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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. Around...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friends. Around 2 hours ago he was allegedly assaulted outside of a bar. He was repeatedly punched in the head and has sustained some bruising around his eyes. His friends report that he is 'concussed' and say that he is confused. On examination his GCS is 14 (M6 V4 E4) and he has trouble explaining where he is. There are no focal neurological features. There is no past medical history of note. Tonight he has drunk around four pints of lager. What is the most appropriate management with regards to a possible head injury?

      Your Answer: CT head scan within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, a CT head scan is necessary for this patient as their GCS remains below 15 after 2 hours.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In people aged 45-64, what is the most frequent cause of blindness? Choose...

    Incorrect

    • In people aged 45-64, what is the most frequent cause of blindness? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Causes and Prevalence

      Diabetes can lead to various ophthalmic complications, including glaucoma, cataracts, and neuropathies, but the most common and potentially blinding is diabetic retinopathy. This condition accounts for 12% of all new cases of blindness in developed countries and is the leading cause of new blindness in people aged 25-64 years. Glaucoma, a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve, is more prevalent in the aging population, with up to 15% affected by the seventh decade of life. Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world, with non-exudative (dry) AMD comprising more than 90% of patients diagnosed with AMD. Optic atrophy, a sign of many disease processes, can cause changes in the color and structure of the optic disc associated with variable degrees of visual dysfunction. Finally, corneal abrasion, caused by a disruption in the integrity of the corneal epithelium or physical external forces, is the most common eye injury. While most people recover fully from minor corneal abrasions, deeper scratches can cause long-term vision problems if not treated properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      61.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The cardiac arrest team is summoned to the bedside of a 68-year-old male...

    Correct

    • The cardiac arrest team is summoned to the bedside of a 68-year-old male patient, 3 days post-myocardial infarction. Two nurses are currently administering chest compressions and a manual defibrillator has just been connected. Chest compressions are momentarily halted to analyze the rhythm, which reveals pulseless electrical activity. What actions should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline should be commenced immediately

      Explanation:

      In the case of a non-shockable rhythm, it is crucial to administer adrenaline as soon as possible according to the ALS protocol. This should be done immediately and during alternate cycles. However, if the rhythm is shockable, adrenaline should be given after the third shock and then during alternate cycles. Amiodarone should be administered after the third shock, and a second dose may be considered after five shocks. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      101.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively worsening erythematous rash on her nose, forehead, and cheeks accompanied by telangiectasia and papules for the past year. The rash is exacerbated by exposure to sunlight and consumption of hot and spicy foods. She has previously sought medical attention for this condition and has been treated with topical metronidazole, but her symptoms persist. She has no allergies and is otherwise healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The patient has an erythematous rash on the nose, forehead, and cheeks with telangiectasia and papules, worsened by sun exposure and spicy food, suggesting a diagnosis of rosacea. The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cases is topical metronidazole, while severe or resistant cases require oral tetracycline. However, in this case, oral doxycycline should be given instead of metronidazole as it has been ineffective. Oral clarithromycin, erythromycin, and flucloxacillin are not appropriate treatments for rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
      - Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
      - Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
      - Weber's test: lateralisation to the right

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis externa

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.

      Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.

      Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      169.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the primary mode of operation of Nexplanon (etonogestrel contraceptive implant)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary mode of operation of Nexplanon (etonogestrel contraceptive implant)?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The primary way in which Nexplanon works is by preventing ovulation.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      72.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is in his seventh year of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is in his seventh year of haemodialysis (HD). He visits his general practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. He also complains of stiffness in his shoulders, hips and knees.
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between potential causes of joint pain: A brief overview

      Joint pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between potential causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. Here, we will briefly discuss some of the conditions that may cause joint pain and their distinguishing features.

      Dialysis amyloidosis, also known as beta-2-microglobulin (β-2m) amyloidosis, is a rare condition that affects patients undergoing long-term hemodialysis or continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. It is characterized by the accumulation of β-2m, a major constituent of amyloid fibrils, which can invade synovial membranes and osteoarticular sites, causing destructive osteoarthropathies. Symptomatic relief can be provided with medication, therapy, and surgical procedures, but renal transplantation is the treatment of choice.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic systemic inflammatory disease that is generally accepted to be triggered by an external factor, leading to synovial hypertrophy and chronic joint inflammation. Persistent symmetrical polyarthritis of the hands and feet is the hallmark feature of the disease.

      Diabetic neuropathy is the most common complication of diabetes mellitus, affecting up to 50% of patients with type 1 and type 2 disease. It involves symptoms or signs of peripheral nerve dysfunction in people with diabetes, after other possible causes have been excluded.

      Seronegative arthritis is characterized by joint pain and inflammation in the absence of serum rheumatoid factor (RF), which is present in approximately 60-80% of patients with RA.

      Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, which is strongly correlated with the severity of renal insufficiency. Typical symptoms include a tingling and pricking sensation in the lower extremities.

      By understanding the distinguishing features of these conditions, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat joint pain in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      381.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A teenage boy presents with bizarre delusions, a blunted affect and tangential thought...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy presents with bizarre delusions, a blunted affect and tangential thought processes.
      Which one of the following characteristics would indicate an unfavourable prognosis?

      Your Answer: Catatonia

      Correct Answer: A prolonged premorbid history of social withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Factors in Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental illness that can have a significant impact on a person’s life. While there is no cure for schizophrenia, early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve outcomes. Understanding prognostic factors can also be helpful in predicting the course of the illness and developing appropriate treatment plans.

      One important factor to consider is the premorbid history of the patient. A prolonged history of social withdrawal is predictive of more severe and long-lasting psychopathology. Additionally, a family history of schizophrenia in first-degree relatives can have a negative impact on prognosis, while a history in second-degree relatives has little significance.

      The onset of illness is also an important factor to consider. In schizophrenia, a sudden onset of illness has a more favourable prognosis than an insidious one. However, if the patient presents with catatonic symptoms, this is actually an indicator of a relatively good prognosis.

      Finally, MRI changes are associated with more severe symptoms and clinical course in people with schizophrenia. While it is not fully clear whether these changes are fixed or progress over time, they can be an important factor to consider in developing a treatment plan.

      Overall, understanding these prognostic factors can help clinicians develop appropriate treatment plans and provide better support for patients with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      183.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old boy comes to the emergency department with a dog bite on...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to the emergency department with a dog bite on his right leg. During examination, it is found that he has 2 puncture wounds on the anterior aspect of the leg. Apart from administering antibiotics, what is the appropriate way to treat the wounds?

      Your Answer: Thorough washout and dressing only

      Explanation:

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      158.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed