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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man fractured his hand during a street fight and was taken to the Emergency Department where X-rays were taken. A radiologist examined the films and observed a single fracture of the carpal bone that articulates with the majority of the base of the third metacarpal bone.
      Which of the following bones was most likely fractured?

      Your Answer: Capitate

      Explanation:

      The Carpal Bones: An Overview of the Bones in the Wrist

      The wrist is composed of eight small bones known as the carpal bones. These bones are arranged in two rows, with each row containing four carpal bones. The proximal row includes the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, and pisiform, while the distal row includes the trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate.

      The capitate bone is located in the center of the wrist and articulates with the base of the third metacarpal bone. The trapezium bone is the most lateral bone in the distal row and articulates with the base of the first metacarpal bone. The hamate bone is the most medial bone in the distal row and articulates with the fourth and fifth metacarpal bones.

      The pisiform bone is a small, seed-shaped bone located on the medial side of the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones. The triquetrum bone is also located in the proximal row and does not articulate with any of the metacarpal bones.

      Understanding the anatomy of the carpal bones is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
      What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?

      Your Answer: Osteonecrosis of the jaw

      Correct Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits the Menopause clinic seeking guidance on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is worried about her chances of developing osteoporosis, as her mother and sister experienced pelvic fractures due to osteoporosis after menopause. What is the most effective test to determine her likelihood of developing osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a common condition among postmenopausal women, with a high risk of fractures. Genetic predisposition, lack of exercise, and immobility are some of the contributing factors. To diagnose osteoporosis, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is a commonly used test to measure bone density. It compares the patient’s bone density with that of their peer group to estimate the risk of fractures. The T-score and Z-score are used to interpret the results. A T-score higher than −1 is normal, between −1 and −2.5 is osteopenia, and below −2.5 is osteoporotic. A Z-score compares the patient’s bone density with that of individuals of the same sex, age, weight, and ethnicity.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the pelvis may suggest osteopenia, but a DEXA scan is needed for a diagnosis. Pelvic X-ray is used to detect pelvic fractures. Serum alkaline phosphatase is normal in osteoporosis patients, while serum calcium is useful in ruling out alternative diagnoses.

      In conclusion, early diagnosis of osteoporosis is crucial to prevent fractures and improve quality of life. DEXA scan is the gold standard for measuring bone density, while other tests may be used to rule out alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand. He had a similar incident to the previous patient, where he fell onto an outstretched hand while playing basketball. He is experiencing pain in the wrist, particularly below the thumb. X-rays are taken, including AP, lateral, and scaphoid views, but no fracture is seen.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Discharge

      Correct Answer: Application of a scaphoid plaster and sling

      Explanation:

      Application of Scaphoid Plaster and Sling for Fracture Treatment

      A scaphoid fracture is typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in pain over the base of the thumb. Although special views of the scaphoid are required to confirm the injury, treatment is necessary in the absence of radiographic findings. A scaphoid plaster and sling are commonly used for immobilization, and the plaster should be removed after 14 days for repeat X-rays. If a fracture is detected, a new cast is applied, and a follow-up appointment is scheduled in four weeks. However, if no evidence of a fracture is found, the patient may have suffered a sprain, and no further follow-up is necessary unless symptoms persist. To avoid unnecessary immobilization, a CT or MRI scan may be ordered, with MRI being more sensitive. Slings are not recommended for scaphoid fractures. Repeat X-rays should be taken in 10-14 days, as bone resorption around the fracture allows for better visualization. Discharging the patient without further action is not recommended, as scaphoid fractures may not be immediately apparent and can lead to avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      54.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with increasing pains in his left hip, lumbar spine, and ribs, more recently associated with confusion, weakness, and falls. Routine investigations reveal low hemoglobin, high mean corpuscular volume, low white cell count, low platelets, high sodium, high urea, high creatinine, high corrected calcium, low PO42-, high alkaline phosphatase, and high erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Based on this presentation and blood results, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Bone Pain and Confusion

      A patient presents with bone pain, confusion, pancytopenia with macrocytosis, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, and an ESR >100 mm/hour. The most likely diagnosis is multiple myeloma, as lytic bone lesions are causing the pain and hypercalcaemia is causing the confusion. Further testing for myeloma should be done, including radiographs, urinary Bence-Jones proteins, and serum electrophoresis.

      Other possible diagnoses include small cell carcinoma of the lung, but the pancytopenia and renal impairment make multiple myeloma more likely. Chronic myeloid leukaemia could also cause a raised white cell count, but fever and night sweats are more common symptoms. Hyperparathyroidism is unlikely due to the presence of pancytopenia, and myelofibrosis is a rare diagnosis that may also present with bone pain and pancytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started after lifting some heavy boxes during a move. The pain was initially limited to her lower back but now she has shooting pains radiating down the back of her thigh, the lateral aspect of her leg and into the lateral border of her left foot. The pain can wake her at night if she moves suddenly but does not otherwise disturb her sleep. She is well, without past medical history of note. She reports no lower limb weakness, disturbance of sphincter function, nor any saddle symptoms. Examination reveals a tender lumbar spine, numbness to the lateral border of the left foot and pain on straight leg raise at 40 degrees on the left. There is no limb weakness.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy while arranging a magnetic resonance (MR) scan of the lumbar spine

      Correct Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy, with a review after 8 weeks to consider onward referral to a spinal surgeon or musculoskeletal medicine specialist if no better

