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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of wheezing, coughing, and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years but has reduced his smoking recently.

      The GP orders spirometry, which confirms a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The results also show an elevated functional residual capacity.

      What is the method used to calculate this metric?

      Your Answer: Inspiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Correct Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of sore throat, malaise, and fatigue for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of sore throat, malaise, and fatigue for the past 5 days. During the examination, a significant peritonsillar abscess is observed. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer: Epstein Barr Virus

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Streptococcal organisms are the most frequent cause of bacterial tonsillitis, which can lead to quinsy.

      Understanding Acute Tonsillitis

      Acute tonsillitis is a condition that is characterized by pharyngitis, fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy. It is caused by bacterial infections in over half of all cases, with Streptococcus pyogenes being the most common organism. The tonsils become swollen and may have yellow or white pustules. It is important to note that infectious mononucleosis may mimic the symptoms of acute tonsillitis.

      Treatment for bacterial tonsillitis involves the use of penicillin-type antibiotics. Failure to treat bacterial tonsillitis may result in the formation of a local abscess known as quinsy.

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  • Question 3 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She has been experiencing increased breathlessness, particularly at night. Her medical history includes long-standing COPD, heart failure, and previous breast cancer that was treated with a mastectomy and radiotherapy. She used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day for 22 years but has since quit.

      During the examination, her respiratory rate is 23/min, oxygen saturation is 93%, blood pressure is 124/98mmHg, and temperature is 37.2ºC. A gas transfer test is performed, and her transfer factor is found to be low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      TLCO, also known as transfer factor, is a measurement of how quickly gas can move from a person’s lungs into their bloodstream. To test TLCO, a patient inhales a mixture of carbon monoxide and a tracer gas, holds their breath for 10 seconds, and then exhales forcefully. The exhaled gas is analyzed to determine how much tracer gas was absorbed during the 10-second period.

      A high TLCO value is associated with conditions such as asthma, pulmonary hemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, and exercise. Conversely, most other conditions result in a low TLCO value, including pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary edema, emphysema, and anemia.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old patient presents at the lung cancer clinic for their initial assessment....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents at the lung cancer clinic for their initial assessment. Their general practitioner referred them due to a persistent cough lasting 5 months and a weight loss of one stone in a month. The patient has quit smoking recently but used to smoke 20-30 cigarettes daily for 30 years. No asbestos exposure is reported.

      A circular lesion was detected in the right upper lobe during a recent chest x-ray. A subsequent computed tomography (CT) scan indicated that this lung lesion is indicative of a primary lesion.

      What is the most probable sub-type of lung cancer in this case?

      Your Answer: Bronchial adenoma

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Adenocarcinoma has become the most prevalent form of lung cancer, as per the given scenario. This type of cancer accounts for approximately one-third of all cases and can occur in both smokers and non-smokers. Therefore, the most probable answer to the question is adenocarcinoma. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is a rare and incurable cancer that is almost exclusively linked to asbestos exposure and affects the pleura. It would not present as an upper lobe mass, but rather as a loss of lung volume or pleural opacity. Alveolar cell carcinoma, which is less common than adenocarcinoma, would likely cause significant sputum production.

      Lung cancer can be classified into two main types: small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). SCLC is less common, accounting for only 15% of cases, but has a worse prognosis. NSCLC, on the other hand, is more prevalent and can be further broken down into different subtypes. Adenocarcinoma is now the most common type of lung cancer, likely due to the increased use of low-tar cigarettes. It is often seen in non-smokers and accounts for 62% of cases in ‘never’ smokers. Squamous cell carcinoma is another subtype, and cavitating lesions are more common in this type of lung cancer. Large cell carcinoma, alveolar cell carcinoma, bronchial adenoma, and carcinoid are other subtypes of NSCLC. Differentiating between these subtypes is crucial as different drugs are available to treat each subtype.

