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Question 1
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A 14-year-old boy has been brought to see the family physician by his mother. He has been unwell for the past 3 days with spiking temperatures, the highest one being 38.7ºC. He has been complaining of abdominal pain. He has not had diarrhoea or vomiting, although he complains of nausea. He has coryzal symptoms and you feel that the most likely cause of his illness is a viral infection. As you are about to discharge with some advice on supportive measures and pain-relief, the mother asks you to prescribe some aspirin for his fever and pain-relief because paracetamol has not helped at all. The physician explains that aspirin is not suitable for children younger than 16 years of age and that there is only one exception to this rule.
What is the reason for not prescribing aspirin in children under 16 years of age and what is the only exception to this rule?Your Answer: Causes encephalopathy and brain damage, and the only exception is its use in the management of Kawasaki disease
Explanation:The majority of cases of Reye’s syndrome in children are linked to the use of aspirin (salicylate).
Kawasaki disease is a type of vasculitis that mainly affects children under the age of 5, causing symptoms such as high fever, swollen blood vessels, and enlarged lymph nodes. Aspirin is an exception and may be used in children under 16 years of age to treat this condition, which can also lead to heart damage.
Buerger’s disease is not treated with aspirin, so the second option is incorrect.
How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.
Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old father brings in his 4-year-old daughter, Lily, who was recently diagnosed with maple syrup disease after he noticed discoloured urine in her potty. The father is seeking information on how to manage her condition.
What is the recommended treatment for Lily's maple syrup disease?Your Answer: Avoiding iron-rich foods
Correct Answer: Restricting leucine, isoleucine and valine in the diet
Explanation:To treat maple syrup urine disease, it is necessary to limit the intake of leucine, isoleucine, and valine in the diet. This condition is caused by a deficiency of the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex enzyme, which leads to a reduced metabolism of these amino acids. If left untreated, the accumulation of these amino acids can cause severe acidosis, seizures, coma, brain swelling, and even death. However, other branched-chain amino acids are not affected and do not need to be restricted. Foods rich in calcium and iron do not need to be limited as well.
Understanding Maple Syrup Urine Disease
Maple syrup urine disease is a genetic disorder that occurs when the body is unable to break down certain amino acids, specifically leucine, isoleucine, and valine. This is due to a deficiency in the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex. As a result, there is an increase in alpha-ketoacids in the blood, which can lead to severe neurological defects, ketoacidosis, and even death if left untreated. One of the most noticeable symptoms of this disease is sweet-smelling urine that resembles maple syrup.
The treatment for maple syrup urine disease involves restricting the intake of leucine, isoleucine, and valine in the diet. This can help prevent the buildup of harmful substances in the body and reduce the risk of complications. It is important for individuals with this condition to work closely with a healthcare provider and a registered dietitian to ensure that they are getting the nutrients they need while avoiding foods that could be harmful. By understanding the causes and consequences of maple syrup urine disease, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and improve their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Correct
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A 36-year-old man who is HIV positive presents with flat purple patches in his mouth and on his lower legs. He is referred to dermatology and diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma. What is the cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Human herpes virus 8
Explanation:HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8) is the cause of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is commonly found in HIV patients.
Fifths disease, also known as slapped cheek syndrome, is caused by Parvovirus B19 and can lead to foetal hydrops.
Genital warts and cervical cancer are associated with the human papillomavirus.
Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is also linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, gastric cancer, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient presents with a sudden collapse and an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation. His medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, trigeminal neuralgia, and lymphoedema. He has been taking warfarin for a few years, but his INR from today is 1.2. The patient's records show that he was prescribed a new medication by his family doctor 8 days ago. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have been prescribed?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine enhances the activity of the CYP3A4 system, leading to the acceleration of warfarin metabolism and a decrease in its therapeutic efficacy. On the other hand, the other medications are P450 system inhibitors, which may interfere with warfarin breakdown and cause an elevated therapeutic effect.
