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  • Question 1 - A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal baby check. The infant has an asymmetrical skinfold around their hips. The skin folds under the buttocks and on the thighs are not aligning properly.
      What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ortolani’s manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hip

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Developmental Hip Dysplasia

      Developmental hip dysplasia is a condition that must be detected early for effective treatment. Clinical tests such as Barlows and Ortolani’s manoeuvres can screen for the condition, but an ultrasound scan of the hips is the gold standard for diagnosis and grading of severity. Asymmetrical skinfolds, limited hip movement, leg length discrepancy, and abnormal gait are also clues to the diagnosis. Isotope bone scans have no place in the diagnosis of developmental hip dysplasia. X-rays may be used in older children, but plain film X-rays do not exclude hip instability. Early detection and treatment with conservative management can prevent the need for complex surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father due to pain in her left hip and a new limp. She has no past medical history except for a recent cold she had 2 weeks ago, from which she has recovered. There is no history of trauma to the hip. Her developmental milestones have been normal so far.

      Upon examination, she is not running a fever. She tolerates slight movement of her left hip, but excessive motion causes her to cry.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level: 125 g/L (normal range for females: 110-140)
      - Platelet count: 220 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count: 9.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Recommend rest and analgesia

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      It is important to arrange urgent assessment for a child under 3 years old who presents with an acute limp. Referral for urgent paediatric assessment is the correct course of action, as transient synovitis is rare in this age group and septic arthritis is more common. Rest and analgesia should not be recommended, as further investigations are needed to rule out septic arthritis, which may involve an ultrasound or synovial fluid aspirate. Referral for an urgent MRI or X-ray of the hip is also not appropriate at this stage, as these investigations would be considered by a paediatrician after an initial urgent assessment.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      55.1
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  • Question 3 - A 5-year-old boy is seen in an acute paediatric clinic due to unexplained...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is seen in an acute paediatric clinic due to unexplained bruising and hepatosplenomegaly on examination. He has a past medical history of Down's syndrome and was placed in foster care immediately after birth. His birth mother, who was 45 years old at delivery, smoked during pregnancy and has a history of osteosarcoma. After further investigations, including a full blood count and bone marrow aspirate, the diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukaemia is suspected. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: History of Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Children with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of developing acute lymphoblastic leukaemia due to the loss of a gene that inhibits lymphocyte proliferation known as PCR2. This risk is over 30 times higher than in children without Down syndrome. Additionally, children with Down syndrome are over 100 times more likely to develop acute myeloid leukaemia. Family history of malignancy, maternal age, and female sex are not significant risk factors for the development of ALL.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      42.3
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  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. They...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. They report that she has had an upper respiratory tract infection for the past few days. Upon arrival, she complains of an increased headache. Upon examination, she exhibits neck stiffness and a positive Kernig's sign.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 16.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Creatinine 98 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Lumbar puncture Gram-negative diplococci –

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Stat dose of cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Management of Meningococcal Meningitis in Children: Prioritizing Antibiotic Administration

      Meningococcal meningitis is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent morbidity and mortality. The first step in management is administering a stat dose of third-generation cephalosporin antibiotics, such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone, as early as possible after lumbar puncture. If lumbar puncture cannot be performed within 30 minutes of admission, empirical treatment should be considered.

      While other interventions, such as intubation and mechanical ventilation, correction of electrolyte abnormalities, and imaging studies like CT or MRI scans, may be necessary at some point in management, they should not take precedence over administering antibiotics. Urgent CT or MRI scans are only indicated if there are clinical signs and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure or complications of meningitis.

      In summary, the priority in managing meningococcal meningitis in children is administering antibiotics as early as possible to prevent the rapid dissemination of the disease and its associated morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in a 12-month-old child? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical distribution of atopic eczema in a 12-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Flexor surfaces of arms and legs

      Correct Answer: Face and trunk

      Explanation:

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance after her parents awoke in...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance after her parents awoke in the middle of the night to a harsh coughing episode and noted she had difficulty breathing. She has been coryzal over the last 2 days but has never had any episodes like this before. The paramedics have given a salbutamol nebuliser, to some effect, but she continues to have very noisy breathing. Oxygen saturations are 94% on air, with a respiratory rate of 50.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Respiratory Conditions: Croup and Acute Epiglottitis

      Croup is a common upper respiratory tract infection in children caused by the parainfluenza virus. It leads to laryngotracheobronchitis and upper airway obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as a barking cough, stridor, and difficulty breathing. Treatment involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or inhaled budesonide, oxygen, and inhaled adrenaline in severe cases.

      Viral-induced wheeze and asthma are unlikely diagnoses in this case due to the lack of wheeze and minimal improvement with salbutamol. Inhalation of a foreign body is also unlikely given the absence of a history of playing with an object.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition that presents similarly to croup. It is caused by inflammation of the epiglottis, usually due to streptococci. Symptoms develop rapidly over a few hours and include difficulty swallowing, muffled voice, drooling, cervical lymphadenopathy, and fever. The tripod sign, where the child leans on outstretched arms to assist with breathing, is a characteristic feature.

