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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination, clubbing of the fingers is observed. What medical condition is commonly associated with clubbing?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive airways disease (COAD)

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory and Other Causes of Clubbing of the Fingers

      Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. This condition is often associated with respiratory diseases such as carcinoma of the lung, bronchiectasis, mesothelioma, empyema, and pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is not typically associated with chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). Other causes of clubbing of the fingers include cyanotic congenital heart disease, inflammatory bowel disease, and infective endocarditis.

      In summary, clubbing of the fingers is a physical manifestation of various underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing of the fingers in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.5
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  • Question 2 - You are on call in the Emergency Department when an ambulance brings in...

    Incorrect

    • You are on call in the Emergency Department when an ambulance brings in an elderly man who was found unconscious in his home, clutching an empty bottle of whiskey. On physical examination, he is febrile with a heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg and pulse oximetry of 89% on room air. You hear crackles in the right lower lung base and note dullness to percussion in those areas. His breath is intensely malodorous, and there appears to be dried vomit in his beard.
      What is the most likely organism causing his pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Mixed anaerobes

      Explanation:

      Types of Bacteria that Cause Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can be caused by various types of bacteria. One common cause is the ingestion of large quantities of alcohol, which can lead to vomiting and aspiration of gastric contents. This can result in pneumonia caused by Gram-negative anaerobes from the oral flora or gastric contents, which produce foul-smelling short-chain fatty acids.

      Other types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia include Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common cause of severe bacterial pneumonia requiring hospitalization. It is a Gram-positive, catalase-negative coccus. Staphylococcus aureus is a less common cause of pneumonia, often seen after influenzae infection. It is a Gram-positive, coagulase-positive coccus.

      Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaires’ disease, a severe pneumonia that typically affects older people and is contracted through contaminated air conditioning ducts or showers. The best stain for this organism is a silver stain. Chlamydia pneumoniae causes an ‘atypical’ pneumonia with bilateral diffuse infiltrates, and the chest radiograph often looks worse than is indicated by the patient’s presentation. C. pneumoniae is an obligate intracellular organism.

      In summary, understanding the different types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      43.7
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  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old male smoker with severe rheumatoid arthritis comes to the clinic complaining...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male smoker with severe rheumatoid arthritis comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and increasing difficulty in breathing over the past few months. During the examination, he appears to be mildly cyanosed and has end inspiratory crepitations. A chest x-ray reveals widespread reticulonodular changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid lung

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis of Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is suspected in a patient with a history and examination features that suggest the condition. Rheumatoid lung is a common cause of pulmonary fibrosis, especially in severe rheumatoid disease and smokers. The reported changes on the chest X-ray are consistent with the diagnosis. However, to diagnose respiratory failure, a blood gas result is necessary.

      On the other hand, bronchial asthma is characterized by reversible airways obstruction, which leads to fluctuation of symptoms and wheezing on auscultation. The history of the patient is not consistent with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Pneumonia, on the other hand, is suggested by infective symptoms, pyrexia, and consolidation on CXR.

      In summary, the diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis requires a thorough history and examination, as well as imaging studies. Differential diagnosis should include other conditions that present with similar symptoms and signs, such as bronchial asthma, COPD, and pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) arrives at the Emergency Department (ED)...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) with haemoptysis. During his stay in the ED, he experiences another episode of frank haemoptysis, which measures 180 ml.
      A prompt computed tomography (CT) aortogram is conducted, revealing dilated and tortuous bronchial arteries.
      What action could potentially harm the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K

      Correct Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis patients

      Massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients can be a life-threatening complication. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration of blood and disturb clot formation. IV antibiotics should be given to treat acute inflammation related to pulmonary infection. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic drug, can be given orally or intravenously up to four times per day until bleeding is controlled. CF patients have impaired absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin K, which may lead to prolonged prothrombin time. In such cases, IV vitamin K should be given. Bronchial artery embolisation is often required to treat massive haemoptysis, particularly when larger hypertrophied bronchial arteries are seen on CT. This procedure is performed by an interventional vascular radiologist and may be done under sedation or general anaesthetic if the patient is in extremis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 5 - You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment...

    Correct

    • You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment when a 65-year-old man presents, complaining of malaise, cough and breathlessness. He says these symptoms have been present for 2 days, and he has brought up some yellow-coloured sputum on a few occasions. He reports no pain and no palpitations and is coping at home, although he has taken 2 days off work. He has no long-standing conditions but smokes five cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 15 years. He has no known allergies. On examination, he is alert and orientated, and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 126/84 mmHg and a temperature of 38.1 °C. There is bronchial breathing and crepitations on auscultation, particularly on the right-hand side of the chest, and heart sounds are normal.
      What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5-day course of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      Community-acquired pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be effectively managed in the community with appropriate treatment and management. The severity of the infection can be assessed using the CRB-65 score, which takes into account confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A score of zero indicates low severity and suggests that oral antibiotics and community treatment should suffice. However, admission to hospital may be necessary in certain cases.

      The first-choice antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is amoxicillin, although a macrolide may be considered in patients with penicillin allergy. Flucloxacillin may be added if there is suspicion of a staphylococcal infection or associated influenzae.

      It is important to provide safety-netting advice to patients, advising them to return if symptoms worsen or do not improve on antibiotics. Additionally, the absence of wheeze on auscultation and no history of respiratory disease suggests that a salbutamol inhaler is not necessary.

      While the CURB-65 score is commonly used, the CRB-65 score is more practical in community settings as it does not require laboratory analysis. Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment and management can effectively manage community-acquired pneumonia in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      possible left upper lobe fibrosis
      Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid lung disease

      Correct Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis

      A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset dyspnoea. She was a known case of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), previously treated for nephropathy and presently on mycophenolate mofetil and hydroxychloroquine sulfate. She had no fever. On examination, her respiratory rate was 45 breaths per minute, with coarse crepitations in the right lung base. After admission, blood test results revealed:
      Investigation Value Normal range
      Haemoglobin 100g/l 115–155 g/l
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      PaO2on room air 85 mmHg 95–100 mmHg
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.6mg/l 0-10 mg/l
      C3 level 41 mg/dl 83–180 mg/dl
      Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient as the cause for her dyspnoea?

      Your Answer: Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) positive for CD4 cells

      Correct Answer: High diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)

      Explanation:

      This case discusses diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH), a rare but serious complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Symptoms include sudden-onset shortness of breath, decreased haematocrit levels, and possibly coughing up blood. A chest X-ray may show diffuse infiltrates and crepitations in the lungs. It is important to rule out infections before starting treatment with methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. A high DLCO, indicating increased diffusion capacity across the alveoli, may be present in DAH. A pulmonary function test may not be possible due to severe dyspnoea, so diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, imaging, and bronchoscopy. Lung biopsy may show pulmonary capillaritis with neutrophilic infiltration. A high ESR is non-specific and sputum for AFB is not relevant in this acute presentation. BAL fluid in DAH is progressively haemorrhagic, and lung scan with isotopes is not typical for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      100
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Needle aspiration

      Correct Answer: Intrapleural chest drain

      Explanation:

      Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD

      When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 9 - A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two episodes of right-sided bronchial pneumonia in the past 2 months, which have not completely resolved. He has been a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day since he was 16 years old. On examination, he has signs consistent with COPD and right-sided consolidation on respiratory examination. His BMI is 18. Further investigations reveal a right hilar mass measuring 4 x 2 cm in size on chest X-ray, along with abnormal laboratory values including low haemoglobin, elevated WCC, and corrected calcium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus

      Explanation:

      Types of Bronchial Carcinomas

      Bronchial carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originates in the bronchial tubes. There are several types of bronchial carcinomas, each with their own characteristics and treatment options.

      Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus is the most common type of bronchial carcinoma, accounting for 42% of cases. It typically occurs in the central part of the lung and is strongly associated with smoking. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma may also present with hypercalcemia.

