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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man presents with weakness and a skin rash on his upper...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with weakness and a skin rash on his upper eyelids. He also complains of a cough which has been present for 3 months. He has a 50 pack-year smoking history. On examination he is noted to have symmetrical proximal muscle weakness.
      What is the most appropriate test from the options below?

      Your Answer: Anti-Jo 1 antibody

      Explanation:

      The symptoms indicate the possibility of dermatomyositis, and the presence of anti-Jo 1 antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing solids. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of difficulty swallowing solids. She has observed a gradual decrease in her mouth opening and tightening of the skin over her distal forearms over the past year. During the examination, her fingers seem to be blanched and cold, and her skin has a 'salt and pepper' appearance. You suspect that she has a connective tissue disorder. What test will aid in establishing a conclusive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-Scl-70 antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute joint swelling. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolemia and takes metformin and atorvastatin. He smokes 25 cigarettes daily and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week.

      His left knee joint is erythematosus, warm, and tender. His temperature is 37.2ºC, his heart rate is 105 bpm, his respiratory rate is 18 /min, and his blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. Joint aspiration shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure serum urate 2 weeks after inflammation settles

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and are characterized by significant pain, swelling, and redness. The most commonly affected joint is the first metatarsophalangeal joint, but other joints such as the ankle, wrist, and knee can also be affected. If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to chronic joint problems.

      To diagnose gout, doctors may perform a synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarized light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack. Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins in a juxta-articular distribution, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, there is no periarticular osteopenia, and soft tissue tophi may be visible.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in his back that radiates to his right groin. The pain started three days ago, has been progressively worsening, and is exacerbated by walking. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. He also reports feeling feverish and experiencing chills for the past 24 hours.

      The patient has no significant medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, drinks 30 units of alcohol per week, and injects heroin daily. Upon examination, his heart rate is 96/minute, respiratory rate is 14/minute, blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 98%. His temperature is 38.4 ºC.

      During examination of the spine and right hip, he experiences pain on movement of the hip joint, particularly flexion, but is not tender on palpation of the spine or hip joint. There is no evidence of swelling or erythema of the spine or hips, and no difference in temperature. Abdominal examination reveals a soft and non-tender abdomen, without organomegaly and present bowel sounds. The kidneys are non-ballotable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliopsoas abscess

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with fever and back or flank pain, it is important to consider the possibility of an iliopsoas abscess. This condition is indicated by pain in the hip joint area, along with a fever and pain during movement. Iliopsoas abscess occurs when there is a collection of pus within the iliopsoas muscle, which extends from the T12 – L5 vertebrae to the femur’s lesser trochanter. Intravenous drug use is a risk factor for developing this condition.

      Vertebral osteomyelitis, on the other hand, usually presents with tenderness, swelling, and weakness of the surrounding muscles over the infected vertebrae. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head may cause groin pain, but given the patient’s fever and IVDU status, an iliopsoas abscess is more likely. Kidney stones can cause constant pain from the loin to the groin, while appendicitis usually presents with pain in the umbilical region or right iliac fossa. The patient’s normal abdominal exam also makes appendicitis less likely.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man who suffered from distal radial fracture eight weeks ago visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man who suffered from distal radial fracture eight weeks ago visits his GP complaining of numbness in the lateral three and a half digits and atrophy of the thenar muscles. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Phalen’s test is utilized for evaluating carpal tunnel syndrome by holding the patient’s wrist in maximum flexion (reverse prayer sign) for 30-60 seconds. A positive result is indicated by numbness in the median nerve distribution.

      This scenario is typical of carpal tunnel syndrome, which affects the thenar muscles and provides sensory innervation to the lateral three and a half digits. The compression of the median nerve during Phalen’s test leads to the aforementioned presentation.

      In contrast, cubital tunnel syndrome results from ulnar nerve compression and causes hypothenar muscle wasting and numbness in the medial one and a half digits. Ulnar nerve injury leads to loss of sensation in the medial one and a half digit, while radial nerve palsy typically presents with wrist drop and loss of sensation in the first dorsal web-space.

      Finally, radial ganglion is characterized by a mass near the base of the thumb, usually above the wrist.

      Nerve Signs for Assessing Ulnar Nerve Palsy and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Nerve signs are important diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Two commonly used nerve signs are Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test. Froment’s sign is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy by testing the function of the adductor pollicis muscle. The patient is asked to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger, which is then pulled away. If the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it indicates ulnar nerve palsy.

      Phalen’s test is used to assess carpal tunnel syndrome and is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign. The patient’s wrist is held in maximum flexion, and the test is positive if there is numbness in the median nerve distribution. Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome by tapping the median nerve at the wrist. The test is positive if there is tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve.

      In summary, nerve signs are useful diagnostic tools for assessing ulnar nerve palsy and carpal tunnel syndrome. Froment’s sign and Phalen’s test are two commonly used nerve signs that can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that has been getting worse over the past year. The pain and stiffness are more severe in the morning but improve with exercise. During your examination, you notice a flexural rash with poorly defined areas of erythema, dry skin, and lichenification. All observations appear normal. The blood test results show an ESR of 84 mm/hr (normal range: 0-22) and a CRP of 6 mg/L (normal range: 0-10). ANA, RhF, and Anti-CCP tests are all negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Exercise is typically beneficial for inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. The patient’s symptoms, including morning stiffness and improvement with exercise, suggest an inflammatory cause, which is supported by the significantly elevated ESR. While there are several possible diagnoses, including seropositive and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, the most likely explanation is ankylosing spondylitis. Psoriatic arthritis is an incorrect answer, as the patient’s rash is more consistent with dermatitis than psoriasis. Osteoarthritis is also unlikely given the patient’s age and clinical history, while reactive arthritis is less likely due to the duration of symptoms and lack of urethritis or conjunctivitis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 7 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. No other injuries are found during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      This individual displays physical indications and a recent injury that are consistent with fat embolism syndrome. In the early stages, meningococcal sepsis is not commonly linked to hypoxia. Likewise, pyrexia is not typically associated with pulmonary emboli.

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall. He fell from standing height and is experiencing pain in his right leg. A pelvic X-Ray shows a right intertrochanteric femoral fracture. There are no fractures present on the left. He has a history of osteoporosis and osteoarthritis but generally considers himself to be active and enjoys playing golf.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dynamic hip screw (DHS)

      Explanation:

      The preferred surgical treatment for extracapsular proximal femoral fractures, specifically intertrochanteric fractures, is the use of dynamic hip screws (DHS). Therefore, in this case, the correct answer would be DHS. Conservative management is not recommended, as the patient is in good health and does not have any medical conditions that would prevent surgery. Hemiarthroplasty is only used for intracapsular neck of femur fractures in patients who are not fit for surgery. Intramedullary nails are used for subtrochanteric femoral fractures.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old male arrives at the emergency department following a head-on collision. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left knee. During a lower limb examination, you observe that the tibia moves backward when a force is applied. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) rupture

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Knee injuries can occur due to various reasons, including sports injuries and accidents. Some of the most common knee injuries include ruptured anterior cruciate ligament, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament, rupture of medial collateral ligament, meniscal tear, chondromalacia patellae, dislocation of the patella, fractured patella, and tibial plateau fracture.

      Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament usually occurs due to a high twisting force applied to a bent knee, resulting in a loud crack, pain, and rapid joint swelling. The management of this injury involves intense physiotherapy or surgery. On the other hand, ruptured posterior cruciate ligament occurs due to hyperextension injuries, where the tibia lies back on the femur, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position.

      Rupture of medial collateral ligament occurs when the leg is forced into valgus via force outside the leg, and the knee becomes unstable when put into a valgus position. Meniscal tear usually occurs due to rotational sporting injuries, and the patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee. Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma.

      Chondromalacia patellae is common in teenage girls, following an injury to the knee, and presents with a typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest, tenderness, and quadriceps wasting. Dislocation of the patella most commonly occurs as a traumatic primary event, either through direct trauma or through severe contraction of quadriceps with knee stretched in valgus and external rotation.

      Fractured patella can occur due to a direct blow to the patella causing undisplaced fragments or an avulsion fracture. Tibial plateau fracture occurs in the elderly or following significant trauma in young, where the knee is forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture. The Schatzker classification system is used to classify tibial plateau fractures based on their anatomical description and features.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis visits her GP with complaints of heightened pain and stiffness in her wrists and fatigue for the past week. Upon examination, there is slight swelling and tenderness in both wrists. The patient has been taking sulfasalazine for the past 5 years without any issues. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone IM

      Explanation:

      Methylprednisolone, an intramuscular steroid, is commonly used to manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis. The bilateral swelling and tenderness in the wrists presented by the patient is a typical symptom of an acute flare of rheumatoid arthritis. According to NICE guidelines, oral or intramuscular steroids are recommended for the treatment of such flares. Methylprednisolone is the most appropriate choice as it primarily inhibits proinflammatory cytokine production, providing rapid relief from pain and discomfort by reducing inflammation.

      In addition to steroids, the patient’s sulfasalazine dose may be increased or changed to another DMARD. Steroids can be used as a bridging treatment to control inflammation while the DMARD takes effect. Leflunomide would be prescribed if sulfasalazine is not managing the rheumatoid arthritis effectively. TNF inhibitors such as etanercept or infliximab are indicated only after an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate.

      Although paracetamol can be useful for baseline pain management, it is not the most appropriate treatment for this flare of rheumatoid arthritis. Steroids are required to reduce inflammation and form a crucial part of the patient’s management.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies

      The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. She is an avid hurdler and has been experiencing progressively worsening knee pain after exercising. She reports that her knee locks and she feels a painful popping sensation when extending it. She denies any recent injuries. Upon examination, there is slight swelling, tenderness on the inner side of the knee, and discomfort when flexing or extending the knee. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this young athlete is osteochondritis dissecans, which commonly affects children and young adults. Symptoms include knee pain after exercise, locking, and clunking. Further investigations such as X-ray and MRI are necessary, and referral to an orthopaedic specialist is required for management. While a medial collateral ligament sprain is possible, there is no history of an acute injury that could have caused it. Patellar subluxation is common in teenage girls but typically presents with giving-way episodes, which is not the case here. Patellar tendonitis, which is more common in teenage boys, presents with vague anterior knee pain that worsens with activities such as walking. However, the symptoms in this scenario are more consistent with a more serious diagnosis such as osteochondritis dissecans, including pain, swelling, and knee clunking.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with tenderness over the lateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with tenderness over the lateral aspect of her midfoot after slipping off a kerb while walking. She is having difficulty walking and a radiograph reveals a fracture of the 5th metatarsal. What is the most probable mechanism of action that caused this fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inversion of the foot and ankle

      Explanation:

      Fractures of the 5th metatarsal are commonly caused by the foot and ankle being forcefully inverted. These types of fractures are often seen in athletes, including dancers, football players, and rugby players, but can also occur from minor incidents such as stepping off a curb. Avulsion fractures are a specific type of 5th metatarsal fracture that result from the peroneus brevis muscle pulling on the proximal part of the bone during foot inversion. It is important to note that 5th metatarsal fractures are not associated with any other movements of the ankle or hip.

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 32 year old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left knee pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. He denies any history of injury and reports feeling well, except for a recent episode of food poisoning after eating a kebab 2 weeks ago. He has no personal or family history of rheumatological disorders and has never had any sexually transmitted infections. Upon examination, the knee appears swollen, red, and tender. Aspiration of the joint reveals clear fluid without white blood cells or crystals. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis and gout or pseudogout can be ruled out due to the lack of white cells and crystals. If there is a painful swelling behind the knee without erythema, it may indicate a ruptured baker’s cyst. However, in this case, the diagnosis is reactive arthritis (previously known as Reiter’s arthritis), which is linked to chlamydia and gonorrhoeae, as well as gastroenteritis.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain, swelling, and bruising in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain, swelling, and bruising in his left shoulder. The symptoms began two days ago when he was attempting to retrieve a heavy box from a high shelf. He reports hearing a popping sound followed by intense pain. The patient is a smoker and has undergone multiple corticosteroid treatments for COPD exacerbations in the past year. During the examination, a bulge is visible in the middle of his upper arm, and he experiences weakness in his shoulder and elbow, with particular difficulty in supination. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biceps tendon rupture

      Explanation:

      A rupture of the biceps tendon can result in a deformity known as the ‘Popeye’ sign in the middle of the upper arm. This is likely the case for the patient, given their reported symptoms and medical history, including smoking and steroid use. A humeral fracture is unlikely, as there is no indication of trauma. Impingement syndrome and radial head fracture are also unlikely, as the patient’s symptoms do not match the typical findings for these conditions.

      Understanding Biceps Rupture: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      The biceps muscle is composed of two tendons that attach to the glenoid and coracoid process, respectively. These tendons then insert onto the radial tuberosity. A biceps tendon rupture occurs when one of these tendons separates from its attachment site or is torn across its full width. This type of injury is more common in men than women, with proximal biceps tendon ruptures occurring in older patients over the age of 60 and accounting for 90% of cases. On the other hand, distal biceps tendon ruptures are less common and usually occur in men around the age of 40.

      Risk factors for biceps rupture include heavy overhead activities, shoulder overuse or underlying shoulder injuries, smoking, and corticosteroid use. The mechanism of injury differs between proximal and distal ruptures. Proximal ruptures typically occur during the descent phase of a pull-up, while distal ruptures occur when a flexed elbow is suddenly and forcefully extended while the biceps muscle is contracted.