The P450 system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body, and drug interactions can occur when certain drugs inhibit or induce the activity of these enzymes. The most common and important enzyme system involved in drug interactions is CYP3A4. Macrolides, antiretrovirals, and calcium channel blockers are substrates for this enzyme, while macrolides, protease inhibitors (including ritonavir), and imidazoles are inhibitors. Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone, rifampicin, and St John’s Wort are inducers of CYP3A4. Other enzyme systems affected by common drugs include CYP2D6, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2E1. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics are substrates for CYP2D6, while SSRIs and ritonavir are inhibitors. Warfarin and sulfonylureas are substrates for CYP2C9, while imidazoles, amiodarone, and sodium valproate are inhibitors. Theophylline is a substrate for CYP1A2, while ciprofloxacin and omeprazole are inhibitors. Chronic alcohol and isoniazid are inducers of CYP2E1. It is important to be aware of these interactions to avoid adverse effects and ensure optimal drug therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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After delivery, a neonate displays rapid breathing, grunting, chest retractions, and insufficient oxygen saturation. The diagnosis is transient tachypnea of the neonate. What is a risk factor for this condition?
Your Answer: Prolonged labour
Correct Answer: Delivery by caesarean section
Explanation:Delayed absorption of fetal lung fluid is believed to be the cause of symptoms of transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN), a common respiratory distress condition in newborns that typically occurs within the first few hours after birth. While TTN is self-limiting, it is considered a risk factor for babies born via caesarean section, premature babies, and male infants. However, race, maternal substance abuse, and prolonged labour are not considered risk factors for TTN.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed absorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process.
Diagnosis of TTN is usually made through a chest x-ray, which may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure. Treatment for TTN involves observation and supportive care, with supplementary oxygen sometimes required to maintain oxygen levels.
The good news is that TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days, and most babies recover fully without any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Correct
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A new screening tool for predicting a person's risk of developing hypertension is being evaluated. The study includes 2400 participants. Among them, 900 were later diagnosed with hypertension. Out of these 900 participants, 180 had received a negative screening result. Additionally, 480 participants who did not develop hypertension were falsely identified as positive by the screening tool.
What is the specificity of this new hypertension screening tool?Your Answer: 68%
Explanation:Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visited the neurology clinic for a routine check-up. He was diagnosed with idiopathic Parkinson's disease a decade ago and has been taking levodopa since then, which has significantly improved his symptoms of slow movements, rigidity, and resting tremors. However, he recently developed writhing hand movements that have been minimally responsive to cabergoline for the past three months. The doctor has decided to initiate treatment with amantadine today.
What is the mechanism by which the antiviral property of the drug prescribed today takes place?Your Answer: Inhibits viral protease
Correct Answer: Inhibits viral M2 channel
Explanation:Amantadine is a drug used for adjuvant therapy in patients with Parkinson’s disease who develop dyskinesia unresponsive to other agents. It works by inhibiting the viral M2 channel protein of the influenzae virus, preventing the release of viral particles into the host cytoplasm and thus preventing replication. Additionally, it stimulates dopamine release from nerve endings. Inhibition of integrase, reverse transcriptase, viral protease, and CCR5 receptor have no role in influenzae or Parkinson’s disease treatment.
Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.
In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man comes to the hospital with a complaint of easy bruising. He was discharged from the hospital not long ago after recovering from community-acquired pneumonia that required extended intravenous and later oral broad-spectrum antibiotics. His vital signs are within normal limits. Lab results show a prolonged prothrombin time, a prolonged partial thromboplastin time, and a normal platelet count.
What is the probable underlying cause of his condition?Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Correct Answer: Vitamin K deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Correct
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A study examines the impact of age on male cardiologists. A group is chosen and divided into four categories based on their age. The first group is under 30, the second is between 30 and 45, the third is between 45 and 60, and the fourth is over 60. The group is monitored for the next ten years, and the incidence of heart disease is documented.
What is the dependent variable in this research?Your Answer: Rates of liver cirrhosis
Explanation:Understanding Variables in Research
Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.
The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.
Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.
Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Correct
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A 73-year-old male has been diagnosed with Barrett's oesophagus. The histological examination reveals a reversible alteration in the adult cell type. Due to prolonged chemical irritation, a glandular cell replaces a squamous cell. What is the type of cellular alteration demonstrated in this case?
Your Answer: Metaplasia
Explanation:Cellular Adaptations: Hypertrophy, Hyperplasia, Metaplasia, and Dysplasia
Cellular adaptations refer to the changes that a cell undergoes in response to external pressures to survive in a different steady state. There are four main types of cellular adaptations: hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia.