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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of severe vertigo that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of severe vertigo that have been disabling. She experiences these episodes multiple times a day, with each one lasting for about 10-20 minutes. Along with the vertigo, she also experiences ringing in both ears, nausea, and vomiting. She has noticed a change in her hearing in both ears, with difficulty hearing at times and normal hearing at other times. Additionally, she reports increased pressure in her ears. During the examination, you notice a painless rash behind her ear that has been present for many years.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meniere’s disease

      Explanation:

      Suspect Meniere’s disease in a patient presenting with vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. Acoustic neuroma would present with additional symptoms such as facial numbness and loss of corneal reflex. Herpes Zoster Oticus (Ramsey Hunt syndrome) would present with facial palsy and a painless rash. Vestibular neuronitis would have longer episodes of vertigo, nausea, and vomiting, but no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo would have brief episodes of vertigo after sudden head movements.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of ear pain. He mentions...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of ear pain. He mentions having some crusty discharge at the entrance of his ear canal when he woke up this morning. He denies any hearing loss, dizziness, or other symptoms. He swims twice a week. Upon examination, he has no fever. The auricle of his ear appears red, and pressing on the tragus causes discomfort. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous canal with a small amount of yellow discharge. The superior edge of the tympanic membrane is also red, but there is no bulging or fluid in the middle ear. Which bone articulates with the bone that is typically seen pressing against the tympanic membrane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incus

      Explanation:

      The middle bone of the 3 ossicles is known as the incus. During otoscopy, the malleus can be observed in contact with the tympanic membrane and it connects with the incus medially.

      The ossicles, which are the 3 bones in the middle ear, are arranged from lateral to medial as follows:
      Malleus: This is the most lateral of the ossicles. The handle and lateral process of the malleus attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible during otoscopy. The head of the malleus connects with the incus. The term ‘malleus’ is derived from the Latin word for ‘hammer’.
      Incus: The incus is positioned between and connects with the other two ossicles. The body of the incus connects with the malleus, while the long limb of the bone connects with the stapes. The term ‘incus’ is derived from the Latin word for ‘anvil’.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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  • Question 7 - Sophie, a 4-year-old patient with Down's syndrome, is brought to the general practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 4-year-old patient with Down's syndrome, is brought to the general practitioner by her father. He is worried as Sophie has been crying more than usual and has started holding her right ear. She is diagnosed with acute bacterial otitis media.

      What is the most probable bacteria responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae is a frequent culprit behind bacterial otitis media, a common ear infection.

      The majority of cases of acute bacterial otitis media are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, or Moraxella.

      Genital gonorrhoeae is caused by N. gonorrhoeae, a sexually transmitted infection that presents with discharge and painful urination.

      Meningococcal sepsis, a life-threatening condition, is caused by N. meningitides.

      Staph. aureus is responsible for superficial skin infections like impetigo.

      Syphilis, which typically manifests as a painless genital sore called a chancre, is caused by T. pallidum.

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

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  • Question 8 - A 59-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of vertigo that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of vertigo that has been going on for three days. He also reports experiencing left-sided ear pain and a change in his sense of taste, as well as constant ringing in his left ear. He took paracetamol on his own, but the vertigo persisted, so he decided to seek medical attention.

      During the examination, the doctor observes that the man has a drooping left face with involvement of the forehead. Upon otoscopic examination, vesicles are seen in the external auditory canal of the left ear. A neurological examination is performed, which is normal except for the left facial paralysis.

      What is the appropriate treatment for this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir and corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is treated with a combination of oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. This condition is caused by the varicella zoster virus, as evidenced by the presence of vesicles on the left ear and involvement of the seventh and eighth cranial nerves. Symptoms include facial paralysis and hearing impairments. Treatment typically involves a seven to ten day course of oral acyclovir and a five day course of corticosteroids, such as prednisolone.