      In conclusion, prompt recognition and appropriate management of pediatric respiratory conditions such as croup and acute epiglottitis are crucial to prevent complications and ensure optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      62.9
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  • Question 7 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department, during the autumn period,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department, during the autumn period, with severe dyspnoea at rest. She has been unwell for the past week with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor which are typically worse in the late evening. On examination, intercostal and subdiaphragmatic recessions are noticeable. A chest radiograph shows tapering of the upper trachea.
      What is the most probable pathogen responsible for this girl's condition?

      Your Answer: Bordetella pertussis

      Correct Answer: Parainfluenza virus

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of this patient’s dyspnoea at rest, combined with being generally unwell and the time of year, is croup. Croup is commonly caused by the parainfluenza virus. Bordetella pertussis, Parvovirus B19, and Respiratory syncytial virus are unlikely causes as they present with different symptoms and are associated with different conditions.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following is least commonly associated with constipation in toddlers? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least commonly associated with constipation in toddlers?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A seven-week-old baby presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-week-old baby presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of feeding difficulties and worsening respiratory distress. The infant has no significant medical history. During examination, a precordial ejection systolic murmur is heard and the lips appear bluish in color. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of fallot

      Explanation:

      TGA is a type of cyanotic congenital heart disease that presents within the first few days of life, while TOF typically presents at 1-2 months of age. In this case, the infant’s symptoms of decompensated heart disease with cyanosis rule out VSD, coarctation, and PDA, leaving TGA and TOF as possible diagnoses. The timing of the presentation suggests TGA as the more likely option, as it is duct dependent and presents early after birth. TOF, on the other hand, typically occurs later as the RV hypertrophy increases and causes a right to left shunt. TOF is characterized by VSD, RV hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, and an overriding aorta, with a boot-shaped heart on chest x-ray and RVH on ECG. Treatment involves surgical repair around 6 months of age and management of cyanotic spells with b-blockers.

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - In a toddler, what symptoms are unlikely to be present in cases of...

    Incorrect

    • In a toddler, what symptoms are unlikely to be present in cases of cardiac failure?

      Your Answer: Excessive perspiration

      Correct Answer: Ascites

      Explanation:

      Uncommon Clinical Features of Cardiac Failure in Infancy

      Ascites, or the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, is a rare occurrence in infants with cardiac failure. Additionally, there are several other uncommon clinical features that may be observed in these cases. Bibasal crackles, which are abnormal sounds heard during breathing, are not commonly present. Raised jugular venous pressure, which is an indication of increased pressure in the heart, is also not frequently seen. A third heart sound, which is an extra sound heard during a heartbeat, and pulsus alternans, which is a regular alternation of strong and weak pulses, are also uncommon in infants with cardiac failure. These features may be helpful in distinguishing cardiac failure from other conditions in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.1
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  • Question 11 - A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old boy who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome and born at 39 weeks gestation is brought to the hospital with complaints of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. He has not passed meconium yet.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Delayed passage or failure to pass meconium is a typical indication of Hirschsprung’s disease, which often manifests shortly after birth. Other symptoms include a swollen belly, vomiting of bile, fatigue, and dehydration. This condition is more prevalent in males and is linked to Down’s syndrome.

      Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease

      Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.

      In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 4-year-old girl is under your review for idiopathic constipation treatment with Movicol...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is under your review for idiopathic constipation treatment with Movicol Paediatric Plain. Despite her mother increasing the dose, there has been no improvement. The child is in good health and abdominal examination is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Stop Movicol Paediatric Plain and add lactulose + senna

      Correct Answer: Add senna

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 6-week-old baby girl starts to experience forceful vomiting after every feeding. She...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old baby girl starts to experience forceful vomiting after every feeding. She had been gaining weight normally prior to this. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      There are several medical conditions that can affect newborns and infants, including pyloric stenosis, congenital duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung’s disease, tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF), and necrotising enterocolitis (NEC). Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the circular pyloric muscle becomes hypertrophied, leading to non-bilious, projectile vomiting and constipation. Congenital duodenal atresia is the absence or closure of a portion of the lumen of the duodenum, causing bile-stained vomiting, abdominal distension, and inability to pass meconium. Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital defect where ganglion cells fail to migrate into the hindgut, leading to functional intestinal obstruction and failure to pass meconium. TOF is a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia, causing choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding. NEC is a condition primarily seen in premature infants, where portions of the bowel undergo necrosis, causing bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, and bloody stools. It is important to recognize the symptoms of these conditions early on to ensure prompt treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received all the recommended vaccines for his age group and has not experienced any adverse reactions. He is in good health and his height and weight are within normal range. The child's family migrated from India six years ago. What vaccinations should the doctor administer during this visit?