Hypertrophy is an increase in cell mass without an increase in cell number. This adaptive response is due to an increase in the number of intracellular organelles to maintain cell viability at high levels of aerobic metabolism.
Hyperplasia, on the other hand, is an increase in the number of cells, resulting in an increase in the volume of an organ or tissue. It can occur physiologically, under normal physiological control, or pathologically, due to excessive hormonal stimulation that is not under normal physiological control.
Metaplasia is a reversible change in form and differentiation, where one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type due to chronic chemical or physical irritation. This change can result in tissues having a form that they were not designed for.
Dysplasia is abnormal cell growth that is a morphological feature of malignancy, characterized by increased cell proliferation and incomplete differentiation. It can act as an early sign of a tumor, occurring at the epithelium stage where there is no invasion of the basement membrane and surrounding tissues.
In summary, cellular adaptations are essential for cells to survive in different steady states. Understanding the different types of cellular adaptations can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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During your placement on the respiratory ward, you observe an influenzae outbreak. Besides haemagglutinin, what is the other antigenic determinant of this illness?
Your Answer: Nucleoprotein
Correct Answer: Neuraminidase
Explanation:The major antigenic determinants of influenzae are haemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA). HA attaches to sialic acid residues on the cell surface, while NA catalyzes the cleavage of glycosidic linkages to sialic acid bonds, enabling new progeny viruses to exit the cell. Therefore, the correct answer is neuraminidase.
Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions
Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.
Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.
Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with a swollen and hot lower limb. She reports that the condition developed a week ago, a few days after a stray cat scratched her on her way home. The patient also complains of feeling generally unwell, with fever and nausea. Besides her limb, she has type 2 diabetes and is clinically obese.
Upon a thorough examination, the GP diagnosis cellulitis and prescribes oral antibiotics. The patient is advised to return if her symptoms worsen or fail to improve after the antibiotic course.
What parts of the patient's leg are infected in this case?Your Answer: Upper dermis & superficial lymphatics
Correct Answer: Deeper dermis & subcutaneous tissues
Explanation:Cellulitis is a type of infection that affects the deeper dermis and subcutaneous tissues, while erysipelas only affects the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics. If left untreated, cellulitis can lead to serious complications such as amputation, sepsis, and even death. The most common bacteria that cause cellulitis are Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus.
It’s important to note that the epidermis is not typically affected in cellulitis. Impetigo, on the other hand, is a common infection of the epidermis that is highly contagious and often affects children.
If the upper dermis and superficial lymphatics are infected, erysipelas is the likely diagnosis. This condition is similar to cellulitis and is managed in a similar way.
Necrotising fasciitis, a rapidly progressive and life-threatening infection, is not cellulitis. This type of infection affects the deep muscles and fascia.
Lastly, it’s worth noting that deep vein thrombosis, which presents similarly to cellulitis, is not a type of cellulitis. It’s a condition where clots form in the deep veins.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old teacher who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma would like to know about the prognosis of the disease.
Which statistical technique is commonly used to forecast survival rates for melanoma patients?Your Answer: Regression analysis
Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Kaplan-Meier estimator is utilized to approximate the probable survival of patients, particularly after being diagnosed with cancer.
A Weibull distribution is a type of continuous probability distribution. Regression analysis is a statistical method used to estimate the correlation between two variables. The student’s t-test is a widely used technique for testing a hypothesis based on the difference between sample means, and can be employed to determine if two sets of data are significantly distinct from each other. A time series refers to a sequence of data points that are arranged in chronological order.
Understanding Kaplan-Meier Curves
When conducting experiments that involve survival time, it is important to compare the survival rates of different groups. This is where Kaplan-Meier curves come in. These curves show the proportion of individuals surviving at each plotted time on the X axis. However, the term ‘survival’ can be misleading as these curves can also be used to study the time required to reach any well-defined endpoint, such as the time to relapse in psychotic illness or the time to an episode of self-harm.
Kaplan-Meier curves are a useful tool for comparing the survival rates of different groups. The graph illustrates a typical Kaplan-Meier survival curve, with the vertical green line indicating the situation at day 80 of the study. At this point, it is clear that 75% of group A and 40% of group B have survived. By using these curves, researchers can gain valuable insights into the survival rates of different groups and make informed decisions about the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Correct
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John is a 50-year-old African-American male who is admitted to hospital for potential isoniazid toxicity, after he developed worsening nausea, vomiting, rash and fever. During his hospital stay, it is identified that John is a slow acetylator, which led to the isoniazid toxicity.