      Symptoms of biceps rupture include a sudden pop or tear followed by pain, bruising, and swelling. Proximal ruptures can cause a Popeye deformity, while distal ruptures can cause a reverse Popeye deformity. Weakness in the shoulder and elbow typically follows, including difficulty with supination. Diagnosis starts with a basic examination, palpation of the affected area, and assessment of neurovascular function in the upper extremities. The biceps squeeze test can also be performed to check for intactness. Musculoskeletal ultrasound is the first investigation for suspected biceps tendon rupture, while MRI can be considered if there is a limited examination or likely concomitant pathology. Urgent MRI is necessary for suspected distal biceps tendon rupture, as diagnosis on clinical signs alone is challenging and usually requires surgical intervention.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old female complains of fatigue and widespread pain for the past six...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female complains of fatigue and widespread pain for the past six months, which worsens with stress or exposure to cold. Physical examination reveals multiple tender points throughout her body, but all other findings are normal. Despite normal results from autoimmune, inflammatory, and thyroid function tests, what treatment is most likely to be effective for her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Managing Fibromyalgia: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Fibromyalgia is a syndrome that causes widespread pain throughout the body, particularly in specific anatomical sites. It is more common in women and typically presents between the ages of 30-50. Other features include lethargy, cognitive impairment, sleep disturbance, headaches, and dizziness. Diagnosis is clinical and based on the presence of tender points on the body. Management of fibromyalgia is often difficult and requires a tailored, multidisciplinary approach. While there is a lack of evidence and guidelines to guide practice, consensus guidelines from the European League against Rheumatism (EULAR) and a BMJ review suggest that aerobic exercise, cognitive behavioural therapy, and medication such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline may be helpful.

      Managing fibromyalgia requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the physical, emotional, and psychological aspects of the condition. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, a combination of treatments can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Aerobic exercise has the strongest evidence base and can help reduce pain and fatigue. Cognitive behavioural therapy can help patients develop coping strategies and improve their mental health. Medications such as pregabalin, duloxetine, and amitriptyline can also be effective in managing pain and other symptoms. However, it is important to note that treatment should be tailored to the individual patient and may require a trial-and-error approach. With a multidisciplinary approach, patients with fibromyalgia can find relief and improve their overall well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of muscle weakness and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of muscle weakness and a rash that has been developing over the past month. Upon examination, the doctor notes symmetrical weakness in the shoulders and hips, as well as red papules on the proximal interphalangeal joints. What skin manifestation is likely being described in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules mainly seen over the knuckles in patients with dermatomyositis. In this case, the patient’s symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and skin involvement indicate dermatomyositis. Gottron’s papules are small violaceous papules that can also be seen on the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. While Gottron’s sign is also associated with dermatomyositis, it refers to violaceous macules over the knees and elbows and is not being described in this case. The heliotrope rash, a violaceous or dusky red rash surrounding the eye, is another highly characteristic sign of dermatomyositis, but it is not present in this case. Similarly, a malar rash, which is a butterfly-shaped rash over the cheeks and nose commonly seen in patients with SLE, is not relevant to this case.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman has been referred to a rheumatologist by her GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been referred to a rheumatologist by her GP due to complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her fingers. She has a history of mild asthma, which is managed with a salbutamol inhaler, and is known to have an allergy to co-trimoxazole. Her blood tests revealed a positive rheumatoid factor and an anti-CCP antibody level of 150u/ml (normal range < 20u/ml). Which medication could potentially trigger an allergic reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine. However, hydroxychloroquine, leflunomide, methotrexate, and sarilumab are not contraindicated for this patient. These drugs may be considered as first-line treatments for rheumatoid arthritis, depending on the patient’s disease activity and response to other medications. It is important to note that sulfasalazine should be avoided in patients with a sulfa drug allergy.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance following a car accident. She has been given morphine and paracetamol for pain relief and is currently comfortable. During examination, her right leg is internally rotated and appears shorter than the left. There is significant bruising over the right buttock and thigh. Neurovascular examination reveals altered sensation over the right posterior leg and foot, and there is weakness in dorsiflexion of the foot. What type of injury is likely to have occurred in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior hip dislocation causing sciatic nerve injury

      Explanation:

      A common complication of posterior hip dislocation is sciatic nerve injury, which is evident in this patient presenting with an internally rotated and shortened limb. The reduced sensation in the posterior leg and foot, along with impaired dorsiflexion of the foot, is consistent with this type of nerve injury. The sciatic nerve can be stretched by the dislocated hip, which occurs as it emerges through the greater sciatic foramen inferior to the piriformis and travels to the posterior surface of the ischium.

      It is important to note that an anterior hip dislocation would present differently, with an externally rotated and shortened limb, and is associated with femoral nerve injury rather than sciatic nerve injury. Similarly, a tibial nerve injury would not present with an internally rotated limb, and a fractured neck of femur would not cause this type of limb presentation or tibial nerve injury. It is more likely that a posterior hip dislocation would cause a generalised sciatic nerve injury rather than affecting only the tibial nerve, as the sciatic nerve branches further down the leg than at the hip.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, without leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 19 - A 21-year-old male was playing a soccer match when he suddenly felt a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male was playing a soccer match when he suddenly felt a 'pop' in his right foot while attempting a kick. He experienced significant pain and was unable to properly bear weight on the affected side. He is brought to the emergency department. During the examination, he is instructed to lie face down with his feet hanging off the edge of the examination bed. Upon squeezing the calf on the affected leg, there was no movement of his foot. What would be the primary imaging technique to confirm the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound (US) scan

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound is the preferred imaging method for diagnosing a suspected Achilles tendon rupture. This is because it is a quick and easy test to carry out and can provide an accurate diagnosis in the first instance. The patient’s presentation, including an audible pop and Simmonds’ test positivity, strongly suggests an Achilles tendon rupture. While CT and MRI scans can also detect this injury, they are not the first-line choice due to their higher radiation exposure and longer testing times. Dismissing the need for imaging and assuming a simple sprain would be incorrect in this case, as the patient requires further testing to confirm or rule out an Achilles tendon rupture.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of leg and back pain that has been bothering him for 6 weeks. The pain is exacerbated by sitting. During the examination, the GP observes weakness in left hip abduction and left foot drop. However, power in the right limb is normal, and lower limb reflexes are normal in both legs. The GP suspects a prolapsed disc. Which nerve root is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation for the past three weeks. He also reports feeling increasingly tired and thirsty during this time. The patient has a history of a previous STEMI and stage 1 chronic kidney disease. Upon examination, the GP orders some blood tests, which reveal the following results:

      - Calcium: 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - ALP: 174 u/L (30 - 100)
      - Na+: 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is primary hyperparathyroidism. This is indicated by the patient’s symptomatic hypercalcaemia, as well as their blood test results showing a raised calcium, reduced phosphate level, and a raised ALP. Multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease of bone, and sarcoidosis are all incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 22 - As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you to prescribe a medication to a 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. Upon reviewing her recent notes, you discover that she had been sent to the emergency department for suspected cardiac chest pain, which was later ruled out, and a musculoskeletal cause was diagnosed. During her hospitalization, she was given 300mg of aspirin, which caused a widespread flushing and a maculopapular rash, and aspirin was recorded as a drug adverse reaction on her medical records. Which of the following DMARDs should be prescribed with caution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - An 83-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of generalised weakness that has been...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of generalised weakness that has been ongoing for a month. She mentions having difficulty standing up after sitting down. She also reports noticing a red rash on her chest, but denies any itching. Her medical history is unremarkable except for hypertension that is well-controlled.

      During the physical examination, the doctor observes dry hands with linear cracks and violaceous papules on both knuckles. The patient also has a distinct purple rash around each eyelid. What is the most specific antibody for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Jo-1 antibody

      Explanation:

      The most specific autoantibody associated with dermatomyositis is anti-Jo-1. This is consistent with the patient’s symptoms, which include proximal myopathy, Gottron’s papules, mechanic’s hands, and a heliotrope rash. Anti-Ro antibody, anti-Smith antibody, and antinuclear antibody are not specific to dermatomyositis and are associated with other rheumatological conditions.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 24 - A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling...

    Incorrect

    • A nine-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her mother after falling on her outstretched left hand during recess. She is experiencing pain and swelling around her left elbow and forearm.
      Upon examination:
      Heart rate: 92/minute. Respiratory rate: 20/minute. Blood pressure: 102/70 mmHg. Oxygen saturations: 99%. Temperature: 37.5 ºC. Capillary refill time: 2 seconds.
      Left arm: the elbow is swollen and red. The skin is intact. The joint is tender to the touch and has limited range of motion. Sensation is normal. Pulses are present.
      Right arm: normal.
      X-rays of the patient’s left elbow and forearm reveal a proximal fracture of the ulna with a dislocation of the proximal radial head.
      What is the term used to describe this injury pattern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monteggia fracture

      Explanation:

      A Monteggia fracture is characterized by a dislocated proximal radioulnar joint and a fractured ulna. This type of fracture is most commonly observed in children aged 4 to 10 years old. To differentiate it from a Galeazzi fracture, which involves a distal radius fracture and a dislocated distal radioulnar joint, one can associate the name of the fracture with the affected bone: Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers). Other types of fractures include Colles fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement, Smith’s fracture, which is a distal radius fracture with volar displacement, and Bennett’s fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the first metacarpal that extends into the carpometacarpal joint.

      Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.

      Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.

      Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of groin pain. He reports feeling a snapping sensation in his hip accompanied by deep groin and hip pain. The patient participated in a football game over the weekend. He has no prior history of such symptoms and is not on any regular medication. Upon further inquiry, he admits to consuming alcohol regularly, with an average of 70 units per week.

      During the examination, the man's large body habitus is noted. He is able to bear weight and move around the room without difficulty. However, his range of motion is restricted due to pain, particularly during external rotation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetabular labral tear

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acetabular Labral Tears

      Acetabular labral tears are a common condition that can occur due to trauma or degenerative changes in the hip joint. Younger adults are more likely to experience this condition as a result of an injury, while older adults may develop it due to age-related wear and tear. The main symptoms of an acetabular labral tear include hip and groin pain, a snapping sensation around the hip, and occasional locking.
      Treatment options may include physical therapy, medication, or surgery, depending on the severity of the tear and your overall health. With proper care and management, most people with acetabular labral tears can find relief from their symptoms and return to their normal activities.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old female patient is referred to the orthopaedics department with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient is referred to the orthopaedics department with a history of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma three years ago. Despite regular follow-up scans showing no signs of disease recurrence, she has been experiencing worsening pain in her right hip for the past two months, particularly during exercise. During examination, she experiences pain in all directions when her hip is moved passively, with internal rotation being particularly painful. An x-ray ordered by her GP has come back as normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Avascular necrosis is strongly associated with prior chemotherapy treatment. Although initial x-rays may appear normal in patients with this condition, it is unlikely that they would not reveal any metastatic deposits that could cause pain.

      Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip

      Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.

      Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.

      MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. She experiences difficulty standing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive weakness and fatigue. She experiences difficulty standing for prolonged periods and struggles to rise from a seated position. Upon examination, her hands appear excessively dry and cracked, with rough erythematous papules and plaques present on the extensor surfaces of her fingers. Additionally, there is reduced power in her hips and shoulders. The patient has a history of anxiety and frequently washes her hands due to fear of spreading germs during the COVID-19 pandemic. She has also been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, consuming 40 cigarettes per day.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules primarily located over the knuckles.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of a burning sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of a burning sensation on the outside of her left thigh. The pain is particularly bothersome when she moves, especially when she's standing at work. She reports no prior experience with this type of pain and has no significant medical history. Her records show a recent blood pressure reading of 130/90 mmHg and a BMI of 40 kg/m². What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meralgia parasthetica

      Explanation:

      Pain in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is a common symptom of Meralgia parasthetica. This pain is often worsened by standing and relieved by sitting, and is accompanied by altered sensation in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. Meralgia parasthetica can be caused by pregnancy, obesity, tense ascites, trauma, or surgery, and is more prevalent in individuals with diabetes.

      In contrast, fibromyalgia typically presents with pain in the neck and shoulders, along with other symptoms such as fatigue, muscle stiffness, difficulty sleeping, and cognitive impairment. Fibromyalgia pain does not typically affect the lateral thigh.

      L3 lumbar radiculopathy, on the other hand, causes pain in the lower back and hip that radiates down into the leg, often accompanied by muscle weakness.

      Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint pain and stiffness in the hips or knees, and is more common in older individuals, females, and those who are overweight. It does not typically cause changes in sensation in the thigh.

      Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.

      The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.

      Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.

      Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 29 - You see a 14-year-old boy with his father. He is normally completely fit...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 14-year-old boy with his father. He is normally completely fit and well and extremely active. He is a keen soccer player and also enjoys running. He noticed a lump behind his left knee one week ago, it seemed to come on suddenly. He can't remember ever injuring his knee. It is not painful but his knee does feel 'tight'.

      On examination, he has a round, soft fluctuant mass behind his left knee in the medial popliteal fossa. It is approximately the size of a baseball. The swelling feels tense in full knee extension and soften again or disappear when the knee is flexed. Flexion is slightly reduced.

      What is the most likely diagnosis here?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Baker's cyst

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a child with a soft, painless swelling behind the knee is a Baker’s cyst. An anterior cruciate ligament tear usually occurs after a twisting injury, is painful, and does not typically present with a lump in the popliteal fossa. A popliteal artery aneurysm would be pulsatile and uncommon in children. A rhabdomyosarcoma is unlikely to be painless and may have other symptoms of systemic disease.

      Understanding Baker’s Cysts

      Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. These cysts can be primary or secondary. Primary cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary cysts are associated with an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults.

      Baker’s cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa, which is located behind the knee. In some cases, the cyst may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic.

      In children, Baker’s cysts typically resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. However, in adults, it is important to treat the underlying cause where appropriate. Understanding the nature of Baker’s cysts and their associated symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.