      Bronchial carcinoids are rare and slow-growing tumors that arise from the bronchial mucosa. They are typically benign but can become malignant in some cases.

      Large cell bronchial carcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors that lack the organized features of other lung cancers. They tend to grow quickly and are often found in the periphery of the lung.

      Small cell bronchial carcinoma is a highly aggressive type of lung cancer that grows rapidly and spreads early. It is strongly associated with smoking and is often found in the central part of the lung.

      Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus is the least associated with smoking and typically presents with lesions in the lung peripheries rather than near the bronchus.

      In summary, the type of bronchial carcinoma a patient has can vary greatly and can impact treatment options and prognosis. It is important for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and classify the type of bronchial carcinoma to provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a baby, visit a Fertility Clinic to receive the results of their tests. The man's semen sample has revealed azoospermia. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having a persistent cough that produces purulent sputum. What test would confirm the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) genetic screening and sweat test

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: A Case of Azoospermia and Bronchiectasis

      Azoospermia, or the absence of sperm in semen, can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders and respiratory diseases. In this case, a man presents with a longstanding cough productive of purulent sputum and is found to have azoospermia. The combination of azoospermia and bronchiectasis suggests a possible diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and reproductive systems.

      CF is diagnosed via a sweat test showing high sweat chloride levels and genetic screening for two copies of disease-causing CFTR mutations. While most cases of CF are diagnosed in infancy, some are diagnosed later in life, often by non-respiratory specialties such as infertility clinics. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, can also cause non-obstructive azoospermia and is diagnosed by karyotyping.

      Computed tomography (CT) thorax can be helpful in diagnosing bronchiectasis, but the underlying diagnosis in this case is likely to be CF. Testicular biopsy and testing FSH and testosterone levels can be used to investigate the cause of azoospermia, but in this case, investigating for CF is the most appropriate next step. Nasal biopsy can diagnose primary ciliary dyskinesia, another cause of bronchiectasis and subfertility, but it is not relevant in this case.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of male infertility should include a comprehensive medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations to identify any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the pleural fluid analysis reveals the following results:
      Pleural fluid Pleural fluid analysis Serum Normal value
      Protein 2.5 g/dl 7.3 g/dl 6-7.8 g/dl
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 145 IU/l 350 IU/l 100-250 IU/l
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Heart failure

      Explanation:

      Causes of Transudative and Exudative Pleural Effusions

      Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can be classified as transudative or exudative based on Light’s criteria. The most common cause of transudative pleural effusion is congestive heart failure, which can also cause bilateral or unilateral effusions. Other causes of transudative effusions include cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome. Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by pneumonia, malignancy, or pleural infections. Nephrotic syndrome can also cause transudative effusions, while breast cancer and viral pleuritis are associated with exudative effusions. Proper identification of the underlying cause is crucial for appropriate management of pleural effusions.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after being sat at home.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed and shows the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.48 7.35–7.45
      pO2 7.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6 kPa
      HCO3 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Which one of the following conditions is most likely to account for these investigation results?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Respiratory Failure: Causes and ABG Interpretation

      Respiratory failure is a condition where the lungs fail to adequately oxygenate the blood or remove carbon dioxide. There are two types of respiratory failure: type I and type II. Type I respiratory failure is characterized by low levels of oxygen and normal or low levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Type II respiratory failure, on the other hand, is characterized by low levels of oxygen and high levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

      Pulmonary embolism is the only cause of type I respiratory failure. This condition results in reduced oxygenation of the blood due to a blockage in the pulmonary artery. The ABG of a patient with pulmonary embolism would show low levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as respiratory alkalosis.

      Hypothyroidism, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and myasthenia gravis are all causes of type II respiratory failure. Hypothyroidism can result in decreased ventilatory drive, while Guillain–Barré syndrome and myasthenia gravis can cause respiratory muscle weakness, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis.

      Opiate overdose is another cause of type II respiratory failure. Opiates act on the respiratory centers in the brain, reducing ventilation and causing respiratory acidosis.

      In summary, understanding the causes and ABG interpretation of respiratory failure is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of breath. She describes it as ‘coming on suddenly without warning’. They have woken her at night before. She describes the attacks as a ‘tightness’ in the chest and says that they are associated with tingling in her fingers. The episodes resolve in a few minutes by themselves. She is otherwise medically fit and well. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has a family history of asthma. Examination is normal, and the peak expiratory flow rate is normal for her age and height.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Panic attacks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between possible causes of acute shortness of breath: A medical analysis

      When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, it is important to consider a range of possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest panic attacks rather than left ventricular failure, acute asthma attacks, COPD, or anaemia.

      Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset and spontaneous resolution, numbness of extremities, and normal examination and peak flow measurement. They can be triggered or occur unexpectedly, and may be due to a disorder such as panic disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder, or secondary to medical problems such as thyroid disease. Treatment includes psychological therapies, breathing exercises, stress avoidance, and pharmacological therapies such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

      Left ventricular failure, on the other hand, would cause respiratory problems due to pulmonary congestion, leading to reduced pulmonary compliance and increased airway resistance. Examination of someone with left ventricular failure would reveal pulmonary crackles and possibly a small mitral regurgitation murmur. However, it is unlikely that a woman would experience acute episodes such as these due to heart failure.

      Acute asthma attacks are typically triggered by inhaled allergens or other factors such as cold/dry air, stress, or upper respiratory tract infections. The absence of triggers in this case suggests that asthma is not the diagnosis.

      COPD is a possible differential due to the patient’s smoking history, but it is unlikely to have worsened so acutely and resolved in a matter of minutes. The normal peak expiratory flow rate also suggests that COPD is not the cause.

      Finally, anaemia would not account for acute episodes of shortness of breath, which are present normally on exertion in anaemic patients. Signs of anaemia such as pallor, tachycardia, cardiac dilation, or oedema are not mentioned in the patient’s history.

      In conclusion, a careful analysis of the patient’s symptoms and medical history can help differentiate between possible causes of acute shortness of breath, leading to appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to manage his condition. He complains of worsening shortness of breath and a chest x-ray reveals 'bilateral interstitial shadowing'. Which medication is the probable culprit for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate as a Cause and Treatment for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. Methotrexate, a chemotherapy drug, is a known cause of pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is also sometimes used as a treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis as a steroid sparing agent.

      According to medical research, other chemotherapy drugs such as alkylating agents, asparaginase, bleomycin, and procarbazine have also been linked to pulmonary parenchymal or pleural reactions in patients with malignant diseases. In addition, drug-related interstitial pneumonia should be considered in rheumatoid arthritis patients who are taking methotrexate or newer drugs like leflunomide.

      Despite its potential risks, methotrexate can be a useful treatment option for some patients with pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients for any adverse reactions and adjust treatment plans accordingly.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 15 - What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome?

      Your Answer: Polygraphic sleep studies

      Explanation:

      Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition where breathing stops during sleep, causing frequent interruptions in sleep and restlessness. This leads to daytime drowsiness and irritability. Snoring is often associated with this condition. To diagnose sleep apnoea, a polygraphic recording of sleep is taken, which shows periods of at least 30 instances where breathing stops for 10 or more seconds in seven hours of sleep. These periods are also associated with a decrease in arterial oxygen saturation. the symptoms and diagnosis of sleep apnoea is important for proper treatment and management of the condition.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with worsening shortness of breath during his visit to Respiratory Outpatients. This is his fifth episode of this nature since his diagnosis. In the past, he has responded well to tapered doses of oral steroids. What initial test would be most useful in evaluating his current pulmonary condition before prescribing steroids?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Function Tests with Transfer Factor in Sarcoidosis: An Overview

      Sarcoidosis is a complex inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, with respiratory manifestations being the most common. Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor are a useful tool in assessing the severity of sarcoidosis and monitoring response to treatment. The underlying pathological process in sarcoidosis is interstitial fibrosis, leading to a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with reduced transfer factor. While steroids are often effective in treating sarcoidosis, monitoring transfer factor levels can help detect exacerbations and assess response to treatment. Other diagnostic tests, such as arterial blood gas, chest X-ray, serum ACE levels, and HRCT of the chest, may also be useful in certain situations but are not always necessary as an initial test. Overall, pulmonary function tests with transfer factor play a crucial role in the management of sarcoidosis.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean man comes to the clinic complaining of fever, dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean man comes to the clinic complaining of fever, dry cough and joint pains. Upon examination, his chest is clear. He has several tender, warm, erythematous nodules on both shins. A chest X-ray reveals prominent hila bilaterally. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms that are typical of acute sarcoidosis, including erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and arthralgia. The patient’s ethnic background, being Afro-Caribbean, is also a factor as sarcoidosis is more prevalent in this population. It is important to take a thorough medical history as sarcoidosis can mimic other diseases. Mycoplasma pneumonia presents with flu-like symptoms followed by a dry cough and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia causes breathlessness, fever, and perihilar shadowing on chest X-ray and is associated with severe immunodeficiency. Pulmonary TB causes cough, fever, weight loss, and erythema nodosum, with typical chest X-ray findings including apical shadowing or cavity, or multiple nodules. Pulmonary fibrosis presents with shortness of breath, a non-productive cough, and bilateral inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. However, the X-ray findings in this patient are not consistent with pulmonary fibrosis as reticulonodular shadowing would be expected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 18 - A 63-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and an unintentional 25...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and an unintentional 25 lb weight loss over the last 4 months. He reports a medical history significant for mild asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler as needed. He takes no other medications and has no allergies. He has a 55 pack-year smoking history and has worked as a naval shipyard worker for 40 years. Examination reveals diffuse crackles in the posterior lung fields bilaterally and there is dullness to percussion one-third of the way up the right lung field. Ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pleural space.
      Which one of the following set of test values is most consistent with this patient’s presentation?
      (LDH: lactate dehydrogenase)
      Option LDH plasma LDH pleural Protein plasma Protein pleural
      A 180 100 7 3
      B 270 150 8 3
      C 180 150 7 4
      D 270 110 8 3
      E 180 100 7 2

      Your Answer: Option B

      Correct Answer: Option C

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Light’s Criteria for Pleural Effusions

      When evaluating a patient with a history of occupational exposure and respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pneumoconiosis, specifically asbestosis. Chronic exposure to asbestos can lead to primary bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma. Chest radiography may reveal radio-opaque pleural and diaphragmatic plaques. In this case, the patient’s dyspnea, hemoptysis, and weight loss suggest primary lung cancer, with a likely malignant pleural effusion observed under ultrasound.

      To confirm the exudative nature of the pleural effusion, Light’s criteria can be used. These criteria include a pleural:serum protein ratio >0.5, a pleural:serum LDH ratio >0.6, and pleural LDH more than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH. Meeting any one of these criteria indicates an exudative effusion.

      Option C is the correct answer as it satisfies Light’s criteria for an exudative pleural effusion. Options A, B, D, and E do not meet the criteria. Understanding Light’s criteria can aid in the diagnosis and management of pleural effusions, particularly in cases where malignancy is suspected.

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  • Question 19 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of productive cough with green sputum and a one day history of palpitations. She also had some rigors and fever. On examination:
      Result Normal
      Respiratory rate (RR) 26 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      Blood pressure (BP) 92/48 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate (HR) 130 bpm 60–100 beats/min
      Some bronchial breathing at left lung base, heart sounds normal however with an irregularly irregular pulse. electrocardiogram (ECG) showed fast atrial fibrillation (AF). She was previously fit and well.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Intravenous fluids

      Explanation:

      Treatment for AF in a Patient with Sepsis

      In a patient with sepsis secondary to pneumonia, the new onset of AF is likely due to the sepsis. Therefore, the priority is to urgently treat the sepsis with intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. If the AF persists after the sepsis is treated, other options for AF treatment can be considered. Bisoprolol and digoxin are not the first-line treatments for AF in this case. Oral antibiotics are not recommended for septic patients. Flecainide may be considered if the AF persists after the sepsis is treated.