As a slow acetylator, which of the following drugs could also be potentially toxic if given to this patient?Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions
Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.
First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status
First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.
Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.
Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male presents with myoclonus and confusion. His blood test shows an elevated level of ammonium. He has a familial history of a urea cycle disorder. What specific enzyme deficiency is present in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
Explanation:Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of the urea cycle, which is a series of six enzymatic and two transport steps required to metabolize and eliminate nitrogen produced by the breakdown of amino acids in proteins and other nitrogen-containing molecules. If there is a deficiency of this enzyme, it can result in high levels of ammonium, leading to encephalopathy.
Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis.
Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.
The rate of glycolysis is limited by the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which vitamin is essential for the production of collagen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis as it is required for the hydroxylation of proline.
Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders
Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.
Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents to the oncologist with suspected lymphoma. She reports experiencing fever and night sweats, and has a history of glandular fever. Upon examination, cervical lymph nodes are found to be enlarged. A lymph node biopsy is performed and staining for a specific cell surface marker is conducted. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is confirmed, leading to a diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the cell surface marker associated with Reed-Sternberg cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD15
Explanation:Reed-Sternberg cells, which are present in individuals with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, express CD15. CD3 is present on all T cells, while T helper cells express CD4. CD16 binds to the Fc region of IgG.
Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions
Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.
Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is prescribed erythromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis
Explanation:Macrolides work by inhibiting protein synthesis through their action on the 50S subunit of ribosomes. This class of antibiotics, which includes erythromycin, does not inhibit cell wall synthesis, topoisomerase IV enzyme, or disrupt the cell membrane, which are mechanisms of action for other types of antibiotics.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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As a doctor in the emergency department, you are presented with a 72-year-old woman who has been brought in by her carers due to a large erythematous area on her lower leg. Upon questioning, the patient reveals that she scratched her leg while gardening at her assisted living facility last week.
Upon examination, you notice a clearly demarcated erythematous area on the lateral aspect of her right lower leg. The area is hot to touch, but the patient is comfortable at rest and not experiencing any breathlessness. Upon auscultation, her chest is clear. Her chart shows a temperature of 37.6ºC.
The carers inform you that the patient has no allergies but has a history of type 2 diabetes. Based on the likely diagnosis, what medication should you administer immediately?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:It is highly unlikely that the patient has a pulmonary embolism as acute-onset breathlessness is not a common symptom of individuals with a PE. Additionally, the presence of a well-demarcated lesion on the calf and a history of skin trauma supports a diagnosis of cellulitis instead. Therefore, treatment with apixaban is not appropriate. Azithromycin would be a suitable alternative if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Although cellulitis can cause pain, providing analgesia such as paracetamol is not a primary concern.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman arrived at the emergency department with a sudden chest pain that started an hour ago. She experienced sweating, nausea, and vomiting. An electrocardiogram showed a non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction in the anterior leads, and a blood test revealed elevated levels of troponin. The woman was admitted to the coronary care unit for treatment. After a few days, the interventional cardiologist discussed with the woman the possibility of inserting a stent to prevent future myocardial infarctions. A new type of drug-eluting stent was recently tested in a small group of patients at a hospital. The researchers discovered that the new stent was not more effective than the currently available stents in reducing future myocardial infarctions. What type of error or bias is more likely in this trial?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type II error
Explanation:1: A study is considered to be statistically significant when the probability of obtaining the observed results by chance is very low. This means that the observed results are likely to be due to the intervention or treatment being studied.
2: A p-value is a measure of the probability that any observed difference is due to chance. A lower p-value indicates a lower probability of chance and a higher likelihood that the observed difference is due to the intervention or treatment being studied.
3: Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected earlier, leading to an apparent increase in survival time. This is not a true increase in survival time, but rather a result of earlier detection.
4: Type II errors occur when a study’s sample size is too small to detect a difference. To prevent type II errors, a larger sample size should be recruited.
5: Confounding bias occurs when a variable interacts with both the outcome and predictor variables. If not controlled for, the effect of the predictor variable cannot be accurately determined.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of excessive thirst and frequent urination. He has no medical history and is not on any medications. He is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol.