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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of chronic pain and morning stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of chronic pain and morning stiffness in her hands that lasts for a few minutes. These symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past ten years. She applies diclofenac gel to her hands, which provides relief from the pain. During the examination, the doctor observes squaring of her thumbs on both sides.
      What is the probable diagnosis based on the given presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is often characterized by stiffness that worsens after long periods of inactivity, such as sleep. This stiffness typically lasts only a few minutes, unlike inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, which can cause morning stiffness lasting up to an hour. One distinctive feature of hand osteoarthritis is squaring of the thumbs, specifically in the carpometacarpal joint. Pain associated with hand osteoarthritis tends to be worse with activity and relieved by rest. Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine and can also cause morning stiffness, but this stiffness is typically felt in the back rather than the hands. Osteoporosis itself does not cause pain or stiffness, but it can lead to bone fractures and is more commonly associated with large joint osteoarthritis than hand osteoarthritis. Reiter’s syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is characterized by conjunctivitis, urethritis, and oligoarthritis, typically affecting the knee. Squaring of the thumbs is not a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis, which is instead associated with swan-neck deformity, ulnar deviation, and subluxation of the carpal bones, among other symptoms.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

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  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean descent visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean descent visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue, widespread musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and swollen lumps in her neck and armpit. Her blood test results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 107g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 140* 109/L (150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 3.2* 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 12.5mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 165µmol/L (55-120)
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 115mg/L (<5)
      - Antinuclear antibodies: Positive
      - Anti-double-stranded DNA: Positive

      As a result of her abnormal renal function results, a renal biopsy is conducted and examined under electron microscopy, revealing no mesangial deposits. Based on her likely diagnosis, what medication should be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is hydroxychloroquine, which is a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD). A patient presenting with symptoms such as fatigue, musculoskeletal pain, low mood, and lymphadenopathy, along with positive results for antinuclear antibodies and double-stranded DNA antibodies, may be diagnosed with SLE. Hydroxychloroquine works by increasing lysosomal pH in antigen-presenting cells, which interferes with activity and downregulates the inappropriate autoimmune response. Cyclophosphamide, an alkylating agent used in cancer treatment, is not appropriate for SLE management unless there is renal involvement. Methotrexate, another DMARD, can be used as a steroid-sparing agent in conjunction with prednisolone if the patient’s symptoms are not controlled by NSAIDs and hydroxychloroquine. Prednisolone, a corticosteroid, is typically reserved for patients with internal organ involvement or if their symptoms are not controlled by other medications due to the long-term risks associated with steroid use.

      Managing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various organs and tissues in the body. To manage SLE, several treatment options are available. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can help relieve joint pain and inflammation. It is also important to use sunblock to prevent skin damage and flare-ups triggered by sun exposure.

      Hydroxychloroquine is considered the treatment of choice for SLE. It can help reduce disease activity and prevent flares. However, if SLE affects internal organs such as the kidneys, nervous system, or eyes, additional treatment may be necessary. In such cases, prednisolone and cyclophosphamide may be prescribed to manage inflammation and prevent organ damage.

      To summarize, managing SLE involves a combination of medication and lifestyle changes. NSAIDs and sunblock can help manage symptoms, while hydroxychloroquine is the preferred treatment for reducing disease activity. If SLE affects internal organs, additional medication may be necessary to prevent organ damage.

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  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old patient has been on prednisolone for 4-months to treat their polymyalgia...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient has been on prednisolone for 4-months to treat their polymyalgia rheumatica. You are concerned about the patient developing osteoporosis and are contemplating starting them on a bisphosphonate as a preventive measure. What ONE indication would prompt you to commence this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T-score of -1.7

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on steroids or are going to be on steroids for 3 or more months and have a T-score < -1.5 should be offered prophylactic bisphosphonates, regardless of their age. However, patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously experienced a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection if they are on steroids. For patients under the age of 65, a T-score measurement should be taken to screen for low bone density. If the T-score is <-1.5, bone protection should be offered. Other factors such as smoking, high alcohol intake, low BMI, and family history should be considered as indicators to screen for osteoporosis, but not necessarily to offer bone protection. Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months. The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered. The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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  • Question 33 - A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like mottled skin on her hands, lower arms, feet, and calves that has persisted for 6 months. She reports no other symptoms. The physician orders routine blood tests, including FBC and coagulation screen, which reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/l, platelet count of 98 * 109/L, and white cell count of 8 * 109/L. The APTT is 45s, and the PT is 12s. An autoantibody screen is also performed, with the following significant results: positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant, but negative for anti-dsDNA. What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daily low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and have not had a history of thrombosis are typically prescribed low-dose aspirin. This condition is characterized by CLOTS, which stands for clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood tests that show thrombocytopenia, a prolonged APTT, and positive antiphospholipid antibodies such as anti-cardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies, and lupus anticoagulant. Treatment for Raynaud’s phenomena, which causes painful and pale fingers and toes in cold temperatures, involves daily nifedipine. Lifelong LMWH is not recommended, but lifelong warfarin is recommended for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced a previous thrombotic event. LMWH may be an option during pregnancy.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old female patient arrives with an abrupt onset of hemiparesis on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient arrives with an abrupt onset of hemiparesis on the right side, affecting the face, arm, and leg. During the examination, you observe right-sided hemiparesis, aphasia, and a right homonymous hemianopia. The patient has a medical history of recurrent miscarriages, pulmonary embolisms, and deep vein thrombosis. The blood test results show a prolonged APTT. What could be the probable reason for the stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms indicate the possibility of antiphospholipid syndrome, which can be confirmed by a positive anti-Cardiolipin antibody test. It is crucial to keep in mind that hypercoagulable states and hyperviscosity can lead to strokes. Antiphospholipid syndrome is a type of thrombophilia disorder that causes hypercoagulation and a higher likelihood of forming clots, both arterial and venous. This increases the risk of ischaemic strokes.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 35 - A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have been ongoing for the past 3 weeks and she describes them as severe (8/10) and throbbing in nature. She reports that the headaches worsen whenever she talks for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has been experiencing fatigue and slight blurred vision since the onset of the headaches, which is unusual for her. Based on the probable diagnosis, what investigation and treatment options would you prioritize?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone and vision testing

      Explanation:

      After being diagnosed with temporal arthritis, it is important to conduct vision testing as a crucial investigation. This autoimmune condition affects blood vessels and can be effectively treated with steroids, with an initial dose of 40-60 mg being recommended to alleviate symptoms and prevent further progression. If left untreated, temporal arthritis can lead to irreversible blindness due to occlusion of the ophthalmic artery, which may be preceded by transient visual problems. Unlike renal function, which is not significantly impacted by temporal arthritis, aspirin and a CT head are typically used to diagnose ischemic stroke or TIA. While co-codamol can effectively treat tension headaches, an MRI head is not a primary investigation for temporal arthritis due to its high cost. Additionally, fludrocortisone is not the first line of treatment for this condition.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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  • Question 36 - A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a swing, landing on her outstretched right hand. She is experiencing wrist pain and has difficulty moving it. The X-ray report shows:
      Fracture of the distal radius affecting the growth plate and the distal part of the diaphysis, without involvement of the distal epiphysis.
      What Salter-Harris fracture type is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions

      Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.

      Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.

      Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.

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  • Question 37 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his left hip. Upon examination, he is experiencing difficulty walking, tenderness around his left greater trochanter, and his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. He has a medical history of osteoporosis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism. However, he is able to move around without any assistance. An X-ray reveals a subtrochanteric femoral fracture, which is treated with an intramedullary nail. What advice should he be given regarding weight-bearing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight-bear immediately after the operation as tolerated

      Explanation:

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 38 - A 40-year-old couple, Mr and Mrs Johnson, have been referred to a fertility...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old couple, Mr and Mrs Johnson, have been referred to a fertility clinic by their GP due to their inability to conceive after 18 months of regular unprotected sexual intercourse. Mrs Johnson has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions, while Mr Johnson has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, schizophrenia, and hypothyroidism for which he takes sulfasalazine, ibuprofen, omeprazole, olanzapine, and levothyroxine. Mr Johnson's semen analysis reveals a count of 14 million/mL (15-200 million/mL). Which medication is the most likely cause of this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease

      Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.

      However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.

      Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.

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  • Question 39 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset discomfort on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset discomfort on her right lateral hip for the past two weeks. She denies any history of trauma and is able to bear weight fully. However, she experiences the worst discomfort at night, which sometimes wakes her up when lying on her right side. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Trochanteric bursitis is characterized by pain in the lateral hip/thigh area, accompanied by tenderness over the greater trochanter. This condition, also known as greater trochanteric pain syndrome, is likely the cause of the patient’s symptoms, as there are no other systemic issues present. Iliotibial band syndrome typically affects the knee and does not usually cause nighttime symptoms, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this age group. Meralgia paresthetica, which results from compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, typically presents with numbness or tingling rather than pain. Osteoarthritis is unlikely to cause pain upon direct pressure over the greater trochanter.

      Understanding Greater Trochanteric Pain Syndrome

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, is a condition that results from the repetitive movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band. This condition is most commonly observed in women aged between 50 and 70 years. The primary symptom of this condition is pain experienced over the lateral side of the hip and thigh. Additionally, tenderness is observed upon palpation of the greater trochanter.

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  • Question 40 - A 30-year-old runner complains of heel pain. During examination, there is widespread tenderness...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old runner complains of heel pain. During examination, there is widespread tenderness that is more severe on the medial side of the heel. Despite taking a break from running for the past week, the pain is exacerbated by standing on their feet all day at work. Walking on their toes intensifies the pain. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plantar fasciitis

      Explanation:

      This presentation is typical of plantar fasciitis, which is the most common cause of heel pain in adults. Walking on tip toes exacerbates the pain, unlike subcalcaneal bursitis. Achilles tendonitis typically causes pain at the calcaneal insertion of the tendon or further up the tendon, depending on the affected area. Thompson’s test can rule out tendon rupture. S1 radiculopathy may cause sensory loss along the lateral aspect of the foot and reduced dorsiflexion of the foot. Morton’s neuroma is a thickening of the tissue around the nerve, usually between the 3rd and 4th toes, and pain is typically felt on the ball of the foot.

      Understanding Plantar Fasciitis

      Plantar fasciitis is a prevalent condition that causes heel pain in adults. The pain is typically concentrated around the medial calcaneal tuberosity, which is the bony bump on the inside of the heel. This condition occurs when the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot, becomes inflamed or irritated.

      To manage plantar fasciitis, it is essential to rest the feet as much as possible. Wearing shoes with good arch support and cushioned heels can also help alleviate the pain. Insoles and heel pads may also be beneficial in providing additional support and cushioning. It is important to note that plantar fasciitis can take time to heal, and it is crucial to be patient and consistent with treatment. By taking these steps, individuals can effectively manage their plantar fasciitis and reduce their discomfort.

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  • Question 41 - A 60-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hand pain that worsens with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hand pain that worsens with activity and towards the end of the day. He has a medical history of psoriasis and is not currently taking any medications. During the examination, the doctor notes tender bony swellings in three DIP joints on both hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      The presence of Heberden’s nodes, which are bony swellings at the DIP joints, is a characteristic feature of osteoarthritis in the hand. Pain that worsens with activity, rather than rest, is also more indicative of OA than inflammatory arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis can cause swelling of the DIP joints, but the swelling is typically boggy rather than bony, and the pain tends to be worse in the morning and improve with activity. Reactive arthritis is unlikely to cause a DIP predominant arthritis, as it typically presents as a large joint lower limb oligoarthritis, and there is no recent history of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis does not typically affect the DIP joints.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

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  • Question 42 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department following a fall. According to her son, she stumbled over an exposed tree root and landed on her outstretched arms. Since the fall, she has been holding her right arm and complaining of intense pain.

      An x-ray is ordered, revealing a fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement. Additionally, the ulnar tip is also fractured. The fracture is located across the metaphysis of the radius and does not involve the articular cartilage.

      What is the name of this type of fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colles fracture

      Explanation:

      The most likely fracture resulting from a fall onto an outstretched hand (FOOSH) is Colles fracture. This type of fracture occurs in the distal radius and typically does not involve the joint. It is the most common type of distal radius fracture. Bennett fracture, Dupuytren fracture, and Galeazzi fracture are all incorrect answers as they describe different types of fractures in other parts of the body.

      Understanding Colles’ Fracture

      Colles’ fracture is a type of distal radius fracture that typically occurs when an individual falls onto an outstretched hand, also known as a FOOSH. This type of fracture is characterized by the dorsal displacement of fragments, resulting in a dinner fork type deformity. The classic features of a Colles’ fracture include a transverse fracture of the radius, located approximately one inch proximal to the radiocarpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation.

      In simpler terms, Colles’ fracture is a type of wrist fracture that occurs when an individual falls and lands on their hand, causing the bones in the wrist to break and shift out of place. This results in a deformity that resembles a dinner fork. The fracture typically occurs in the distal radius, which is the bone located near the wrist joint.

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  • Question 43 - A 6-year-old boy came to the clinic with a painful left little finger...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy came to the clinic with a painful left little finger following a door being shut on it. Upon examination, an X-ray revealed a fracture line that passes through the metaphysis, growth plate, and epiphysis. What classification of fracture is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salter Harris 4

      Explanation:

      A Salter-Harris type 4 fracture involves the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis.

      Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions

      Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.

      Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.

      Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.