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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
      Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks

      Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.

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  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted with haemoptysis and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a 4-cm cavitating lung lesion in the right middle lobe.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Lung Cancer and Cavitating Lesions

      Lung cancer can be classified into different subtypes based on their histology and response to treatments. Among these subtypes, squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type that causes cavitating lesions on a chest X-ray. This occurs when the tumour outgrows its blood supply and becomes necrotic, forming a cavity. Squamous cell carcinomas are usually centrally located and can also cause ectopic hormone production, leading to hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of cavitating lesions include pulmonary tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, rheumatoid nodules, and septic emboli. Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is an uncommon subtype of adenocarcinoma that does not commonly cavitate. Small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma also do not commonly cause cavitating lesions.

      Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is the most common type of lung cancer and is usually caused by smoking. It typically originates in the peripheral lung tissue and can also cavitate, although it is less common than in squamous cell carcinoma. Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
      Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
      What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.

      Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.

      Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.

      Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.

      Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and occasional wheezing.
      What investigation finding would indicate a diagnosis of asthma?

      Your Answer: A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator

      Correct Answer: Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Criteria for Asthma: Key Indicators to Consider

      Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucous production, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosing asthma can be challenging, as its symptoms can mimic those of other respiratory conditions. However, several key indicators can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.

      Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb): An FeNO level > 40 ppb is indicative of asthma.

      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio) ≥ 75%: An obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio < 70% would support a diagnosis of asthma in this patient. A 10% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 12% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 200 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring: Greater than 20% variability in PEFR on monitoring supports a diagnosis of asthma. In conclusion, healthcare professionals should consider these key indicators when diagnosing asthma. However, it is important to note that asthma is not the only cause of these indicators, and a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.

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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography

      Explanation:

      CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism

      Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.

      It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.

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  • Question 25 - An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia...

    Correct

    • An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia (CAP). The consultant asks you to refer to the CURB-65 score to determine the next management plan.
      Which of the following statements is part of the CURB-65 score?

      Your Answer: Urea > 7 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Assessing Severity of CAP

      The CURB-65 score is a clinical prediction tool recommended by the British Thoracic Society for assessing the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is a 6-point score based on five criteria: confusion, urea level, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk and may not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 3 or more are at higher risk of death and may require urgent admission. It is important to use the correct criteria for each parameter, such as an Abbreviated Mental Test Score of 8 or less for confusion and a respiratory rate of 30 or more for tachypnea. Understanding and documenting the CURB-65 score can aid in clinical decision-making for patients with CAP.

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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough and shortness of breath that has been ongoing for 6 months. Despite being a non-smoker, her husband is a pigeon breeder. Upon examination, she has an SpO2 of 95% on room air and clubbing is present. Chest examination reveals symmetrical and bilateral reduced chest expansion with fine end-inspiratory crepitations. A chest radiograph shows increased interstitial markings in the lower zones of both lungs. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) confirms these findings and also shows bibasal honeycombing. There is no lymphadenopathy present on CT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (usual interstitial pneumonia)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Interstitial Lung Disease: A Case Study

      Interstitial lung disease (ILD) is a group of lung disorders that affect the interstitium, the tissue and space surrounding the air sacs in the lungs. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is the most common type of ILD, characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. This article discusses the differential diagnosis for ILD, using a case study of a patient presenting with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue.

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
      IPF is characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. Patients present with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue. Clinical examination reveals fine end-inspiratory crepitations throughout the chest with lower zone predominance. Radiological findings include reduced lung volumes and bilateral increased interstitial markings with lower zone predominance on chest X-ray (CXR), and honeycombing and microcyst formation in the lung bases on high-resolution CT (HRCT). Lung transplantation is the only definitive treatment, while steroids are not indicated.

      Tuberculosis
      Tuberculosis presents with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Imaging shows cavitating lesions ± lymphadenopathy.