His HbA1c level is 50 mmol/mol (<48). Despite attempting to manage his condition through diet and exercise, his HbA1c level remains unchanged.
What is the probable mechanism of action of the medication that will likely be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)
Explanation:Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is scheduled for a fenestrated endovascular aortic repair (FEVAR) to treat a 12cm juxtarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm. Prior to the procedure, he is given propofol IV for induction of anesthesia and subsequent intubation and ventilation. Can you explain how this drug affects the central nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GABA receptor agonist
Explanation:Propofol acts primarily by activating GABA receptors, which results in the influx of chloride ions and stabilization of the resting potential, leading to reduced excitatory activity. AMPA receptor antagonists may have potential in treating epilepsy, while flumazenil, a reversal agent for benzodiazepine overdose, exhibits GABA antagonism. Ketamine, on the other hand, is a potent sedative that works by blocking NMDA receptors and is used as an induction agent in anesthesia in certain situations, such as pre-hospital care. Although H1 receptor activation in the tuberomammillary nucleus plays a crucial role in the sleep-wake cycle, drugs that activate this pathway have not been utilized as hypnotics.
Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents
Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.
Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A parent brings her 7-year-old child to the doctor with complaints of a stuffy nose and clear nasal discharge for the past 3 days. The doctor suspects acute coryza and recommends regular use of paracetamol. What is the viral agent most commonly associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhinovirus
Explanation:Rhinovirus is the cause of the common cold.
Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions
Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.
Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.
Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis of HIV. She reports feeling healthy and has no significant medical history. Her CD4 count is 300 cells/µL and viral load is 25,000 copies/mL.
What is the optimal timing for initiating antiretroviral therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At the time of diagnosis
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated immediately upon diagnosis of HIV, regardless of the CD4 count, according to the BNF. Waiting for symptoms to appear before starting treatment is not recommended, as symptoms may indicate a need to adjust the antiretroviral therapy. A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/µL indicates that HIV has progressed to AIDS. Previously, a CD4 count of less than 500 was recommended for starting treatment, but this is no longer the case. The viral load is primarily used to monitor the response to antiretroviral therapy, with the goal of achieving an undetectable level.
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old male is found to have a small head, a smooth philtrum, and epicanthic folds. He also experiences cyanosis when exerting himself and has difficulty eating due to a cleft palate. Based on this presentation, what is the child at higher risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent infections
Explanation:The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion), which is characterized by thymus hypoplasia leading to recurrent infections. Other symptoms associated with this condition can be remembered using the acronym CATCH-22, which includes cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, cleft palate, hypoparathyroidism leading to hypocalcaemia, and the location of the deletion on chromosome 22.
Atopic conditions such as eczema, allergies, and asthma are also common in some individuals.
Premature aortic sclerosis is often seen in individuals with Turner syndrome (45 XO), while pulmonary hypoplasia is associated with the Potter sequence. Elevated cholesterol levels may be caused by a genetic hypercholesterolaemia syndrome.
DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymus hypoplasia.
The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 12-day-old infant named Max is brought to the paediatric assessment unit due to yellowing of the skin that started 3 days ago. Max is currently in a bright and alert state and has not experienced any fever. The baby has been passing urine and stool normally, and the mother has not noticed any changes in this regard.
Apart from the jaundice, the mother has no other concerns, and Max has been thriving since birth. Max was born at term, is breastfed, and there are no other children in the house.
Hb: 140 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Bilirubin: 30 µmol/L (3 - 17)
Upon further testing, it is revealed that Max's unconjugated bilirubin levels are 26 µmol/L. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of the jaundice in Max's case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic immaturity
Explanation:Neonatal jaundice caused by physiological factors is a result of the liver’s immaturity and the breakdown of fetal hemoglobin. To determine the cause of jaundice, both clinical symptoms and laboratory findings are crucial. In this case, the presence of isolated unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia without any clinical signs is indicative of physiological jaundice. This type of jaundice is common in the first few weeks of life and is caused by the immaturity of the liver and increased breakdown of hemoglobin. The fact that the baby is being breastfed also supports this diagnosis. Obstructive jaundice, on the other hand, would present with an obstructive picture and an elevated conjugated bilirubin level, which is not the case here. In MCQs, the history often provides clues, such as pale stools and dark urine.
