 mg of ramipril and 5 mg of amlodipine. Her medical history reveals recurrent urinary tract infections during childhood and recent use of ibuprofen for a knee injury. On examination, her blood pressure is 178/95 mmHg, pulse is regular at 74 bpm, and BMI is 22 kg/m2. Her creatinine level is elevated at 178 μmol/L. What is the most likely reason for her presentation?
Your Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Reflux Nephropathy and its Management
Recurrent urinary tract infections during childhood are most likely caused by reflux nephropathy, which can lead to renal scarring, resistant hypertension, and chronic renal failure over time. Early intervention is crucial, including investigation in childhood, antibiotics, and referral to a urologist to identify and correct any anatomical abnormalities. Chronic interstitial nephritis caused by analgesic use is unlikely in this case, as the patient’s knee injury was likely acute. IgA nephropathy typically presents after respiratory tract infections, while post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occurs 10-14 days after streptococcal pharyngitis. Essential hypertension is diagnosed based on the absence of an underlying cause. Proper management of reflux nephropathy can prevent long-term complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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What is the most frequently occurring infectious agent linked to acute pyelonephritis?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Common Pathogens in Acute Pyelonephritis
Acute pyelonephritis is commonly caused by Escherichia coli, which accounts for more than 80% of cases. Other pathogens that can cause this condition include Enterococcus faecalis, Klebsiella, and Proteus species. The infection typically begins in the bladder and then spreads to the renal parenchyma. At first, the bacteria multiply within the tubules. However, within 48 hours, damage to the tubular epithelium begins to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his GP. He had presented a week ago with malaise, headache, and myalgia, which was followed by a dry cough and fever. Despite a course of amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted. At the time of referral, he complained of cough, mild dyspnea, global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. On examination, he appeared unwell, had a fever of 39°C, and a maculopapular rash on his upper body. Fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest, and mild neck stiffness was noted. Investigations revealed abnormal levels of Hb, WBC, reticulocytes, Na, creatinine, bilirubin, alk phos, and AST, and patchy consolidation in both mid-zones on chest x-ray. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Mycoplasma pneumonia commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years and presents with systemic upset, dry cough, fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. It can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme. Haemolysis is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A 19-year-old female has suffered a minor cut on her right hand while gardening. She has received all necessary immunisations. What is the most appropriate course of action for tetanus prevention?
Your Answer: No action is required
Explanation:Tetanus Toxoid Immunisation Schedule
Active immunisation with tetanus toxoid is a routine vaccination given to infants at 2, 3, and 4 months of age as part of the DPT vaccine. A fourth dose is administered after three years, and a fifth dose is given before leaving school. Once a patient has received all five injections at the appropriate intervals, further toxoid is generally not required due to the risk of side effects and decreased immunity caused by overstimulation. Therefore, this man is considered fully immunised against tetanus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