      It is important to note that oseltamivir (tamiflu) is an antiviral used for influenzae, while chloroquine is typically used for malaria. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and is not effective in treating viral infections. While corticosteroids can provide relief from inflammation, they are not the primary treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome when used alone.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

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  • Question 9 - Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the ansa cervicalis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the ansa cervicalis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mylohyoid

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the ansa cervicalis are: GenioHyoid, ThyroidHyoid, Superior Omohyoid, SternoThyroid, SternoHyoid, and Inferior Omohyoid. The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the mylohyoid branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. A mnemonic to remember these muscles is GHost THought SOmeone Stupid Shot Irene.

      The ansa cervicalis is a nerve that provides innervation to the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid muscles. It is composed of two roots: the superior root, which branches off from C1 and is located anterolateral to the carotid sheath, and the inferior root, which is derived from the C2 and C3 roots and passes posterolateral to the internal jugular vein. The inferior root enters the inferior aspect of the strap muscles, which are located in the neck, and should be divided in their upper half when exposing a large goitre. The ansa cervicalis is situated in front of the carotid sheath and is an important nerve for the proper functioning of the neck muscles.

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  • Question 10 - A 48-year-old male presents for a preoperative evaluation for an inguinal hernia repair....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presents for a preoperative evaluation for an inguinal hernia repair. During the assessment, you observe a loculated left pleural effusion on his chest x-ray. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he worked as a builder three decades ago. What is the probable reason for the effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Due to his profession as a builder, this individual is at risk of being exposed to asbestos. Given the 30-year latent period and the presence of a complex effusion, it is highly probable that the underlying cause is mesothelioma.

      Understanding Mesothelioma

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the mesothelial layer of the pleural cavity, which is commonly linked to asbestos exposure. Although it is rare, other mesothelial layers in the abdomen may also be affected. Symptoms of mesothelioma include dyspnoea, weight loss, chest wall pain, and clubbing. In some cases, patients may present with painless pleural effusion. It is important to note that only 20% of patients have pre-existing asbestosis, but 85-90% have a history of asbestos exposure, with a latent period of 30-40 years.

      Diagnosis of mesothelioma is typically made through a chest x-ray, which may show pleural effusion or pleural thickening. A pleural CT is then performed to confirm the diagnosis. If a pleural effusion is present, fluid is sent for MC&S, biochemistry, and cytology. However, cytology is only helpful in 20-30% of cases. Local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield of around 95%. If an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT, an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used.

      Management of mesothelioma is mainly symptomatic, with industrial compensation available for those who have been exposed to asbestos. Chemotherapy and surgery may be options for those who are operable. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is poor, with a median survival of only 12 months.

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  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports that he has been experiencing constant dizziness for the past 2 days, which has prevented him from going to work. He also reports hearing difficulties and tinnitus in his right ear, as well as nausea and difficulty with balance. He notes that these symptoms are not related to changes in position. He has no significant medical history, except for a recent bout of flu that resolved on its own.

      During the examination, the man is observed to sway to the right while attempting to walk in a straight line. He also has a positive head thrust test to the right side. A complete neurological examination is performed, and aside from mild sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear, his neurological function is normal.

      Which structures are most likely involved in this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular nerve and labyrinth

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of labyrinthitis, which affects both the vestibular nerve and labyrinth, resulting in vertigo and hearing impairment. In contrast, pure vestibular neuritis only causes vestibular symptoms without affecting hearing. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) involves otolith displacement and is triggered by head position changes, which is not the case for this patient’s constant vertigo. Facial nerve palsy primarily causes facial drooping and does not affect hearing or vestibular function, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Viral Labyrinthitis

      Labyrinthitis is a condition that affects the membranous labyrinth, which includes the vestibular and cochlear end organs. It can be caused by a viral or bacterial infection, or it may be associated with systemic diseases. Viral labyrinthitis is the most common form of the condition.

      It’s important to distinguish labyrinthitis from vestibular neuritis, which only affects the vestibular nerve and doesn’t cause hearing impairment. Labyrinthitis, on the other hand, affects both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth, resulting in both vertigo and hearing loss.