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  • Question 44 - John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing stiffness in his fingers while playing guitar. He also notices that his fingers ache more than usual during and after playing. John used to work as a computer programmer and does not smoke or drink alcohol. His body mass index is 30 kg/m². What radiological findings are most indicative of John's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) and base of the thumb

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by the involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, with the presence of osteophytes at the base of the thumb and distal interphalangeal joints being a typical finding. Lytic bone lesions are unlikely to be the cause of this presentation, as they are more commonly associated with metastasis or osteomyelitis. While rheumatoid arthritis can also involve the proximal interphalangeal joints and cause joint effusions, this woman’s age, history, and symptoms suggest that osteoarthritis is more likely. The pencil in cup appearance seen in psoriatic arthritis is not present in this case, as the patient does not report any skin lesions. Although most cases of osteoarthritis are asymptomatic, the patient’s symptoms suggest that some radiological changes have occurred.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

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  • Question 45 - A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old retired farmer contacts his GP seeking advice on preventing gout. Despite making dietary changes and limiting alcohol consumption, he has experienced four flares in the past year. The patient has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and is attempting to lower it through lifestyle modifications. He has a controlled hiatus hernia with omeprazole and no other underlying health issues or medications. His most recent gout attack occurred six weeks ago, and recent blood tests revealed a urate level of 498 micromol/L. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start allopurinol + colchicine

      Explanation:

      According to current NICE guidelines, patients with gout who experience two or more attacks per year should receive urate-lowering therapy (ULT). When starting ULT, it is recommended to also prescribe colchicine cover for up to six months. If colchicine is not suitable, NSAID cover may be considered as an alternative. While high-dose prednisolone can effectively treat acute gout, low-dose prednisolone is not appropriate for gout prevention due to the negative effects of long-term corticosteroid use. Given the patient’s history of hiatus hernia, using an NSAID like naproxen or ibuprofen to treat gout may not be the best option. Unlike xanthine oxidase inhibitors such as allopurinol or febuxostat, NSAIDs are not considered ULT and are therefore not recommended for gout prevention.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

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  • Question 46 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a headache that...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a headache that has persisted for the past week. She reports feeling pain on her left temple, which intensifies when she touches her head or brushes her hair, and discomfort in her jaw when eating. She is anxious because she recently had a brief episode of vision loss, which she describes as a dark curtain descending. What is the probable observation on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Swollen pale disc with blurred margins

      Explanation:

      The correct fundoscopy finding for anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION) is a swollen pale disc with blurred margins. This occurs due to a loss of blood supply to the optic nerve, which is commonly caused by temporal arthritis. It is important to recognize this finding as urgent IV steroids are required to prevent permanent visual loss. A cherry red spot on the macula is not associated with temporal arthritis, as it is a sign of central retinal artery occlusion. Macula edema and cupping of the optic disc are also not typically associated with temporal arthritis.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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  • Question 47 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of bilateral hip pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of bilateral hip pain that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. The pain is now preventing her from taking her usual evening walks and worsens throughout the day, especially during exercise. She is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks half a bottle of red wine every night. Her medical history includes recurrent gout and Sjogren syndrome. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis is characterized by pain that worsens with exercise and throughout the day, particularly in the hip joints. This is in contrast to inflammatory arthritis, which typically presents with pain that is worse in the mornings and accompanied by stiffness. While Sjogren syndrome may suggest rheumatoid arthritis, the patient’s symptoms strongly suggest osteoarthritis, which is a common condition. Gout is unlikely to affect the hip joints bilaterally and insidiously.

      Causes of Hip Pain in Adults

      Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.

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  • Question 48 - A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She has been experiencing bilateral headaches, neck and shoulder stiffness, and pain for the past two weeks, which is most severe in the morning and improves throughout the day.

      Upon examination, her strength and sensation are normal, but she has limited shoulder and neck range of motion due to discomfort. Her left eye vision is reduced to hand movements only. The patient has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and myocardial infarction and is currently taking atorvastatin, aspirin, ramipril, and bisoprolol.

      What is the most likely finding on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Engorged pale optic disc with blurred margins

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is engorged pale optic disc with blurred margins. This presentation is highly suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) in a female patient of this age, with preceding proximal muscle pain and stiffness that improves throughout the day. The current bilateral headaches and vision loss are likely due to giant cell arthritis (GCA), a complication strongly associated with PMR. GCA can cause anterior ischemic optic neuropathy, leading to optic disc pallor and swelling, as the immune system damages arteries supplying the optic nerve, leading to thrombus formation and occlusion. Cotton wool spots, hard exudates, and blot hemorrhages are incorrect, as they are seen in diabetic retinopathy, which is not present in this patient. Retinal whitening and a cherry red spot are also incorrect, as they describe central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), which presents as sudden-onset painless visual loss, unlike the current presentation of GCA-induced vision loss.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old man experiences bilateral calf pain that forces him to stop walking...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man experiences bilateral calf pain that forces him to stop walking after 100 yards. He discovers that walking uphill and bending forward alleviates the pain. However, he can ride a bike without any discomfort. What is the probable root cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar canal stenosis

      Explanation:

      The pain’s position and its improvement when walking uphill make it unlikely that there is a vascular cause underlying it.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

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  • Question 50 - A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a painful swollen ankle....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a painful swollen ankle. She is currently on oral antibiotics for a respiratory infection. She has a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis.

      Observations:
      Heart rate 90 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 150/80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 20/minute
      Oxygen saturations 95% on room air
      Temperature 37.2C

      On examination, the left ankle is erythematosus, tender and swollen with a restricted range of motion.

      Plain radiography of the left ankle reveals erosion of the joint space.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Gout is not the correct diagnosis in this case. While it is a possible cause of monoarthritis, the radiological findings and the affected joint suggest pseudogout as a more likely cause. Psoriatic arthritis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this type of inflammatory arthritis typically presents in multiple joints and may be associated with a family history or psoriatic rash. Similarly, while rheumatoid arthritis can present as monoarthritis, it is more commonly seen as small joint polyarthritis with erosions and osteopenia visible on x-ray. It is important not to miss the correct diagnosis in cases of monoarthritis.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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  • Question 51 - Sophie, a 19-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after a sports-related incident....

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 19-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after a sports-related incident. She reports experiencing discomfort in her left knee, which worsens when crouching. Upon examination, her knee appears swollen and tender to the touch. Additionally, there is a painful clicking sensation during McMurray's's test.
      What is the probable cause of injury in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twisting around flexed knee

      Explanation:

      A knee injury caused by twisting can lead to a tear in the meniscus, potentially accompanied by a sprain in the medial collateral ligament. The affected knee would be swollen and tender to the touch, and a positive McMurray’s’s test (painful clicking) would also be present. Patella dislocation, which can result from direct trauma to the knee, is indicated by a positive patellar apprehension test rather than a positive McMurray’s’s test. Falling onto a bent knee can cause injury to the posterior cruciate ligament, which is indicated by a positive posterior drawer test. Hyperextension knee injury, on the other hand, most commonly results in a rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament, which is indicated by a positive anterior drawer test. Repeated jumping and landing on hard surfaces can lead to patella tendinopathy or ‘jumper’s knee’, which causes anterior knee pain that worsens with exercise and jumping over a period of 2-4 weeks.

      Understanding Meniscal Tear and its Symptoms

      Meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. Its symptoms include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases where the tear is displaced. To diagnose a meniscal tear, doctors may perform Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by the doctor. If the patient experiences pain on twisting the knee, the test is considered positive.

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  • Question 52 - A 28-year-old male visits the GP clinic complaining of lower back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male visits the GP clinic complaining of lower back pain that radiates to his buttocks for the past 5 months. The pain is most severe in the morning, improves with exercise, and sometimes wakes him up in the early hours of the morning. A radiograph is requested, which reveals sacroiliitis. What other radiograph findings are probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and squaring of lumbar vertebrae

      Explanation:

      The x-ray findings that are commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis include subchondral erosions, sclerosis, and squaring of lumbar vertebrae. These findings are indicative of the patient’s symptoms of inflammatory joint pain, which is most likely caused by ankylosing spondylitis given their age, gender, and nature of pain. Sacroiliitis on x-ray can confirm the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis.

      Juxta-articular osteopenia, subchondral cysts, and squaring of lumbar vertebrae are incorrect as they are not commonly seen in ankylosing spondylitis. Juxta-articular osteopenia is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, while subchondral cysts and osteophyte formation at joint margins are more common in osteoarthritis.

      Subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation at joint margins are also incorrect as they are more commonly seen in osteoarthritis. Periarticular erosions are more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis and are therefore unlikely to be seen on this patient’s x-ray.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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  • Question 53 - A 82-year-old female is brought to the emergency department following a fall at...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old female is brought to the emergency department following a fall at her nursing home. She has a medical history of osteoporosis, dementia, and is considered clinically frail. During examination, her left leg is found to be shortened and her hip externally rotated. An X-ray reveals a displaced intracapsular fracture. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemiarthroplasty

      Explanation:

      For patients with a displaced hip fracture, hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement is the recommended treatment. In this case, the patient has a confirmed intracapsular fracture of the neck of femur, which carries a high risk of avascular necrosis. Hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement is preferred for patients over 70 years old, with hemiarthroplasty being the better option for those with serious comorbidities, dementia, or immobility. Therefore, the patient should be managed with a hemiarthroplasty. The use of a dynamic hip screw, internal fixation, or Intramedullary nail is not appropriate for this type of fracture.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 54 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the hospital with a suspected fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the hospital with a suspected fracture of her left femur. Her parents are unsure how this happened and deny any injury. During the examination, you observe extensive dental decay, a bluish hue to the whites of her eyes, and on X-ray, multiple fractures at different stages of healing are noted.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Explanation:

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is a collagen disorder that is identified by blue sclera, multiple fractures during childhood, dental caries, and deafness due to otosclerosis. It is often mistaken for child abuse or neglect, but the presence of blue sclera is a crucial indicator of osteogenesis imperfecta. In contrast, rickets is more likely to cause growth stunting and deformities rather than multiple fractures.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.

      When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 55 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of significant loss of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of significant loss of central vision. He has no prior history of vision problems and is concerned that it may be due to cancer. The patient has a complicated medical history that includes rheumatoid arthritis, erectile dysfunction, atrial fibrillation, and mild Parkinson's disease. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine is the correct answer. This patient is experiencing bull’s eye retinopathy, a severe side effect of the drug that can cause permanent damage to the retina and loss of central vision. Hydroxychloroquine is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis. Digoxin is used for atrial fibrillation and can cause yellow-green vision, but it does not lead to retinopathy. Levodopa, used for Parkinson’s, can cause various side effects such as dyskinesia and hypotension, but it has not been linked to retinopathy. Methotrexate is used for rheumatoid arthritis and can cause mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, and pulmonary fibrosis, but it does not cause retinopathy.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

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  • Question 56 - An 80-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of pain while swallowing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of pain while swallowing and frequent nausea that has been going on for 4 weeks. Due to his age and symptoms, the doctor refers him for an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD), which reveals oesophageal ulceration. What medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronic acid

      Explanation:

      Alendronic acid is a bisphosphonate that can cause various oesophageal problems, including oesophagitis and ulceration. It is commonly used to treat and prevent osteoporosis. Other side effects of bisphosphonates include fever, myalgia, arthralgia, and hypocalcaemia. In this case, the patient has developed oesophageal ulceration, which is a common side effect of alendronic acid. Treatment may involve high-dose PPI and discontinuation of the medication.

      Amlodipine is not the correct answer. It is a calcium channel blocker used to treat angina and hypertension. While it can cause dyspepsia, it does not typically cause gastrointestinal ulceration. Some studies have even suggested that amlodipine may have a protective effect. Common side effects of amlodipine include constipation, lower limb oedema, and headache.

      Aspirin is also not the correct answer. While aspirin and other NSAIDs are associated with peptic ulcer disease, there is no evidence to suggest that they cause oesophageal ulcers.

      Ibuprofen is also not the correct answer. It is a commonly used NSAID that can cause gastric irritation and peptic ulcers with prolonged use. However, oesophageal ulcers are rare and are more likely to be caused by alendronic acid.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 57 - A 35-year-old woman and her partner have come to seek advice from their...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman and her partner have come to seek advice from their GP on how to conceive as they are planning to start a family. The woman has a medical history of asthma and obesity with a BMI of 32 kg/m², while her partner has Crohn's disease that is being managed with methotrexate. They have no significant family history and the woman hopes to have a vaginal birth. She has never been pregnant before. What is the primary advice that should be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Her husband should use contraception and wait for 6 months after stopping treatment first

      Explanation:

      Patients who are using methotrexate must use effective contraception during treatment and for at least 6 months after treatment, whether they are male or female. In this case, the patient’s husband is taking methotrexate, which inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and folic acid metabolism. Therefore, both partners should stop taking methotrexate for 6 months and use effective contraception before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate can damage sperm in men and eggs in women, which can lead to severe complications such as neural tube defects in the fetus. Additional folic acid supplements will not significantly reduce the risk of complications associated with methotrexate. Therefore, both partners should use effective contraception during the time the husband is taking methotrexate. The advice to take 400 micrograms or 5 milligrams of folic acid until the end of the first trimester is incorrect in this case, as the couple should delay trying for a pregnancy for 6 months due to the husband’s methotrexate use.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

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  • Question 58 - A 55-year-old man is brought in following a fall from scaffolding resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought in following a fall from scaffolding resulting in an open tibial fracture and a 15 cm wound. Fortunately, he has no neurovascular damage. What is the most appropriate initial step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous antibiotics, photography and application of saline soaked gauze with impermeable dressing

      Explanation:

      When dealing with open fractures, it is important to start with giving the patient intravenous antibiotics, taking photographs of the wound, and applying a sterile soaked gauze and impermeable film. It is crucial to avoid handling the wound except for removing any visible contamination. After this initial step, the patient will likely need further treatment for skeletal and soft tissue reconstruction.

      Understanding Open Fractures

      Open fractures occur when there is a break in the bone and the skin is also damaged. Any wound in the same limb as a fracture should be considered an open fracture. The main issue with open fractures is the damage to the surrounding soft tissues, including muscles, nerves, blood vessels, and periosteum. The severity of the injury and outcome depend on the extent of this damage. The Gustilo and Anderson system grades open fractures based on the size of the wound and soft tissue damage. Type IIIc injuries, which involve arterial injury, may require primary amputation.

      Initial management of open fractures involves examining the patient for associated injuries, controlling bleeding, and assessing the extent of the injury. Imaging and establishing distal neurovascular status are also important. Antibiotics should be administered, and the wound should be covered with a dressing. Early debridement, which involves removing foreign material and devitalized tissue, is crucial. The wound is often left open and irrigated with saline. Stabilizing the fracture is also important, and an external fixator is often used initially.