      Your Answer: 6-in-1 vaccine and meningococcal ACWY vaccination

      Correct Answer: 4-in-1 booster and MMR vaccination

      Explanation:

      For a child between 3 and 4 years old, the recommended immunisations are the MMR vaccine and the 4-in-1 booster, which includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, and polio. It is important to note that the child should have already received a BCG vaccination when they were between 0 and 12 months old if their parents were born in a country with a high incidence of tuberculosis. The HPV vaccine is not recommended for children of this age. The 3-in-1 booster and meningococcal B vaccine is an inappropriate combination, as is the 6-in-1 vaccine and meningococcal ACWY vaccine.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a widespread rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a widespread rash on her cheeks, neck, and trunk. The rash does not appear on her palms. The texture of the rash is rough and it appears red. The child's mother reports that she has been experiencing a sore throat for the past 48 hours. The child has no known allergies. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: No medication required

      Correct Answer: Oral penicillin V for 10 days and he is safe to return to school after 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for scarlet fever in patients who do not require hospitalization and have no penicillin allergy is a 10-day course of oral penicillin V. Patients should also be advised not to return to school until at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Scarlet fever is characterized by a red, rough, sandpaper-textured rash with deep red linear appearance in skin folds and sparing of the palms and soles. Calamine lotion and school exclusion until scabs have crusted over is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for chicken pox. High-dose aspirin is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for Kawasaki disease. No medication is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, as it is a bacterial infection that requires antibiotic therapy. Oral acyclovir for 10 days is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for shingles caused by herpes varicella zoster virus.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A preteen visits the sexual health clinic complaining of painful urination and penile...

    Correct

    • A preteen visits the sexual health clinic complaining of painful urination and penile discharge. He suspects he may have contracted a sexually transmitted infection. Upon further inquiry, you discover that he is just 10 years old, despite appearing older. When you ask about his sexual partner, he refuses to provide any additional details and insists that you keep this encounter confidential from his parents and others. What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Explain why you are unable to keep it a secret and tell him you will have to inform social services and his parents

      Explanation:

      Referral to social services for investigation is necessary as this may be a case of sexual abuse, particularly since the child involved is under 13 years old and may not have been able to give consent. As per GMC guidelines, it is recommended to share information about such sexual activity involving children under 13.

      NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.

      For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.

      For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.

      For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.

      Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office with a diffuse, blanching, erythematosus...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office with a diffuse, blanching, erythematosus rash all over her trunk, arms, and legs. She has been running a fever and feeling generally cranky and tired for about a week. Additionally, she has been experiencing abdominal discomfort for the past few days. During the examination, the doctor notices that the skin on her palms and soles is peeling, and her tongue is red with a white coating. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease can be identified by a combination of symptoms, including a high fever lasting more than five days, red palms with peeling skin, and a strawberry tongue. If a fever lasts for more than five days and is accompanied by desquamation and strawberry tongue, it is likely to be Kawasaki disease. Scarlet fever also causes skin peeling and strawberry tongue, but the fever is not as prolonged. Meningitis causes a non-blanching rash and more severe symptoms, while Henoch-Schonlein purpura presents with a non-blanching rash, abdominal pain, joint pain, and haematuria.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following symptoms is not associated with acute or subacute lead...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is not associated with acute or subacute lead poisoning in infants?

      Your Answer: Pica

      Correct Answer: Blue line on the gums

      Explanation:

      Lead Poisoning in Infancy

      Lead poisoning in infancy can cause various symptoms such as anaemia, pica, abdominal colic, and encephalopathy. However, the blue line on the gingival margin, which is a characteristic feature of very chronic lead poisoning, is unlikely to occur in infants. Lead poisoning can lead to anaemia due to erythroid hypoplasia and/or haemolysis. Pica and abdominal colic are common symptoms of lead poisoning in infants, while encephalopathy is only seen in severe cases. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if lead poisoning is suspected in infants. Proper management and treatment can prevent further complications and ensure the child’s well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born in breech position at 38+4 weeks gestation without any complications during delivery. However, two days after birth, the baby developed jaundice and was treated with phototherapy. The newborn physical examination was normal. The mother has a medical history of anaemia, asthma, and coeliac disease. The baby is currently thriving and is on the 45th centile. What investigations should the GP consider referring the baby for based on their medical history?

      Your Answer: Anti-TTG serum antibodies

      Correct Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old girl with a sprained ankle. During your examination, you observe some bruises on her arms. When you ask her about it, she becomes quiet and avoids eye contact. Her father quickly intervenes and explains that she fell off her bike. However, you have a gut feeling that something is not right. What steps do you take next?

      Your Answer: Put the child's arm in a cast and admit them, then contact child protection

      Explanation:

      The GMC’s good medical practice provides guidelines for safeguarding children and young people. It emphasizes the importance of considering all possible causes of an injury or signs of abuse or neglect, including rare genetic conditions. However, the clinical needs of the child must not be overlooked in the process. If concerns persist after discussing with parents, it is necessary to report to the appropriate agency. In this scenario, delaying action while the child is under your care is not acceptable. Therefore, contacting child protection would be the appropriate course of action.

      NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.

      For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.

      For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.

      For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.

      Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (7/20) 35%
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