      The condition typically affects people between the ages of 40 and 70 and is characterized by an acute onset of symptoms, including vertigo, nausea and vomiting, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Patients may also experience gait disturbance and fall towards the affected side.

      Diagnosis is based on a patient’s history and examination, which may reveal spontaneous unidirectional horizontal nystagmus towards the unaffected side, sensorineural hearing loss, and an abnormal head impulse test.

      While episodes of labyrinthitis are usually self-limiting, medications like prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness. Understanding the symptoms and management of viral labyrinthitis can help patients seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

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  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening shortness of breath. He was diagnosed with COPD six years ago and has been frequently admitted to the emergency department due to lower respiratory tract infections, especially in the past year. He has a smoking history of 50 pack-years and currently smokes 20 cigarettes per day.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe even at rest and is in the tripod position. His heart rate is 78/min, blood pressure is 140/88 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 88% on air, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and temperature is 36.4ºC. His chest expansion is symmetrical, and breath sounds are equal throughout the lung fields.

      Recent spirometry results show that his FEV1 was 47% a week ago, 53% a month ago, and 67% six months ago. What intervention would be most effective in slowing the decline of his FEV1?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Slowing the decrease in FEV1 in COPD can be most effectively achieved by quitting smoking.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenzae vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old boy presents to his GP with a painless swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to his GP with a painless swelling in his neck. The mass is located centrally just below the hyoid bone and does not cause any difficulty in swallowing or breathing. Upon examination, the GP notes that the mass moves with protrusion of the tongue and with swallowing. The GP diagnoses the boy with a benign thyroglossal cyst, which is caused by a persistent thyroglossal duct, and advises surgical removal. Where is the thyroglossal duct attached to the tongue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen cecum

      Explanation:

      The thyroglossal duct connects the thyroid gland to the tongue via the foramen caecum during embryonic development. The terminal sulcus, median sulcus, palatoglossal arch, and epiglottis are not connected to the thyroid gland.

      Understanding Thyroglossal Cysts

      Thyroglossal cysts are named after the thyroid and tongue, which are the two structures involved in their development. During embryology, the thyroid gland develops from the floor of the pharynx and descends into the neck, connected to the tongue by the thyroglossal duct. The foramen cecum is the point of attachment of the thyroglossal duct to the tongue. Normally, the thyroglossal duct atrophies, but in some people, it may persist and give rise to a thyroglossal duct cyst.

      Thyroglossal cysts are more common in patients under 20 years old and are usually midline, between the isthmus of the thyroid and the hyoid bone. They move upwards with protrusion of the tongue and may be painful if infected. Understanding the embryology and presentation of thyroglossal cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. The results of his pulmonary function tests are as follows:

      Reference Range
      FVC (% predicted) 102 80-120
      FEV1 (% predicted) 62 80-120
      FEV1/FVC (%) 60.1 >70
      TCLO (% predicted) 140 60-120

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma exacerbation

      Explanation:

      The raised transfer factor suggests that the patient is experiencing an exacerbation of asthma. This condition can cause obstructive patterns on pulmonary function tests, leading to reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC, as well as hypoxia and wheezing. However, other conditions such as COPD exacerbation, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and pulmonary embolism would result in a low transfer factor, and are therefore unlikely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of severe abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Upon examination, she has a distended abdomen that is tender to the touch, and bowel sounds are infrequent. Her medical history includes a hysterectomy and cholecystectomy. A CT scan is ordered, which reveals a bowel obstruction at the L1 level. What is the most likely affected area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The 2nd segment of the duodenum is situated at the transpyloric plane, which corresponds to the level of L1 and is a significant anatomical reference point.