      Overall, understanding open fractures is important for proper management and treatment. Early intervention and careful attention to soft tissue damage can improve outcomes for patients.

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  • Question 59 - John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain, and dry eyes. He has also noticed a red-purple rash on his upper cheeks that worsens after sun exposure. Upon further inquiry, he reports frequent mouth ulcers. Based on these symptoms, you suspect systemic lupus erythematosus.
      Initial laboratory tests show anemia and proteinuria on urinalysis.
      Which test would be most suitable to rule out this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) is common in the adult population, but it is not a reliable diagnostic tool for autoimmune rheumatic disease without additional clinical features. To accurately diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies, low complement levels, or anti-Smith (Sm) antibodies in patients with relevant clinical features is highly predictive. However, these markers cannot be used as rule-out tests, as there is still a chance of SLE even with a negative result. Anti-Ro/La antibodies are less specific to SLE, as they are also found in other autoimmune rheumatic disorders.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

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  • Question 60 - A 57-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain in her left hand....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain in her left hand. She reports that the pain is located at the base of her left thumb and is a constant ache that worsens with movement. The patient states that the pain has been progressively worsening over the past year. She has a medical history of gout in her big toe, which is managed with allopurinol. Her mother was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis five years ago, and she is concerned that she may also have this condition. On examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the left thumb base, and unilateral squaring of the left thumb is observed. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this history and clinical examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by squaring of the thumbs. This is due to bony outgrowths at the basilar joint of the thumb. Additionally, the pain experienced is typically unilateral and worsens with movement. De Quervain’s tendinosis may cause pain at the base of the thumb but does not result in thumb squaring. Gout is unlikely to present with thumb squaring and typically affects joints in the lower limb. Psoriatic arthritis typically affects distal joints and may present with skin and nail signs. Rheumatoid arthritis, despite a positive family history and similar pain history, does not explain the squaring of the thumb.

      Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand

      Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.

      Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.

      Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.

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  • Question 61 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache on the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache on the right side of his head. The pain is concentrated in his right temple and worsens when he moves his jaw. He reports no changes in vision or focal neurological symptoms. The patient has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica. A temporal artery biopsy is scheduled to confirm the diagnosis. What is the next best course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When temporal arthritis is suspected, glucocorticoids should be administered immediately without waiting for a temporal artery biopsy. This condition, also known as giant cell arthritis, typically presents with a localized headache in the temporal region and jaw claudication. It is strongly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. Prompt treatment is essential as temporal arthritis is a medical emergency that can lead to serious complications. Oral prednisolone is the recommended treatment in the absence of vision changes. Analgesia alone is not sufficient, and waiting for biopsy results can cause unnecessary delays in treatment. IV methylprednisolone is only indicated if there are changes in vision. Oral dexamethasone is not recommended as there is limited evidence on its efficacy for giant cell arthritis. Therefore, prednisolone is the preferred first-line treatment.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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  • Question 62 - An 80-year-old woman has been experiencing jaw pain and difficulty chewing for the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has been experiencing jaw pain and difficulty chewing for the past 2 months. She describes her jaw as feeling heavy, but there is no clicking or locking, and no changes to her vision or scalp tenderness. She has a history of well-controlled polymyalgia rheumatica and depression, and recalls a medical student mentioning that this could be a side effect of one of her medications. Her current medications include vitamin D and calcium supplements, prednisolone, alendronic acid, and sertraline. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate use

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 63 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of fatigue, aches, constipation, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of fatigue, aches, constipation, and nausea. She reports increased thirst and waking at night to pass urine, and has been experiencing a low mood that has kept her from leaving the house frequently. The following investigations were performed:

      - Hb 140 g/L (115 - 160)
      - WBC 5.9 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Calcium 2.8 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - PTH 75 pg/mL (10 - 55)
      - ALP 130 µmol/L (30 - 100)
      - Phosphate 0.4 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - Urea 5.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 68 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - 25-hydroxycholecalciferol 48 nmol/L (>50)
      - eGFR 62 ml/min/1.73 m2

      What is the most likely underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid adenoma

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of chronic kidney disease is incorrect in this case. An eGFR below 90 can still be considered normal if it is above 60 and there are no abnormalities in the U&Es. The patient’s eGFR is 62 and their urea and creatinine levels are within normal range, indicating that they do not have CKD. In cases of CKD, secondary hyperparathyroidism may occur, which would result in different blood test results. Since the kidneys are responsible for activating vitamin D, which is essential for the absorption of calcium in the intestines, low serum calcium levels would be expected in CKD. Additionally, due to kidney dysfunction, there would be inadequate excretion of phosphate, leading to increased serum phosphate levels. This increase in phosphate levels would cause calcium to be deposited in the insoluble calcium phosphate salt, further lowering calcium levels. Therefore, the symptoms of hypercalcemia that the patient is experiencing would not be present in secondary hyperparathyroidism caused by CKD. In summary, hyperparathyroidism secondary to CKD would result in low calcium and high phosphate levels, rather than high calcium and low phosphate levels.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

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  • Question 64 - A 56-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and stage 3 chronic kidney disease presents with complaints of back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. His GP has referred him for further evaluation. Upon examination, the patient is lying on his left side with his hips slightly flexed. Attempting to palpate his abdomen causes pain in his left hip and back. The patient experiences increased pain when asked to flex his hip against resistance or hyperextend his hip. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.3 ºC, heart rate 95/min, respiratory rate 20/min, and blood pressure 140/82 mmHg. His abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics and percutaneous drainage

      Explanation:

      In cases of suspected iliopsoas abscess, antibiotics alone are unlikely to provide a cure. If there is a high clinical suspicion of a retrocaecal appendix, urgent laparoscopy and IV antibiotics may be necessary. However, this condition typically presents with acute pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen upon hip extension. Neoplastic spinal cord compression may require oral dexamethasone and an oncological review, as it initially presents with back pain and can progress to neurological deficits.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

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  • Question 65 - A 25-year-old male presents to the clinic with ongoing lower back pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the clinic with ongoing lower back pain. He reports that his pain seems to improve with physical activity, despite his demanding job in construction. Additionally, he has been experiencing discomfort in both hands and knees. During the examination, you observe restricted movement in his lumbar spine and decide to order X-rays of his spine, hands, and knees. What are the most probable findings you expect to see?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subchondral sclerosis of the sacroiliac joint

      Explanation:

      The x-ray findings suggest that the patient is suffering from ankylosing spondylitis, a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that causes fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints. The x-ray of the sacroiliac joints shows subchondral sclerosis and erosions, while the x-ray of the spine may reveal a ‘bamboo spine’ appearance and squaring of lumbar vertebrae. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘subchondral sclerosis of the sacroiliac joint’. It is important to note that chondrocalcinosis at the patellofemoral joint is a classic finding in pseudogout, while pencil-in-cup deformity is a classic finding in psoriatic arthropathy and rheumatoid arthritis. Additionally, ‘squaring’ rather than ’rounding’ of the lumbar vertebrae is seen in ankylosing spondylitis on lumbar x-rays, and subchondral sclerosis is a common feature at the patellofemoral joint in osteoarthritis.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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  • Question 66 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of recurrent spontaneous miscarriages and DVT /...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of recurrent spontaneous miscarriages and DVT / PEs comes for a follow-up appointment at your clinic. During the examination, you observe the presence of purpuric rashes, splinter haemorrhages, and livedo reticularis. Considering the probable diagnosis, what would be the most suitable auto-immune antibody test to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-cardiolipin antibodies

      Explanation:

      The antibodies associated with antiphospholipid syndrome are lupus anticoagulant (LA) and anti-cardiolipin antibodies (aCL).

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

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  • Question 67 - A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing pain in his left forefoot over the past three weeks. He is an avid runner, typically running for two to three hours daily, but has never experienced this issue before. There is no history of direct injury to the foot. Upon examination, he is afebrile with a pulse rate of 88 beats per minute, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute. Point tenderness is noted on the left foot, but there is no swelling. X-ray results reveal periosteal thickening, and a diagnosis of metatarsal stress fracture is made. Which metatarsal is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second

      Explanation:

      Metatarsal stress fractures are commonly caused by repeated stress over time and typically occur in healthy athletes, such as runners. The second metatarsal shaft is the most frequent site of these fractures due to its firm fixation at the tarsometatarsal joint, which results in increased rigidity and a higher risk of fracture. Diagnosis is often based on clinical history and examination, as early x-rays may not show any abnormalities. The first metatarsal is the least commonly fractured due to its larger size, which requires greater force to break. On the other hand, the fifth metatarsal is the most commonly fractured as a result of direct trauma or crush injuries.

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 68 - During a routine examination for private medical insurance, a 30-year-old female with a...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine examination for private medical insurance, a 30-year-old female with a history of Ehler-Danlos syndrome presents with widespread bruising and a faint diastolic murmur on chest auscultation. What is the most likely complication of Ehler-Danlos that she is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Aortic regurgitation is a cardiac complication that can arise from Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects collagen, leading to increased tissue elasticity. The condition has various subtypes, but type III collagen is typically affected in most cases, and it is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.

      When a diastolic murmur is present, the most probable causes are mitral stenosis and aortic regurgitation. Individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome are more likely to experience valvular incompetence due to the connective tissue abnormalities. Although aortic dissection is another potential complication of Ehler-Danlos, it is unlikely to manifest in this manner.

      Atrial and ventricular septal defects are not commonly linked to Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile and easily bruised skin, as well as recurrent joint dislocations. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.

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  • Question 69 - A 35-year-old businesswoman comes to the GP complaining of persistent pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old businesswoman comes to the GP complaining of persistent pain and swelling in her forefoot. She reports that she recently relocated to London for a new job and spends a lot of time on her feet, often wearing high heels. The pain is exacerbated when she bears weight on her foot, and squeezing the area reproduces the discomfort. Based on these symptoms, which bone is most likely affected by a stress fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2nd metatarsal

      Explanation:

      Metatarsal fractures are a common occurrence, with the potential to affect one or multiple metatarsals. These fractures can result from direct trauma or repeated mechanical stress, known as stress fractures. The metatarsals are particularly susceptible to stress fractures, with the second metatarsal shaft being the most common site. The proximal 5th metatarsal is the most commonly fractured metatarsal, while the 1st metatarsal is the least commonly fractured.

      Fractures of the proximal 5th metatarsal can be classified as either proximal avulsion fractures or Jones fractures. Proximal avulsion fractures occur at the proximal tuberosity and are often associated with lateral ankle sprains. Jones fractures, on the other hand, are transverse fractures at the metaphyseal-diaphyseal junction and are much less common.

      Symptoms of metatarsal fractures include pain, bony tenderness, swelling, and an antalgic gait. X-rays are typically used to distinguish between displaced and non-displaced fractures, which guides subsequent management options. However, stress fractures may not appear on X-rays and may require an isotope bone scan or MRI to establish their presence. Overall, metatarsal fractures are a common injury that can result from a variety of causes and require prompt diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old man suffers an open tibial fracture following an incident with industrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man suffers an open tibial fracture following an incident with industrial equipment. The fracture is a simple oblique break in his distal tibia, accompanied by an 8 cm ragged wound. Despite this, the limb's neurovascular function remains intact. What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate wound debridement and application of spanning external fixation device

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to delay the definitive management of open fractures until the soft tissues have fully recovered. In the case of heavily contaminated wounds, such as those caused by farmyard equipment, they are automatically classified as at least Gustilo grade IIIa. Therefore, it is necessary to perform wound debridement and ‘mini washouts’ in the operating theatre immediately. For contaminated wounds, this should be done as soon as possible, within 12 hours for high-energy injuries, and within 24 hours for all other injuries. If definitive surgical fixation is performed initially, it should only be done if it can be followed by definitive soft tissue coverage. However, in most cases, an external fixation device is used as an interim measure while soft tissue coverage is achieved, which should be done within 72 hours.

      Fracture Management: Understanding Types and Treatment

      Fractures can occur due to trauma, stress, or pathological reasons. Diagnosis involves evaluating the site and type of injury, as well as associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are important in assessing changes in bone length, distal bone angulation, rotational effects, and foreign material. Fracture types include oblique, comminuted, segmental, transverse, and spiral. It is also important to distinguish open from closed injuries, with the Gustilo and Anderson classification system being the most common for open fractures. Management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, managing infection, and debriding open fractures within 6 hours of injury.

      To ensure proper fracture management, it is crucial to understand the different types of fractures and their causes. Diagnosis involves not only evaluating the fracture itself, but also any associated injuries and neurovascular deficits. X-rays are an important tool in assessing the extent of the injury. It is also important to distinguish between open and closed fractures, with open fractures requiring immediate attention and debridement. Proper management involves immobilizing the fracture, monitoring neurovascular status, and managing infection. By understanding the different types of fractures and their treatment, healthcare professionals can provide effective care for patients with fractures.

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  • Question 71 - A 55-year-old woman presents at the one-stop breast clinic for triple assessment following...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents at the one-stop breast clinic for triple assessment following a suspicious lesion detected on a screening mammogram. You review recent blood tests from her GP and are asked to identify the most probable underlying cause of the abnormal result.