      Explanation:

      Management of Sciatica: Analgesia and Referral for Physiotherapy

      Sciatica, also known as lumbar radiculopathy, is a common condition caused by a herniated disc, spondylolisthesis, or spinal stenosis. It is characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness that typically extends from the buttocks down to the foot. Diagnosis is made through a positive straight leg raise test. Management involves analgesia and early referral to physiotherapy. Bed rest is not recommended, and patients should continue to stay active. Symptoms usually resolve within 6-8 weeks, but if they persist, referral to a specialist may be necessary for further investigation and management with corticosteroid injections or surgery. Red flag symptoms, such as major motor weakness, urinary/faecal incontinence, saddle anaesthesia, night pain, fever, systemic symptoms, weight loss, past history of cancer, or immunosuppression, require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a...

    Incorrect

    • A nursing student is assisting in orthopaedic surgery. A patient is having a lag screw fixation of a medial malleolar fracture. The student attempts to remember the structures in the vicinity of the medial malleolus.
      Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The tendon of the tibialis posterior lies posterior to the posterior tibial vascular bundle

      Correct Answer: The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most anterior structure passing behind the malleolus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Medial Malleolus: Clarifying Structures Passing Behind

      The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass behind it, and their precise arrangement can be confusing. Here are some clarifications:

      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior is the most posterior structure passing behind the malleolus.
      – The structures passing behind the medial malleolus, from anterior to posterior, are: the tendon of the tibialis posterior, the tendon of the flexor digitorum longus, the posterior tibial vein, the posterior tibial artery, the tibial nerve, and the flexor hallucis longus.
      – The tendon of the flexor digitorum longus lies immediately posterior to that of the tibialis posterior.
      – The great saphenous vein passes in front of the medial malleolus where it can be used for emergency venous access.
      – The tendon of the tibialis posterior lies anterior to the posterior tibial vascular bundle.
      – The posterior tibial vascular bundle lies immediately anterior to the tibial nerve in this region.

      Understanding the anatomy of the medial malleolus and the structures passing behind it is important for medical professionals who may need to access or treat these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of ankle pain, swelling, and bruising after an inversion injury while playing football. What clinical signs would indicate the need for an ankle X-ray?

      Your Answer: Inability to weight-bear alone

      Correct Answer: Inability to weight-bear and pain over the lateral malleolus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules for X-rays in Ankle and Foot Injuries

      The Ottawa ankle rules are used to determine whether an X-ray is necessary for ankle and foot injuries. If there is pain in the malleolar zone plus bony tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula, or inability to weight-bear immediately post-injury and in the ED, an ankle X-ray is required. However, inability to weight-bear alone is not an indication for an X-ray, but a thorough assessment is necessary to rule out a bony injury. For foot X-rays, pain in the midfoot and bony tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal or navicular bone, or inability to weight-bear, are indications. Pain alone is not an indication for an ankle X-ray, and bony tenderness at the base of the first metatarsal does not warrant an X-ray. Understanding these rules can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about X-rays for ankle and foot injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with weak, painful hands. The pain is worse when she types and at night. On examination, there is significant wasting of the thenar eminence muscles.
      This sign is most likely to be caused by:

      Your Answer: Compression of the median nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel, which is the space between the flexor retinaculum and the carpal bones. This compression leads to the compression of the median nerve, which supplies the muscles of the thenar eminence. As a result, any compression or space-occupying lesion in the carpal tunnel causes wasting of the thenar eminence.

      It is important to note that the recurrent thenar nerve, which actually supplies the thenar eminence, does not pass through the carpal tunnel. Instead, it branches off the median nerve beyond the carpal tunnel. Therefore, compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel will cause the symptoms associated with carpal tunnel syndrome.

      While the exact cause of carpal tunnel syndrome is often unknown, it has been associated with pregnancy, acromegaly, diabetes, and other diseases. Trauma to the forearm may also lead to this condition.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, which include weakness and wasting of the thenar eminence. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help alleviate these symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle tendon was most likely entrapped by the displaced sustentaculum tali in a 24-year-old professional off-road motorcyclist who suffered a complete fracture during a race?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum longus

      Correct Answer: Flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Bony Features of the Foot

      The foot is a complex structure that contains numerous muscles and bony features. Here are some important details about the muscles and their attachments:

      Flexor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates on the fibula and inserts onto the plantar surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It passes underneath the sustentaculum tali, which has a groove for the tendon of this muscle.

      Flexor Hallucis Brevis: This intrinsic muscle of the foot originates from the plantar surface of the cuboid and lateral cuneiform bones and tendon of the tibialis posterior muscle. It inserts on the lateral and medial sides of the base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Extensor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the proximal one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and related surface of the lateral tibial condyle. It inserts via dorsal digital expansions into the bases of the distal and middle phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Extensor Hallucis Longus: This muscle originates from the middle one-half of the medial surface of the fibula and adjacent surface of the interosseous membrane. It inserts on the dorsal surface of the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Flexor Digitorum Longus: This muscle originates from the medial side of the posterior surface of the tibia and inserts onto the plantar surfaces of the bases of the distal phalanges of the lateral four toes. It does not pass underneath the sustentaculum tali.

      Understanding the muscles and bony features of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating foot injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      37.5
      Seconds

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Orthopaedics (4/10) 40%
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