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

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  • Question 16 - What is the carrier rate of cystic fibrosis in the United Kingdom? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the carrier rate of cystic fibrosis in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 25

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of shortness of breath and weakness during mild-moderate exercise. She reports that these episodes have been getting progressively worse and now often result in dizziness. The patient has no significant medical history but was a previous smoker for 15 years, smoking 15 cigarettes per day. Spirometry testing reveals a restrictive lung pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis can result in a restrictive pattern of lung disease due to weakness of the respiratory muscles, which causes difficulty in breathing air in. Asthma and COPD are incorrect as they cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, with asthma being characterized by small bronchiole obstruction from inflammation and increased mucus production, and COPD causing small airway inflammation and emphysema that restricts outward airflow. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency also leads to an obstructive pattern, as it results in pulmonary tissue degradation and panlobular emphysema.

      Understanding the Differences between Obstructive and Restrictive Lung Diseases

      Obstructive and restrictive lung diseases are two distinct categories of respiratory conditions that affect the lungs in different ways. Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a reduction in the flow of air through the airways due to narrowing or blockage, while restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a decrease in lung volume or capacity, making it difficult to breathe in enough air.

      Spirometry is a common diagnostic tool used to differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In obstructive lung diseases, the ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) is less than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to exhale air. In contrast, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by an FEV1/FVC ratio greater than 80%, indicating a reduced ability to inhale air.

      Examples of obstructive lung diseases include chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic bronchitis, and emphysema, while asthma and bronchiectasis are also considered obstructive. Restrictive lung diseases include intrapulmonary conditions such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, and drug-induced fibrosis, as well as extrapulmonary conditions such as neuromuscular diseases, obesity, and scoliosis.

      Understanding the differences between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. While both types of conditions can cause difficulty breathing, the underlying causes and treatment approaches can vary significantly.

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  • Question 18 - How many fissures can be found in the right lung?

    At what age...

    Incorrect

    • How many fissures can be found in the right lung?

      At what age do these fissures typically develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two

      Explanation:

      The oblique and horizontal fissures are present in the right lung. The lower lobe is separated from the middle and upper lobes by the upper oblique fissure. The superior and middle lobes are separated by the short horizontal fissure.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

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  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain that started last night and kept him awake. He missed school today because of the pain and reports muffled sounds on the affected side. During otoscopy, you observe a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid behind it, indicating a middle ear infection. Can you identify which nerves pass through the middle ear?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chorda tympani

      Explanation:

      The chorda tympani is the correct answer. It is a branch of the seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, and carries parasympathetic and taste fibers. It passes through the middle ear before exiting and joining with the lingual nerve to reach the tongue and salivary glands.

      The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve and carries balance and hearing information.

      The maxillary nerve is the second division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the upper teeth, nasal cavity, and skin.

      The mandibular nerve is the third division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the lower teeth, tongue, mandible, and skin. It also carries motor fibers to certain muscles.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and carries taste and sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, as well as sensation from various areas. It also carries motor and parasympathetic fibers.

      The patient in the question has ear pain, likely due to otitis media, as evidenced by a bulging tympanic membrane and fluid level on otoscopy.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a productive cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a productive cough that has lasted for 5 days. He has also been feeling generally unwell and has had a fever for the past 2 days. The doctor suspects a bacterial respiratory tract infection and orders a blood panel, sputum microscopy, and culture. What is the most likely abnormality to be found in the blood results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Neutrophils are typically elevated during an acute bacterial infection, while eosinophils are commonly elevated in response to parasitic infections and allergies. Lymphocytes tend to increase during acute viral infections and chronic inflammation. IgE levels are raised in cases of allergic asthma, malaria, and type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Anti-CCP antibody is a diagnostic tool for Rheumatoid arthritis.

      Pneumonia is a common condition that affects the alveoli of the lungs, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Other causes include viral and fungal infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism responsible for pneumonia, accounting for 80% of cases. Haemophilus influenzae is common in patients with COPD, while Staphylococcus aureus often occurs in patients following influenzae infection. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophilia are atypical pneumonias that present with dry cough and other atypical symptoms. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically seen in patients with HIV. Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is a group of non-infective causes of pneumonia.