      Bronchiectasis
      Bronchiectasis presents with productive cough, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. CXR findings are often non-specific, but dilated, thick-walled (ectatic) bronchi are easily seen on HRCT.

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis)
      Hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be caused by airborne irritants to lung parenchyma, such as pigeon breeding. Changes are classically found in lung apices, making it less likely than IPF/UIP.

      Sarcoidosis
      End-stage sarcoidosis may present with lung fibrosis, but this does not spare the apices and typically affects the middle and upper zones of the lung.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for ILD includes IPF, tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and sarcoidosis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 27 - What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?

      Your Answer: Insomnia

      Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath. She has also suffered from dull right iliac fossa pain over the past few months. Past history of note includes tuberculosis at the age of 23 and rheumatoid arthritis. On examination, her right chest is dull to percussion, consistent with a pleural effusion, and her abdomen appears swollen with a positive fluid thrill test. She may have a right adnexal mass.
      Investigations:
      Investigation
      Result
      Normal value
      Chest X-ray Large right-sided pleural effusion
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 335 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 175 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 35–55 g/l
      CA-125 250 u/ml 0–35 u/ml
      Pleural aspirate: occasional normal pleural cells, no white cells, protein 24 g/l.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma with lung secondaries

      Correct Answer: Meig’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Pleural Effusion: Meig’s Syndrome, Ovarian Carcinoma, Reactivation of Tuberculosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Cardiac Failure

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. There are various possible causes of pleural effusion, including Meig’s syndrome, ovarian carcinoma, reactivation of tuberculosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and cardiac failure.

      Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the association of a benign ovarian tumor and a transudate pleural effusion. The pleural effusion resolves when the tumor is removed, although a raised CA-125 is commonly found.

      Ovarian carcinoma with lung secondaries is another possible cause of pleural effusion. However, if no malignant cells are found on thoracocentesis, this diagnosis becomes less likely.

      Reactivation of tuberculosis may also lead to pleural effusion, but this would be accompanied by other symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats, and fever.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can produce an exudative pleural effusion, but this presentation is different from the transudate seen in Meig’s syndrome. In addition, white cells would be present due to the inflammatory response.

      Finally, cardiac failure can result in bilateral pleural effusions.

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  • Question 29 - A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry, presented with progressive dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed diffuse interstitial fibrosis bilaterally. What is the typical cellular component found in a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) of this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemosiderin-laden macrophages

      Correct Answer: Giant cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Giant Cell Interstitial Pneumonia in Hard Metal Lung Disease

      Hard metal lung disease is a condition that affects individuals working in the hard metal industry, particularly those exposed to cobalt dust. Prolonged exposure can lead to fibrosis and the development of giant cell interstitial pneumonia (GIP), characterized by bizarre multinucleated giant cells in the alveoli. These cannibalistic cells are formed by alveolar macrophages and type II pneumocytes and can contain ingested macrophages. While cobalt exposure can also cause other respiratory conditions, GIP is a rare but serious complication that may require lung transplantation in severe cases. Understanding the significance of different cell types found in bronchoalveolar lavage can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disease.

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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man is diagnosed with right-sided pleural effusion. The aspirated sample reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is diagnosed with right-sided pleural effusion. The aspirated sample reveals a protein level of 15g/l. What could be the potential reason for the pleural effusion?

      Your Answer: Right-sided pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Renal failure

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between transudate and exudate effusions in various medical conditions

      Effusions can occur in various medical conditions, and it is important to differentiate between transudate and exudate effusions to determine the underlying cause. A transudate effusion is caused by increased capillary hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure, while an exudate effusion is caused by increased capillary permeability.

      In the case of renal failure, the patient has a transudative effusion as the effusion protein is less than 25 g/l. Inflammation from SLE would cause an exudate effusion, while pancreatitis and right-sided mesothelioma would also cause exudative effusions. Right-sided pneumonia would result in an exudate effusion as well.

      Therefore, understanding the type of effusion can provide valuable information in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (13/30) 43%
Passmed