Understanding Jaundice in Newborns
Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.
Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.
Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of persistent fatigue, difficulty breathing, and heavy menstrual bleeding. Upon conducting a full blood count, the following results are obtained: Hb 94 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L), platelets 175 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC 9.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). The doctor decides to prescribe ferrous sulfate. What is the most likely side-effect of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Iron supplementation may be used to treat iron deficiency anaemia caused by heavy menstrual bleeding, but patients should be aware that constipation is a common side-effect. Ankle swelling is not a side-effect of iron supplements, but may be associated with calcium channel blockers. Iron supplements do not typically cause drowsiness, but medications such as antihistamines and benzodiazepines can. A dry cough is a side-effect of ACE inhibitors, not iron supplements.
Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion
Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.
The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.
In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with persistently high blood pressures above 180/120 mmHg despite being on multiple antihypertensive medications. She reports experiencing palpitations, tremors, and sweating even without physical activity for the past month. Upon further investigation, an abdominal CT scan reveals a 1 cm mass on her left adrenal gland, which is suspected to be a phaeochromocytoma. Additionally, her serum and urine catecholamine levels are significantly elevated. What is the mechanism by which this hormone is causing the observed pathological effects in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G protein-coupled receptor
Explanation:G-protein coupled receptors, such as adrenoreceptors, mediate adrenergic effects on the body, including vasoconstriction, increased cardiac contractility, and bronchodilation. These receptors interact with hormones and trigger a cascade of secondary messengers within the cell to effect changes. Enzyme-linked receptors, such as guanylate cyclase-coupled receptors, and ligand-gated ion channels, such as the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, also play important roles in cellular signaling. Receptor tyrosine kinases, including the insulin receptor, are another group of important receptors that lead to phosphorylation of downstream targets. Additionally, ion channels themselves can be altered or blocked to affect intracellular changes.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice since birth. Despite one week of phototherapy, the yellowing has not improved. The mother reports that the baby was born at 39 weeks' gestation without any birth trauma or injury. Newborn screening tests, including a thyroid function test, were normal. The mother and baby are both blood group O and Rh-negative, with no known family history of haematological conditions or liver problems. The mother has also noticed that the baby has been passing pale stools and dark urine.
On examination, the baby appears healthy and has no fever, with scleral icterus present. The baby is moving all four limbs and has symmetrical Moro's reflex. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses.
What is the likely condition affecting this four-week-old baby boy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Explanation:If a newborn has jaundice for more than 14 days, it is likely due to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This type of prolonged neonatal jaundice is usually caused by post-hepatic factors, such as biliary atresia or choledochal cysts. Haemolysis may also cause jaundice, but in this case, it is unlikely due to the absence of conjunctival pallor, no family history of haematological conditions, and both the mother and baby being blood group O and Rh-negative. Congenital infections, like cytomegalovirus infection, may also cause jaundice, but the baby appears healthy and does not show any signs of TORCH infections.
Understanding Jaundice in Newborns
Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.
Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.
Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 6 month-old infant brought to the clinic for a routine check-up. The child was born via a normal vaginal delivery at 40 weeks of gestation.
During the examination, the infant was found to be jaundiced.
Further investigations revealed abnormal liver function tests and a diagnosis of classic galactosaemia was confirmed through a heel prick test.
What is the underlying reason for the infant's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency
Explanation:The condition known as classic galactosaemia is the result of a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT). Other enzyme deficiency conditions include pyruvate kinase deficiency, galactokinase deficiency (also known as galactosemia type 2), and neonatal diabetes mellitus caused by a deficiency in glucokinase.
Disorders of Galactose Metabolism
Galactose metabolism is a complex process that involves the breakdown of galactose, a type of sugar found in milk and dairy products. There are two main disorders associated with galactose metabolism: classic galactosemia and galactokinase deficiency. Both of these disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, which leads to the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate. This disorder is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, infantile cataracts, and hepatomegaly.
On the other hand, galactokinase deficiency is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactokinase, which results in the accumulation of galactitol. This disorder is characterized by infantile cataracts, as galactitol accumulates in the lens. Unlike classic galactosemia, there is no hepatic involvement in galactokinase deficiency.
In summary, disorders of galactose metabolism can have serious consequences and require careful management. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for improving outcomes and preventing complications.
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- General Principles
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