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 242 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 10.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Calcium 2.6 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)

      Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)

      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      Amylase 203 U/L (70 - 300)

      Uric acid 0.46 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)

      Creatine kinase 1200 U/L (35 - 250)

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have breast cancer based on her age and abnormal mammogram results. Additionally, her blood tests show an elevated creatinine kinase (CK) level. This combination of malignancy and raised CK suggests the possibility of polymyositis, a condition that is often associated with cancer. However, a thorough medical history should be obtained before making any definitive diagnosis. The patient may report experiencing muscle weakness and tenderness, particularly in the proximal areas such as the shoulders. It is unlikely that drug-induced factors are causing the raised CK, as there is no indication of this in the patient’s case. Myocardial infarction (MI) is another potential cause of elevated CK, but there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case here. Polymyalgia rheumatica may present with similar symptoms to polymyositis, but it does not typically cause a raised CK. Instead, it is associated with elevated inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP. Therefore, CK levels can be a useful tool in distinguishing between polymyalgia rheumatica and polymyositis.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

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  • Question 72 - An 80-year-old woman complains of feeling generally fatigued and experiencing muscle aches. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman complains of feeling generally fatigued and experiencing muscle aches. She reports stiffness and pain in her back, arms, and thighs, especially in the morning. These symptoms have persisted for the past two weeks, despite her previously being in good health. Upon examination, the only notable finding is tenderness in her deltoid and thigh muscles, with normal muscle strength. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

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  • Question 73 - As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a 37-year-old man who is experiencing worsening pain in his left knee. He is unable to bear weight on the affected leg and reports no injury or trauma. The patient is a known IV drug user and has no known drug allergies or regular medications. On examination, the knee is swollen and hot to touch. His vital signs are heart rate 107 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, oxygen saturations 95%, blood pressure 106/65mmHg, and temperature 38.9ºC. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of Hb, WBC, CRP, and ESR. The synovial fluid culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate first-line IV antibiotic therapy for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is likely in an intravenous drug user presenting with an acute, swollen and hot knee, accompanied by fever, inability to weight-bare, and raised inflammatory markers. The Kocher criteria can assist in confirming this diagnosis. According to the BNF, the preferred initial intravenous antibiotic is flucloxacillin, which targets gram-positive cocci and is commonly used for musculoskeletal and soft tissue infections in patients without allergies. Clindamycin may be an alternative, but only for those with a penicillin allergy.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

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  • Question 74 - A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in his left eye. Upon further questioning, he reports that he has also had a temporal headache for around 2 weeks and has felt generally unwell. He denies any jaw pain when chewing but does have some scalp tenderness. Blood tests are taken which show an ESR of 65mm/hr.
      He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and he smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

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  • Question 75 - A 53-year-old textiles worker is referred for nerve conduction studies after a trial...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old textiles worker is referred for nerve conduction studies after a trial of conservative management fails to improve symptoms of sensory loss over the palmar aspect of her right thumb, index, middle and ring fingers. Examination reveals thenar wasting of the right hand.

      What would be the common findings in nerve conduction evaluation of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Action potential prolongation in both sensory and motor axons

      Explanation:

      Both sensory and motor axons experience prolonged action potential in carpal tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression of the median nerve. This physical compression affects the ability of all neurons to effectively conduct action potentials, resulting in symptoms that affect both sensory and motor pathways. No other combinations of axon functioning are linked to carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

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  • Question 76 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of experiencing arthralgia and swelling in the MCP joints of both hands for the past six months. Upon examination, boggy swelling is observed in the third, fourth, and fifth MCP joints bilaterally, along with erythema and mild tenderness upon palpation. No significant deformities are noted, and she has normal motor function and range of motion in both hands. The following are the results of her investigations:
      Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody titre 48U (<20)
      What are the most probable X-ray findings for this patient's hands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteopaenia

      Explanation:

      Juxta-articular osteopenia is an early X-ray finding commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who presents with symmetrical arthropathy affecting multiple hand joints and a positive anti-CCP titre. Joint subluxation is an unlikely finding on initial X-rays at the time of diagnosis, and peri-articular erosions and subchondral cysts are typically seen in progressive disease rather than at the early stages.

      X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.

      As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.

      It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

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  • Question 77 - Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Learning difficulties

      Explanation:

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.

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  • Question 78 - A 75-year-old male presents to his primary care physician and is screened for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents to his primary care physician and is screened for osteoporosis using the QFracture risk assessment tool. The tool indicates that his risk of experiencing a fragility fracture is over 10%, leading to a referral for a DEXA scan. The results of the scan show a T-score of -2.9.
      What abnormalities might be observed in this patient's blood work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal ALP, calcium, phosphate and PTH

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is typically not diagnosed through blood tests, as they usually show normal values for ALP, calcium, phosphate, and PTH. Instead, a DEXA scan is used to confirm the diagnosis, with a T-score below -2.5 indicating osteoporosis. Treatment for osteoporosis typically involves oral bisphosphonates like alendronate. Blood test results showing increased ALP and calcium but normal PTH and phosphate may indicate osteolytic metastatic disease, while increased calcium, ALP, and PTH but decreased phosphate may suggest primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Conversely, increased phosphate, ALP, and PTH but decreased calcium may indicate secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is often associated with chronic kidney disease.

      Understanding Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the skeletal system, causing a loss of bone mass. As people age, their bone mineral density decreases, but osteoporosis is defined by the World Health Organisation as having a bone mineral density of less than 2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean density. This condition is significant because it increases the risk of fragility fractures, which can lead to significant morbidity and mortality. In fact, around 50% of postmenopausal women will experience an osteoporotic fracture at some point.

      The primary risk factors for osteoporosis are age and female gender, but other factors include corticosteroid use, smoking, alcohol consumption, low body mass index, and family history. To assess a patient’s risk of developing a fragility fracture, healthcare providers may use screening tools such as FRAX or QFracture. Additionally, patients who have sustained a fragility fracture should be evaluated for osteoporosis.

      To determine a patient’s bone mineral density, a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is used to examine the hip and lumbar spine. If either of these areas has a T score of less than -2.5, treatment is recommended. The first-line treatment for osteoporosis is typically an oral bisphosphonate such as alendronate, although other treatments are available. Overall, osteoporosis is a significant condition that requires careful evaluation and management to prevent fragility fractures and their associated complications.

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  • Question 79 - A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has persisted for two weeks. The pain is situated between the shoulder blades and happens frequently throughout the day. He expresses concern that this might be a severe issue and has been avoiding physical activity as a result.
      What aspects of this patient's medical history are cause for concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Location of pain

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with back pain in the thoracic area, it is considered a red flag and requires further investigation to rule out potential serious underlying causes such as skeletal disorders, degenerative disc disease, vertebral fractures, vascular malformations, or metastasis. Additionally, if the patient exhibits fear-avoidance behavior and reduced activity, it may indicate psychosocial factors that could lead to chronic back pain. Patients under 20 or over 50 years old, those with a history of trauma, and those whose pain is worse at night are also considered red flags.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 80 - A 26-year-old man presents with a history of worsening low back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents with a history of worsening low back pain over the past year. He reports that the pain is more severe after prolonged periods of sitting and experiences stiffness in the morning lasting up to 30 minutes. Despite being an active footballer and gym-goer, he has been troubled by pain in his right Achilles tendon, limiting his physical activity. The GP has referred him to a rheumatologist and ordered lumbar spine and sacroiliac joint x-rays. What collection of findings is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and squaring of vertebrae

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a condition that typically affects males between the ages of 20-30 and is characterized by low back pain that worsens at rest and improves with activity, as well as early morning stiffness lasting more than 15 minutes. This condition is often associated with Achilles tendinopathy (enthesitis). Radiographic imaging commonly shows subchondral erosions and sclerosis in the sacroiliac joints (sacroiliitis), as well as vertebral body squaring, ligament calcification, and syndesmophytes in the lumbar spine. Over time, these changes can lead to the formation of a ‘bamboo spine’. Block vertebra is a different condition that involves a failure of separation of adjacent vertebral bodies and is not typically seen in ankylosing spondylitis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint space narrowing, osteophytes, and subchondral cysts, while rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by marginal erosions, soft tissue swelling, and periarticular osteoporosis. Gout is characterized by soft tissue swelling, punched-out bone lesions, and overhanging sclerotic margins.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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  • Question 81 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen second toe and wrist pain associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen second toe and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.

      Hb 125 g/l

      Platelets 390 * 109/l

      WBC 6.5 * 109/l

      ESR 78 mm/h

      Rheumatoid Factor Negative

      Antinuclear Antibody Negative

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinuclear antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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  • Question 82 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain in her right hand that has been bothering her for the past 6 months. Upon examination, there is tenderness in the distal interphalangeal joints of her right hand. An X-ray reveals erosions in the center of the distal interphalangeal joints of her right hand, which are described as having a pencil in cup appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 83 - A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and stiffness that has persisted for over 3 months. He denies any history of injury. The patient reports that his symptoms are worse in the morning but improve with exercise. Routine blood tests were normal except for an ESR of 30 mm/hour (normal range: 0-15) and a CRP of 15 mg/L (normal range: <10). A plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints reveals erosions, sclerosis, and joint space widening, leading to a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exercise and NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is primarily managed through exercise and NSAIDs. NSAIDs are effective in relieving symptoms and preventing functional limitations, while regular exercise, including postural training, range of motion exercises, stretching, and recreational activities like swimming, can help reduce and prevent functional limitations.

      To measure disease activity, the Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Score (ASDAS) is used, which categorizes disease activity as inactive, low, high, or very high. If a patient has persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments with NSAIDs, anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) therapy may be considered. However, the disease activity must be at least high (≥2.1) on ASDAS to warrant biologic therapy.

      Glucocorticoids are not recommended for patients with ankylosing spondylitis. Methotrexate may be prescribed if conventional treatment with NSAIDs does not control symptoms, specifically for persistent peripheral arthritis.

      In severe cases where the disease has progressed, surgery may be necessary. Hip and spine surgery may be beneficial for select patients with persistent pain or severe limitation in mobility, neurologic impairment, or severe flexion deformities.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 84 - A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the GP clinic complaining of new onset of low back pain. The pain is more severe at night and frequently spreads to his hips. It gets better with physical activity. He is also experiencing light sensitivity in both eyes and decreased vision in his left eye. Despite taking oral NSAIDs, his symptoms have not improved. What would be the most suitable medication for the next stage of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Etanercept

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a condition that can cause acute iritis in approximately one-third of patients. This man is displaying typical symptoms of AS and is also experiencing acute iritis. Since oral NSAIDs have not been effective, the next course of action would be to consider TNF-alpha blockers like infliximab and etanercept. DMARDs such as methotrexate and leflunomide have not been found to be helpful in treating AS. While capsaicin may be useful for osteoarthritis, it is not indicated for AS.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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  • Question 85 - A 45-year-old male comes to your clinic complaining of knee pain. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male comes to your clinic complaining of knee pain. He reports experiencing severe pain in his left knee for the past 5 days, and he describes the joint as feeling very warm. During the examination, you observe redness and swelling of the affected joint. Aspiration of the knee does not show any signs of septic arthritis, but it does reveal deposits of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals.
      What is a risk factor for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is likely in this patient, and their medical history suggests that they may be at risk due to hyperparathyroidism. This condition can cause a monoarthropathy that affects large joints, with accompanying swelling and erythema. Diagnosis can be confirmed through aspiration of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals. The increased levels of serum calcium resulting from excess parathyroid hormone make hyperparathyroidism a risk factor for pseudogout.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 86 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pain and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pain and stiffness in both knees and hands for a few months. She also reports swelling in her left index finger. Apart from hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine, and a cough that is currently being investigated, she is in good health and has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor notices dactylitis in her left index finger, as well as general pain and limited mobility in her fingers. X-rays of her hands reveal erosions in the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint on both sides. What diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      The presence of DIP joint swelling and dactylitis in inflammatory arthritis suggests a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis. Although there is not always a clear correlation between psoriatic arthritis and cutaneous psoriasis, arthritic symptoms often appear before skin lesions. While there may be some overlap with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of DIP joint disease and dactylitis are more indicative of psoriatic arthritis. Gout is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents as acute and monoarticular or oligoarticular, without the other symptoms seen here. Osteoarthritis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents asymmetrically in larger joints and does not typically present with dactylitis or the findings seen on X-ray. Rheumatoid arthritis is a possibility, but a blood test for anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (anti-CCP) should be performed to confirm the diagnosis, as these antibodies are highly specific to rheumatoid arthritis and are usually absent in psoriatic arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 87 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning pain on the outer part of her left knee. The pain is felt during movement and she has not observed any swelling of the knee. There is no history of injury and no locking of the knee joint. Samantha is a long-distance runner and is preparing for a marathon. During examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. She has a good range of motion of her knee joint. However, a snapping sensation is noticed on the lateral aspect of the knee when her joint is repeatedly flexed and extended. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lateral knee pain in runners is often caused by iliotibial band syndrome. This condition can result in a sharp or burning sensation around the knee joint line. Meniscal tears, on the other hand, can cause joint locking, pain, and swelling. Patellofemoral syndrome may lead to knee cap pain that worsens with stair climbing and prolonged use. Meanwhile, rheumatoid arthritis usually affects the small joints in the hands and feet initially, causing stiffness, pain, and swelling in other joints as well.

      Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.

      To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.

      In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.

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  • Question 88 - A middle-aged Bangladeshi man presents to the emergency department with back pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged Bangladeshi man presents to the emergency department with back pain and fever. An MRI is performed and a diagnosis of discitis is made. A CT guided biopsy is performed and cultures were taken. They come back showing Staphylococcus aureus as the causative organisms and antibiotic therapy was started based on sensitivity testing. 2 weeks later he returns to the emergency department as he has spiked another fever and the back pain is worsening.

      What could be the reason for the deterioration of symptoms in this middle-aged Bangladeshi man with discitis despite antibiotic therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epidural abscess

      Explanation:

      The patient’s worsening fever and pain, despite being given antibiotics that were effective against the organism causing the discitis, suggest the presence of an abscess that cannot be reached through the systemic circulation. One possible complication of discitis is an epidural abscess, which is characterized by fever and back pain. While acute pyelonephritis can also cause back pain, it typically radiates from the loin to the groin and may be accompanied by urinary symptoms. Vertebral metastasis is unlikely in this patient without a history of cancer and with the presence of spiking temperatures. Pott’s disease, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, can present with similar symptoms but is not the cause of this patient’s infection, which is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. An epidural hematoma can cause severe back pain, but the absence of fever and no history of trauma make it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.

      To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.

      Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.