      Patients who develop pneumonia outside of the hospital have community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), while those who develop it within hospitals are said to have hospital-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, and fever. Signs of systemic inflammatory response, tachycardia, reduced oxygen saturations, and reduced breath sounds may also be present. Chest x-ray is used to diagnose pneumonia, with consolidation being the classical finding. Blood tests, such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP, are also used to check for infection.

      Patients with pneumonia require antibiotics to treat the underlying infection and supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids. Risk stratification is done using a scoring system called CURB-65, which stands for confusion, respiration rate, blood pressure, age, and is used to determine the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia. Home-based care is recommended for patients with a CRB65 score of 0, while hospital assessment is recommended for all other patients, particularly those with a CRB65 score of 2 or more. The CURB-65 score also correlates with an increased risk of mortality at 30 days.

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  • Question 21 - A premature baby is born and the anaesthetists are struggling to ventilate the...

    Incorrect

    • A premature baby is born and the anaesthetists are struggling to ventilate the lungs because of insufficient surfactant. How does Laplace's law explain the force pushing inwards on the walls of the alveolus caused by surface tension between two static fluids, such as air and water in the alveolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inversely proportional to the radius of the alveolus

      Explanation:

      The Relationship between Alveolar Size and Surface Tension in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, the alveolus is often represented as a perfect sphere to apply Laplace’s law. According to this law, there is an inverse relationship between the size of the alveolus and the surface tension. This means that smaller alveoli experience greater force than larger alveoli for a given surface tension, and they will collapse first. This phenomenon explains why, when two balloons are attached together by their ends, the smaller balloon will empty into the bigger balloon.

      In the lungs, this same principle applies to lung units, causing atelectasis and collapse when surfactant is not present. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension, making it easier to expand the alveoli and preventing smaller alveoli from collapsing. Therefore, surfactant plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the lungs and preventing respiratory distress. the relationship between alveolar size and surface tension is essential in respiratory physiology and can help in the development of treatments for lung diseases.

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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man suffers a closed head injury and experiences a decline in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man suffers a closed head injury and experiences a decline in consciousness upon arrival at the hospital. To monitor his intracranial pressure, an ICP monitor is inserted. What is the normal range for intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 - 15mm Hg

      Explanation:

      The typical range for intracranial pressure is 7 to 15 mm Hg, with the brain able to tolerate increases up to 24 mm Hg before displaying noticeable clinical symptoms.

      Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS

      The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.

      The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.

      It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.

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  • Question 23 - A senior citizen who has been a lifelong smoker visits the respiratory clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen who has been a lifelong smoker visits the respiratory clinic for a check-up on his emphysema. What alterations in his lung function test results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased residual volume and reduced vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Emphysema causes an increase in residual volume, leading to a decrease in vital capacity. This is due to damage to the alveolar walls, which results in the formation of large air sacs called bullae. The lungs lose their compliance, making it difficult to fully exhale and causing air to become trapped in the bullae. As a result, the total volume that can be exhaled is reduced, leading to a decrease in vital capacity.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

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  • Question 24 - A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear pain that started last night. He has been unable to sleep due to the pain and has not been eating well. His mother reports that he seems different than his usual self. The affected side has muffled sounds, and he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid-level. What is the structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eustachian tube

      Explanation:

      The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is responsible for connecting the middle ear and the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization in the middle ear. It opens on the anterior wall of the middle ear and extends anteriorly, medially, and inferiorly to open into the nasopharynx. The palatovaginal canal connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasopharynx, while the pterygoid canal runs from the anterior boundary of the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa. The semicircular canals are responsible for sensing balance, while the greater palatine canal transmits the greater and lesser palatine nerves, as well as the descending palatine artery and vein. In the case of ear pain, otitis media is a likely cause, which can be confirmed through otoscopy. The pharyngotympanic tube is particularly important in otitis media as it is the only outlet for pus or fluid in the middle ear, provided the tympanic membrane is intact.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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  • Question 25 - Which of the structures listed below are not located within the mediastinum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the structures listed below are not located within the mediastinum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertebral bodies

      Explanation:

      Both the lungs and vertebral bodies are located outside of the mediastinum.