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  • Question 89 - A 65-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with complaints of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department with complaints of a painful hand. Upon further examination, it was discovered that she had sustained a Colles' fracture. A DEXA scan was performed, revealing a T-score of -2.7 from L2-L4 and -2.8 in the right hip. The patient is currently taking omeprazole for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 85 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Calcium 1.95 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
      Magnesium 0.55 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
      Vitamin D 115 nmol/L (50 - 250)
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 2.1 pmol/L (1.6 – 8.5)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Correct calcium level then commence alendronate

      Explanation:

      Before starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis, it is important to correct any hypocalcemia or vitamin D deficiency. This is because bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone loss through osteoclastic activity, which is also responsible for increasing calcium levels in the body. Therefore, correcting calcium and vitamin D levels prior to treatment is necessary to ensure proper calcium regulation during therapy. Serum calcium levels should also be monitored during treatment. Alendronate is the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, but it should only be started after correcting any hypocalcemia. Oral calcium tablets alone are not appropriate for this patient, as the cause of hypocalcemia should be considered first. In this case, the low magnesium level should be corrected, as magnesium is required for PTH secretion and sensitivity. Raloxifene is an alternative treatment option for osteoporosis, but it should only be considered if the patient cannot tolerate bisphosphonates. It is also important to note that proton pump inhibitors can increase the risk of osteoporosis and cause hypomagnesemia.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 90 - A 19-year-old male patient complains of sudden onset severe pain in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male patient complains of sudden onset severe pain in his right hip for the past 10 days. He also experiences high-grade fever with chills that comes and goes despite taking paracetamol. The pain is intense, non-radiating, and worsens with hip movements. He denies any history of trauma. What is the most important diagnostic test for this patient's likely condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synovial fluid analysis

      Explanation:

      The primary investigation for patients suspected of having septic arthritis is the sampling of synovial fluid.

      Septic arthritis is a joint inflammation caused by the introduction of infectious microorganisms into the joint.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

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  • Question 91 - A 32-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with a 3 week history of joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with a 3 week history of joint pain, a pink, bumpy rash on her arms, legs, and trunk, and fevers that spike in the evenings. She has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and a palpable spleen on examination. Blood tests reveal a significant leucocytosis (≥ 10,000/µL) and elevated serum ferritin (350 ng/mL) levels, but negative antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor tests. What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      To diagnose adult-onset Still’s disease, it is necessary to exclude other conditions by ensuring that rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests are negative. The presence of joint pain, spiking fevers, and a pink bumpy rash is a characteristic triad of symptoms associated with this disease. High serum ferritin and leucocytosis are also commonly observed. Negative results for rheumatoid factor and anti-nuclear antibody tests help to rule out rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus. Spiking fevers are not typically associated with Wilson’s disease or haemochromatosis. This information is based on the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialties (10th Edition), page 654.

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

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  • Question 92 - A 35-year-old man of African origin visits his doctor with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man of African origin visits his doctor with a complaint of experiencing extremely cold and white fingers at random times of the day, especially in winter and outdoors. During the examination, the doctor observes small white deposits on his arms, a large number of spider naevi on his cheeks, and thickened skin on the top of his hands, making it difficult for him to straighten out his fingers. Currently, the color and temperature of his fingers are normal. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following symptoms is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysphagia

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits all the symptoms of CREST syndrome except for dysphagia caused by oesophageal dysmotility. These symptoms include calcinosis (white deposits), Raynaud’s phenomenon (cold, white fingertips triggered by cold weather), sclerodactyly (thickened skin on top of hands and inability to straighten fingers), and telangiectasia (excessive number of spider naevi). Gottron’s papules and dilated capillary loops are characteristic of dermatomyositis, while limited scleroderma does not typically involve internal organs, making glomerulonephritis unlikely. Although Sjogren’s syndrome can overlap with other connective tissue diseases, the patient’s lack of dysphagia makes this diagnosis less likely than CREST syndrome.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

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  • Question 93 - An 80-year-old woman presents with a sudden pulsating headache in her temples and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with a sudden pulsating headache in her temples and scalp tenderness. She is promptly treated with corticosteroids and a decision is made to start her on a long-term dose-reducing regimen. The patient has a medical history of proximal muscle stiffness that is worse in the morning.

      Baseline investigations are conducted, revealing the following results:
      - Calcium: 2.33 mmol/L (normal range: 2.10 - 2.60 mmol/L)
      - Phosphate: 1.35 mmol/L (normal range: 0.74 - 1.40 mmol/L)
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 78 mmol/L (normal range: 30 - 100 U/L)
      - 25-hydroxycholecalciferol: 13 mU/L (normal range: 20 - 50 ng/mL)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence high-dose vitamin D replacement

      Explanation:

      Before administering bisphosphonates, it is important to address hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

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  • Question 94 - A 70-year-old man with a recent chest infection arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a recent chest infection arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right knee. Upon conducting a joint aspirate, analysis of the synovial fluid reveals the presence of positively birefringent crystals. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with desferrioxamine for his iron overload. What would be the most suitable initial management for his musculoskeletal symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout, which is caused by an excess of calcium pyrophosphate levels in the body, has several risk factors including haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, hypophosphataemia, hypothyroidism, hypomagnesemia, and old age. This patient, who has haemochromatosis, is currently taking iron chelating agents to manage their iron overload. The recommended first line treatment for pseudogout is NSAIDs and colchicine. Allopurinol is not effective for pseudogout as it is not caused by uric acid overload. Methotrexate may be used for chronic pseudogout, but it is not typically the first line treatment. Sulfasalazine is not indicated for pseudogout.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

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  • Question 95 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increasing pain in one leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP complaining of increasing pain in one leg over the past 6 months. He also reports mild weakness in the affected leg during any activity. The pain travels down the back of his left leg and worsens when walking, causing him to stop and rest frequently. However, the pain improves when he sits or crouches down. The patient has no history of smoking or cardiovascular issues and has a body mass index of 19.0 kg/m2. There are no abnormalities found during back and neurological examinations. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar canal spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      When a patient complains of claudication, spinal stenosis should be considered as a possible cause.

      If the patient experiences leg pain on one side that improves with rest, certain factors in their medical history may indicate spinal stenosis rather than peripheral arterial disease. These factors include pain relief when sitting or crouching, leg weakness, no history of smoking, and no cardiovascular issues. Ankylosing spondylitis, which primarily causes back pain, is more common in younger patients and is unlikely to cause leg pain. Conversion disorder, a psychiatric condition that presents with unexplained musculoskeletal symptoms, is typically diagnosed after ruling out physical causes, but the patient’s history suggests spinal stenosis rather than a psychiatric cause. While peripheral arterial disease is a possible differential diagnosis, the absence of cardiac risk factors and the pain-relieving factors suggest spinal stenosis. If the patient experiences claudication pain after walking 100 meters or more, peripheral arterial disease may be more likely.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

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  • Question 96 - A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of sudden onset of paraesthesia...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of sudden onset of paraesthesia and pain in her right leg. Upon further inquiry, she describes the pain spreading along the back of her thigh and the posterolateral region of her leg, reaching the top of her foot and her big toe. During the examination, you notice a loss of sensation in the top of her right foot and weakened strength when attempting to dorsiflex her right ankle. Her reflexes are intact, and she has a positive right-sided straight leg raise test. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing weakness in hip abduction and foot drop, which are indicative of an L5 radiculopathy. This condition is often caused by a herniated disc that is putting pressure on the nerve root. Unlike other nerve issues, L5 radiculopathy does not result in the loss of any specific reflexes. A positive SLR test is typically used to diagnose this condition. It is important to differentiate L5 radiculopathy from sciatic neuropathy, which can cause a loss of ankle jerk and plantar response, as well as knee flexion and power below the knee. The femoral nerve is responsible for the anterior thigh, not the posterior thigh. L4 radiculopathy can cause a reduction in knee jerk, while S1 can affect the ankle jerk.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 97 - A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a painful swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a painful swollen knee that started 1 day ago. Upon examination, his right knee is warm to the touch, diffusely swollen, and erythematosus. There is pain on both active and passive movement, and flexion and extension are limited due to pain.
      Observations show a respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 99%, blood pressure of 131/86 mmHg, heart rate of 68 beats per minute, and a temperature of 38.1ºC.
      Blood tests have been sent off for cultures and the results are pending.
      What is the most likely causative organism for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The most common organism causing septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. It is important to consider septic arthritis as a possible diagnosis when a joint appears red, hot, and swollen. While Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common cause in sexually active young adults, it is less likely in a 54-year-old. Salmonella typhimurium is a rare cause, but individuals with sickle cell disease are at higher risk for Salmonella spp septic arthritis. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common cause in patients with a new prosthetic joint.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

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  • Question 98 - A 63-year-old woman presents to her GP with a headache that started a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to her GP with a headache that started a week ago and is different from her usual headaches. She also reports experiencing jaw pain while eating, which has been ongoing for the past week. The GP suspects giant cell arthritis and initiates high-dose prednisolone treatment while referring her to ambulatory emergency care for specialist evaluation. The patient expresses concern about the potential impact of high-dose steroids on her bone health.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start alendronic acid, vitamin D and calcium supplements

      Explanation:

      Immediate bone protection should be provided to patients who are going to undergo long-term steroid treatment, especially if they are over 65 years old. In the case of this patient with giant cell arthritis, high dose prednisolone is required and therefore, immediate bone protection with alendronic acid is necessary. However, if the patient was under 65 years old, a bone density scan would be required to determine the need for bone protection medication. Merely reassuring the patient would not suffice as long-term steroid use can lead to osteoporosis, which is a significant concern for patients over 65 years old. Additionally, vitamin D and calcium supplements should be started along with bone protection medication. It is important to note that NSAIDs are not a suitable alternative to steroids for treating giant cell arthritis.

      Managing the Risk of Osteoporosis in Patients Taking Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly when a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is important to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, with further management dependent on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

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  • Question 99 - A 72-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of widespread bone...

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    • A 72-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a history of widespread bone pain and weakness in her lower limbs for the past year. During the examination, you observe grade 4 weakness in her proximal lower limb muscles. The following blood results were obtained: calcium levels of 2.05 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6), phosphate levels of 0.6 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4), PTH levels of 21.2 pmol/L (normal range: 1.6-6.9), and ALP levels of 260 u/L (normal range: 30-100). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis is osteomalacia, as indicated by the classic clinical features of widespread bone pain and proximal myopathy, along with laboratory results showing low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP, and raised PTH. Osteopenia and osteoporosis are not the correct diagnoses, as they are quantitative disorders of bone mineralisation that require a DEXA scan for diagnosis. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also not the correct diagnosis, as it is characterised by hypercalcemia with a raised or inappropriately normal PTH.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

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  • Question 100 - A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a follow-up on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a follow-up on her Dupuytren's contracture. She has been experiencing more difficulty lately with her job, which involves a lot of typing. Despite taking Naproxen, she has not found much relief. During the examination, the GP observes that the metacarpophalangeal joints on her right hand's little finger and ring finger are bent forward by 30 degrees, and she is unable to place her hand flat on the table. What should be the GP's next appropriate step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Make a routine referral to orthopaedics to be seen by a hand specialist

      Explanation:

      When a patient with Dupuytren’s contracture is unable to straighten their metacarpophalangeal joints and place their hand flat on a table, surgical treatment should be considered. This condition occurs when the palmar fascia becomes stiff and fibroses, causing the affected fingers to contract, typically the ring and little finger of the right hand.

      The severity of the condition will determine the appropriate management approach. In cases where the condition is severe and impacting the patient’s quality of life, referral to a hand specialist for secondary intervention is recommended. This may involve either surgical intervention or injectable enzyme therapy, which should only be initiated by a specialist.

      For minor cases where the condition is not significantly affecting the patient’s quality of life, primary care management may be appropriate. This will involve reassurance that the condition may improve over time, regular reviews, and advice on when to return for referral if necessary.

      It is important to note that corticosteroid injections are not effective in treating Dupuytren’s contracture. Additionally, as this is not an acute problem, patients should not be advised to attend the emergency department.

      Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.

      The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.

      Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.

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  • Question 101 - A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a cycling accident where...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a cycling accident where he fell a few hours ago. He is holding onto his right shoulder and appears to be in significant pain. The patient denies experiencing any fever or other systemic symptoms, and there is no visible redness around the joint. An anteroposterior x-ray is performed, revealing that the humeral head has become dislodged from the glenoid cavity of the scapula anteriorly. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kocher-technique reduction

      Explanation:

      For selected patients with a recent anterior shoulder dislocation, the Kocher technique can be used for shoulder reduction without the need for analgesia or sedation. This technique involves bending the affected arm at the elbow, pressing it against the body, and rotating it outwards until resistance is felt. The arm is then lifted in the sagittal plane as far as possible forwards and slowly turned inwards. Intra-articular lidocaine and intravenous morphine are not necessary for this procedure. Shoulder immobilisation may be considered after immediate reduction, but timely management is crucial to prevent unstable reduction and damage to neurovascular structures.

      Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.

      There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.

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  • Question 102 - A 4-year-old is brought in with a fracture that affects the physis, metaphysis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old is brought in with a fracture that affects the physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis of their left femur. What Salter-Harris classification does this fracture fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salter-Harris IV

      Explanation:

      A Salter Harris 4 fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in children and involves damage to the growth plate, as well as the metaphysis and epiphysis of the bone. Unfortunately, this type of fracture is associated with a poor prognosis. The Salter-Harris classification system provides a more comprehensive breakdown of the different types of fractures that can occur in children.

      Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions

      Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.

      Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.

      Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.