      The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.

      The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.

      In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.

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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for the past month. She was previously diagnosed with tinnitus by one of your colleagues at the practice 11 months ago. The patient reports that she can hear better when outside but struggles in quiet environments. Upon otoscopy, no abnormalities are found. Otosclerosis is one of the differential diagnoses for this patient, which primarily affects the ossicle that connects to the cochlea. What is the name of the ossicle that attaches to the cochlea at the oval window?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stapes

      Explanation:

      The stapes bone is the correct answer.

      The ossicles are three bones located in the middle ear. They are arranged from lateral to medial and include the malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is the most lateral bone and its handle and lateral process attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible on otoscopy. The head of the malleus articulates with the incus. The stapes bone is the most medial of the ossicles and is also known as the stirrup.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain that worsens upon leaning forward. Sinusitis is suspected. Which sinus is typically affected in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maxillary

      Explanation:

      The maxillary sinus is susceptible to infections due to its drainage from the top. This sinus is the most frequently affected in cases of sinusitis. While frontal sinusitis can lead to intracranial complications, it is still less common than maxillary sinusitis.

      The petrosal sinus is not a bone cavity, but rather a venous structure situated beneath the brain.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

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  • Question 28 - A 75-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a recent episode of coughing up blood in the morning. He has also experienced significant weight loss of over 12 lbs and loss of appetite. Upon physical examination, conjunctival pallor is noted. The patient has a 30 pack year history of smoking. A chest x-ray reveals a mediastinal mass and ipsilateral elevation of the right diaphragm. What structure is being compressed by the mediastinal mass to explain these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Lung cancer can cause the hemidiaphragm on the same side to rise due to pressure on the phrenic nerve. Haemoptysis is a common symptom of lung cancer, along with significant weight loss and a history of smoking. A chest x-ray can confirm the presence of a mediastinal mass, which is likely to be lung cancer.

      A rapidly expanding lung mass can cause compression of surrounding structures, leading to complications. For example, an apical tumor can compress the brachial plexus, causing sensory symptoms in the arms or Erb’s or Klumpke’s palsies. Compression of the cervical sympathetic chain can cause Horner’s syndrome, which includes meiosis, anhidrosis, ptosis, and enophthalmos.

      A mediastinal mass can also compress the recurrent laryngeal nerve as it winds around the aortic arch, resulting in hoarseness of voice or aphonia. Superior vena caval syndrome is a medical emergency that can cause swelling of the face, neck, upper chest, and arms, as well as the development of collaterals on the chest wall. Malignancy is the most common cause, but non-malignant causes can include an aortic aneurysm, fibrosing mediastinitis, or iatrogenic factors.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties. He states that he has been increasingly struggling to hear his wife's conversations for the past six months. He is concerned that this problem will worsen and eventually lead to complete hearing loss, making it difficult for him to communicate with his children over the phone. His wife is also distressed by the situation, as he frequently asks her to turn up the volume on the television. The man has no history of exposure to loud noises and has well-controlled hypertension. He is a retired police officer and currently resides with his wife. What is the primary pathology underlying this man's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degeneration of the cells at the cochlear base

      Explanation:

      The patient has a gradual-onset hearing loss, which is most likely due to presbycusis, an aging-related sensorineural hearing loss. This condition has multiple causes, including environmental factors like noise pollution and biological factors like genetics and oxidative stress. Damage to the organ of Corti stereocilia from exposure to sudden loud noises can also cause hearing loss, which is typically sudden and associated with a history of exposure to loud noises. Other conditions that can cause hearing loss include cholesteatoma, which is due to the accumulation of keratin debris in the middle ear, and otosclerosis, which is characterized by the overgrowth of bone in the middle ear.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

    The patient's SaO2 levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

      The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.

      The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.

      What should be the next step in the patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Acute Treatment of Asthma

      When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.

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