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  • Question 103 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic for evaluation of her systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The rheumatologist recommends initiating hydroxychloroquine therapy due to her frequent complaints of wrist and hand pain flares.
      What counseling points should be emphasized to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of retinopathy

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of various medications, including commonly used disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), lithium, amiodarone, and medications used to treat tuberculosis. Hydroxychloroquine, which is used to manage rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus, can result in severe and permanent retinopathy. Patients taking this medication should be advised to watch for visual symptoms and have their visual acuity assessed annually. Cyclophosphamide is associated with haemorrhagic cystitis, while methotrexate, amiodarone, and nitrofurantoin can potentially cause pulmonary fibrosis. Amiodarone can also lead to thyroid dysfunction, resulting in either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Rifampicin, used to treat tuberculosis, may cause orange discolouration of urine and tears, as well as hepatitis.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

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  • Question 104 - A 25-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient visits the GP complaining of lower back pain and stiffness that extends to the buttocks for the past 3 months. The pain is most severe upon waking up, but cycling seems to alleviate it. The patient denies any injury but is an avid cyclist. Additionally, the patient experiences fatigue. The patient had Chlamydia and was treated with doxycycline 8 months ago. The patient has a history of anxiety and does not take any regular medication, but ibuprofen helps alleviate the pain. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Exercise is typically beneficial for patients with inflammatory back pain, such as those with ankylosing spondylitis. This condition is more common in males and presents with symptoms such as morning stiffness, back pain lasting over 3 months, and improvement with exercise. Inflammation can also affect the sacroiliac joints, causing buttock pain, and patients may experience fatigue. Lumbar spinal stenosis is an unlikely differential as it presents with back and buttock pain due to nerve compression, and patients may have leg weakness. Psoriatic arthritis can also cause spondyloarthritis, but it typically presents with peripheral arthritis and/or dactylitis, and patients may have a history of psoriasis. Reactive arthritis is also an unlikely differential as it typically presents 1-4 weeks after infection, and patients may have other symptoms such as enthesitis, peripheral arthritis, conjunctivitis, skin lesions, and urethritis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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  • Question 105 - A 42-year-old woman complains of pain in her ring finger. She mentions being...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of pain in her ring finger. She mentions being bitten by an insect on the same hand a few days ago. Upon examination, her entire digit is swollen, but the swelling stops at the distal palmar crease, and she keeps her finger strictly flexed. Palpation and passive extension of the digit cause pain. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infective flexor tenosynovitis

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting all four of Kanavel’s signs of flexor tendon sheath infection, namely fixed flexion, fusiform swelling, tenderness, and pain on passive extension. Gout and pseudogout are mono-arthropathies that only affect one joint, whereas inflammatory arthritis typically has a more gradual onset. Although cellulitis is a possibility, the examination findings suggest that a flexor tendon sheath infection is more probable.

      Infective tenosynovitis is a medical emergency that necessitates prompt identification and treatment. If left untreated, the flexor tendons will suffer irreparable damage, resulting in loss of function in the digit. If detected early, medical management with antibiotics and elevation may be sufficient, but surgical debridement is likely necessary.

      Hand Diseases

      Dupuytren’s contracture is a hand disease that causes the fingers to bend towards the palm and become fixed in a flexed position. It is caused by thickening and shortening of the tissues under the skin on the palm of the hand, which leads to contractures of the palmar aponeurosis. This condition is most common in males over 40 years of age and is associated with liver cirrhosis and alcoholism. Treatment involves surgical fasciectomy, but the condition may recur and surgical therapies carry risks of neurovascular damage.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is another hand disease that affects the median nerve at the carpal tunnel. It is characterized by altered sensation in the lateral three fingers and is more common in females. It may be associated with other connective tissue disorders and can occur following trauma to the distal radius. Treatment involves surgical decompression of the carpal tunnel or non-surgical options such as splinting and bracing.

      There are also several miscellaneous hand lumps that can occur. Osler’s nodes are painful, red, raised lesions found on the hands and feet, while Bouchard’s nodes are hard, bony outgrowths or gelatinous cysts on the middle joints of fingers or toes and are a sign of osteoarthritis. Heberden’s nodes typically develop in middle age and cause a permanent bony outgrowth that often skews the fingertip sideways. Ganglion cysts are fluid-filled swellings near a joint that are usually asymptomatic but can be excised if troublesome.

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  • Question 106 - Samantha is a 65-year-old woman who loves going on hikes and spends a...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 65-year-old woman who loves going on hikes and spends a lot of time tending to her flower garden. Unfortunately, she recently fell and suffered an undisplaced intracapsular neck of femur fracture. What is the best course of action for managing Samantha's hip fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal fixation (cannulated hip screw)

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an intracapsular NOF fracture, internal fixation is the preferred method for patients who have a good pre-existing functional ability. This is crucial in determining the appropriate course of action. Conservative management is not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis. Surgical intervention is typically necessary for most patients. Hemiarthroplasty is typically reserved for patients with poor pre-existing functioning, while total hip replacements are used for displaced intracapsular fractures. Cannulated hip screws are commonly used for internal fixation, while intramedullary devices are used for extracapsular fractures.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 107 - A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh that has been progressively worsening for the past 10 months. Despite this, he is otherwise healthy. An x-ray reveals a radiolucency of the subarticular region suggestive of osteolysis, with some areas of patchy sclerosis. Blood tests show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and prostate-specific antigen. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV bisphosphonates

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the recommended treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, which is indicated by an elevated ALP level and typical x-ray findings in this patient. The PSA level of 3.4 ng/ml is within the normal range for a man of his age and does not suggest the presence of prostate cancer that has spread to other parts of the body.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

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  • Question 108 - A 13-year-old male is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old male is admitted to the paediatric ward due to recurrent episodes of arthralgia affecting multiple sites. He had vomiting, diarrhoea, and fever two months ago, which were treated supportively by his GP. He is also experiencing balanitis without discharge. The patient's vision remains unchanged. On physical examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left ankle joint, as well as tenderness on motion and pain over the bilateral wrist and left sacroiliac joints. Blood tests show an elevated white cell count and ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis typically develops up to 4 weeks after an infection and can have a relapsing-remitting course over several months. The patient’s symptoms suggest reactive arthritis, which is a sterile arthritis triggered by distant gastrointestinal or urogenital infections. It usually presents with polyarticular arthralgia, urethritis, and uveitis, and is more common in people who are positive for the HLA-B27 gene. Behcet’s disease and systemic lupus erythematosus are unlikely diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms. Systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis may have a more gradual onset with additional symptoms such as morning stiffness, spiking fevers, and a flat, pale pink rash.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blennorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

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  • Question 109 - A 32-year-old businessman came to the hospital with a low-grade fever, blood-streaked sputum...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old businessman came to the hospital with a low-grade fever, blood-streaked sputum and a dry cough that had been persisting for 7 weeks. He had been travelling extensively in India, staying in cheap and unsanitary accommodations. Upon further testing, he was diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on appropriate antibiotics. However, when he visited your outpatient clinic two weeks later, he complained of joint pain, fatigue, and a new rash that was limited to his face and had a butterfly shape. You suspect that one of the drugs he is taking is causing drug-induced lupus. Which drug is responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

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  • Question 110 - A 45-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of bone pain that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of bone pain that has been bothering him for a few weeks. He has also noticed a decline in his hearing ability lately. Upon examination, his blood work reveals an isolated increase in alkaline phosphate levels. Based on this information, which bone is most likely causing his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of the bone typically impacts the skull, spine/pelvis, and the long bones in the lower extremities.

      Based on the symptoms presented, it is likely that this patient is suffering from Paget’s disease of the bone. A helpful way to remember which bones are most commonly affected by this condition is to imagine a line running down the center of the patient’s body. The bones on either side of this line, including the skull, vertebral bones, pelvis, femur, and tibia, are frequently impacted by Paget’s disease. In contrast, the radius, humerus, carpal bones, and rib bones are less commonly affected.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

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  • Question 111 - A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe pain in his left thigh. He has a history of recurrent UTIs and currently has a catheter in place. Upon examination, he is febrile and experiences significant tenderness in the left thigh, making it difficult to move his knee. Blood and bone cultures both come back positive, leading to a diagnosis of osteomyelitis. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.

      In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

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  • Question 112 - A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is seeking advice regarding her medication. She is currently taking methotrexate and wants to know if it is safe for her and her partner to conceive a child.

      What is the best course of action to recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should wait at least 6 months after stopping treatment

      Explanation:

      Men and women who are undergoing methotrexate treatment must use reliable contraception throughout the duration of the treatment and for a minimum of 6 months after it has ended.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

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  • Question 113 - A 28-year-old male patient visits the GP complaining of hip and back pain...

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    • A 28-year-old male patient visits the GP complaining of hip and back pain that has persisted for several months. He reports experiencing stiffness and pain lasting approximately 45 minutes in the mornings, which improves with activity. During the systemic inquiry, he mentions having long-standing pain on the posterior aspect of his left foot and intermittent blurry vision and pain in his right eye, particularly when using electronic devices.

      What are the probable examination findings for the chest and spine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion, reduced forward flexion

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that can cause reduced joint movement, particularly in the spine and sacroiliac joints. This patient’s symptoms, including heel pain (Achilles tendonitis) and painful/blurry vision (anterior uveitis), are also associated with ankylosing spondylitis. During examination, it is likely that reduced chest expansion, lateral flexion, and forward flexion of the spine will be observed due to the decreased flexibility caused by the condition. Therefore, the correct option is reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion, and reduced forward flexion of the spine. The other options featuring normal or increased movement are incorrect as ankylosing spondylitis typically causes reduced joint mobility.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

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  • Question 114 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of back and leg pain while...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of back and leg pain while walking for the past 8 months. She has noticed a decrease in her walking distance over the last 3 months due to an increase in pain severity. She finds relief from her pain when bending over. Walking downhill is difficult for her, but she can manage uphill without symptoms. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes. On examination, there is no weakness or atrophy of the leg muscles, and distal foot pulses are present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient shows signs of intermittent claudication that do not worsen with increased exertion, it is likely due to neurogenic causes rather than ischemic causes.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

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  • Question 115 - A 27-year-old male presented to the emergency department after sustaining a shoulder dislocation...

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    • A 27-year-old male presented to the emergency department after sustaining a shoulder dislocation during a game of football. The medical team reduced his shoulder and immobilized it with a sling. During the examination, the doctor assessed the sensation in the 'regimental badge area' and found it to be normal. Which nerve is frequently affected in cases of shoulder joint dislocation, and which nerve was the doctor testing for in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The most common type of shoulder dislocation is the anterior dislocation, which can occur after a fall on the arm or shoulder. It is important to check for any nerve or pulse damage, especially in the axillary region. A radiograph should always be done to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves reduction using various methods, as well as pain relief and immobilization with a sling. Posterior dislocations are rare and usually caused by seizures or electrocution. They can be identified on x-ray by the light bulb sign and should be referred to orthopedic surgeons for management. This information is sourced from the Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialties, 9th Edition, page 740.

      Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.

      There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.

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  • Question 116 - A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided flank pain radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided flank pain radiating to the back which had developed over the past 10 days. There is no history of trauma or injury to the area.

      He is a known intravenous drug user who has been commenced on a methadone rehabilitation programme around 2 weeks previously. He has no fixed abode and spends his night between various hostels.

      He has no significant past medical history. Although has previous admissions following various injuries such as stabbings.

      His observations are: heart rate 99/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 98/75 mmHg, temperature 37.7º, Sats 99% on air.

      On examination, he appears to be in pain and is lying flat on his back with his knees flexed. He is very tender over his back at L1 and L2 levels. He actively resists passive movement from his position of comfort and is unable to weight bear due to pain.

      Blood tests show raised inflammatory markers, lumbar spine and pelvic x-ray show no abnormality.

      He is requesting analgesia for his pain.

      What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas abscess

      Explanation:

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

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  • Question 117 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of joint pains. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of joint pains. He reports experiencing pain in his hips and legs, but his primary concern is his back pain. He notes that he feels very stiff in the morning, but this improves with exercise. The GP is contemplating conducting tests for ankylosing spondylitis. What characteristic would provide the strongest evidence for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacro-ilitis on pelvic x-ray

      Explanation:

      The presence of sacro-ilitis on a pelvic X-ray is the most supportive factor for diagnosing ankylosing spondylitis.

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

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  • Question 118 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of pain in his left knee. An x-ray reveals osteoarthritis. He has no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of osteoarthritis, the first-line medications are paracetamol and topical NSAIDs (if the affected area is the knee or hand). Oral NSAIDs should only be used as a second-line option due to their potential adverse effects.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.

      Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.

      Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

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  • Question 119 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a 4-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a 4-month history of myalgia and widespread bony tenderness. She reports increased fatigue and weakness when lifting heavy objects. Her medical history includes coeliac disease.

      During the examination, tenderness is noted over the shoulder girdle and arms, but there is no associated joint stiffness. The patient has a waddling gait.

      Blood tests are ordered and reveal the following results:
      - Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1 - 2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8 - 1.4)
      - ALP: 176 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for a patient presenting with bone pain, muscle tenderness, and a waddling gait due to proximal myopathy is osteomalacia. This condition is caused by a demineralization of bone, often due to a deficiency in vitamin D. Laboratory tests may reveal hypocalcemia, low vitamin D levels, normal or elevated phosphate levels, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. Myositis, myotonic dystrophy, and osteoporosis are incorrect diagnoses as they do not present with the same symptoms or laboratory findings.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

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  • Question 120 - You are an F2 doctor in the Emergency Department and a 7-year-old child...

    Incorrect

    • You are an F2 doctor in the Emergency Department and a 7-year-old child comes in with a 10-day history of fever, lethargy, and general malaise. The parents are concerned about a new pain in the left upper leg. After requesting an X-ray, it shows a localized osteolytic region indicating osteomyelitis. Which part of the bone is typically affected in children with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metaphysis

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis in children typically occurs in the metaphysis, which is the most common site for infection in long bones. This is due to haematogenous spread, which is the most common source of infection in children. The location of infection varies depending on age, with the metaphysis being highly vascular and therefore more susceptible to infection in children, while the epiphysis is more commonly affected in adults.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.

      In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

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