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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with her partner. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with her partner. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and G2P1. Her pregnancy has been progressing normally without concerns raised at her antenatal appointments. However, she experienced a sudden gush of fluid earlier today, which soaked her trousers. On examination, fluid is seen pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix, and a swab of the fluid returns a positive partosure. The patient is afebrile and has no other abnormal vital signs. What is the most appropriate management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Indomethacin tocolysis

      Correct Answer: IM corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Antenatal corticosteroids should be given in cases of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the neonate. IM corticosteroids are the appropriate form of administration for this purpose. Cervical cerclage is not recommended in this scenario as it is contraindicated in cases of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes. Expectant management is also not the best option as it increases the risk of intraamniotic infection. Indomethacin tocolysis is not recommended as it can cause complications such as ductus arteriosus closure and oligohydramnios. Nifedipine is the preferred medication for delaying labour in this scenario.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man was admitted to the emergency department following a car crash. He was found to be in a profound coma and subsequently pronounced brain dead.

      What is the accurate diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Brain death testing should be undertaken by two separate doctors on separate occasions, one of them must be a member of the intensive care team

      Correct Answer: Brain death testing should be undertaken by two separate doctors on separate occasions

      Explanation:

      To ensure accuracy, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors who are knowledgeable in performing brain stem death testing. These doctors should have at least 5 years of post-graduate experience and must not be members of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. The patient being tested should have normal electrolytes and no reversible causes, as well as a deep coma of known aetiology and no sedation. The knee jerk reflex is not used in brain death testing, instead, the corneal reflex and oculovestibular reflexes are tested through the caloric test. It is important to note that brain death testing should be conducted by two separate doctors on separate occasions.

      Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death

      Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.

      The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.

      It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      73.9
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  • Question 3 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a suspected fractured...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a suspected fractured femur. She has had multiple visits in the past few months. During the examination, her teeth are noted to be abnormal and she appears underweight. Additionally, her father expresses concern about her hearing.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perthes disease

      Correct Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Explanation:

      Childhood is the typical time for the manifestation of osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by bone fractures and deformities, blue sclera, and hearing/visual problems.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The mildest form is type 1, which is the most common. Symptoms include fractures from minor trauma, blue sclera, hearing loss due to otosclerosis, and dental abnormalities.

      It is important to consider non-accidental injury as a possible diagnosis. Spiral humeral fractures, digital fractures in non-ambulatory children, and bilateral fractures with varying ages are indicative of this. However, this does not explain the hearing and dental issues.

      Osteopetrosis is a condition where bones become denser and harder, and it is most prevalent in young adults. It is an autosomal recessive disorder.

      McCune-Albright syndrome is a rare genetic condition that causes abnormal bone development, café au lait spots, premature puberty, and thyroid disorders.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.

      When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 4 - You are a FY2 doctor working in a district general hospital in Scotland....

    Incorrect

    • You are a FY2 doctor working in a district general hospital in Scotland. You have recently detained your 19-year old patient who was admitted a flare up of ulcerative colitis. He was demanding to go home because he is hearing voices that are telling him that everyone in the hospital is going to kill him. He tells you that his mother is the instigator and needs to be punished for her actions. You do note that he is delirious secondary to sepsis. You have contacted a psychiatrist, who has told you that she will be there within the next 6 hours. The patient is sitting peacefully in bed, making no attempts to leave, but appears to be responding to auditory hallucinations and talking about harming his mother.
      You wish to give the patient a sedative. Can you do this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yes, but the patient must consent

      Explanation:

      Administering Medication to Patients with Emergency Detention Certificates: Consent and Approval Requirements

      When a patient is placed under an emergency detention certificate, the purpose is to assess whether they require medical treatment for a mental disorder. However, administering medication to these patients requires careful consideration of consent and approval requirements.

      Firstly, it is important to note that patients should not be given treatment without their consent unless they fall under the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000, or treatment is needed urgently to save their life or prevent serious deterioration. If the patient does not fall under the Adults with Incapacity Act and there is no urgent need for treatment, medication cannot be given without the patient’s express consent.

      Even if medication is urgently needed, it cannot be administered against the patient’s will until they have been formally assessed and placed on a short-term detention certificate. Additionally, medication cannot be offered without the patient’s consent, even if it is urgently needed.

      It is also important to note that a psychiatrist’s approval is not required to offer medication to these patients. However, the patient’s spouse or family member cannot provide consent on their behalf.

      In summary, administering medication to patients with emergency detention certificates requires their express consent, unless there is an urgent need for treatment to save their life or prevent serious deterioration. A psychiatrist’s approval is not required, but consent cannot be given by a patient’s family member.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain in recent months. The pain is not relieved by ibuprofen and is aggravated during sexual activity. During the clinical examination, adnexal tenderness is observed. The GP suspects that endometriosis may be the underlying cause of her dysmenorrhoea. What is the most suitable initial investigation for suspected endometriosis cases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Endometriosis: Methods and Recommendations

      Endometriosis is a common cause of dysmenorrhoea, and various investigations are available to diagnose it. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS) as the first-line investigation for suspected endometriosis. TVUS can detect ovarian endometriomas or involvement of structures like the uterosacral ligament. However, a definitive diagnosis of endometriosis can only be made by laparoscopy, which is a minimally invasive procedure. Laparotomy with biopsy is rarely used due to longer recovery times and increased risk of complications. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pelvis is not recommended as the first-line investigation, but it may be considered if there is suspicion of deep endometriosis affecting other organs like the bowel or bladder. Transabdominal ultrasound is only considered if TVUS cannot be done. In conclusion, TVUS and laparoscopy are the preferred methods for investigating endometriosis, with other investigations being considered only in specific situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      Despite trying pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months, she still finds the symptoms very debilitating. However, she denies feeling depressed and is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable, and on vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries can also be used as a non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the woman only experiences stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary to do so urgently. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the woman’s symptoms persist despite 6 months of trying this approach, it would be inappropriate to suggest continuing with the same strategy.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the life expectancy for a man in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80–84 years

      Explanation:

      The Remarkable Increase in Life Expectancy for Women in the UK

      At the beginning of the twentieth century, the life expectancy for a woman in the UK was only 59 years old. However, due to a combination of factors such as reduced infant mortality, improved public health, modern medical advances, and the introduction of the welfare state, women in the UK can now expect to live an average of 82.5 years. This remarkable increase in life expectancy is a testament to the progress made in healthcare and social welfare in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. The father seems hesitant for his child to be examined, and admits he has some distrust towards modern medicine. His daughter has not received any of her routine immunisations. He explains that his daughter was slightly unwell with cold symptoms and a mild cough last week, but her condition has worsened over the past 10 days. Her cough has become so severe that she experiences uncontrollable coughing fits, which have caused her lips to turn blue and led to vomiting. Her symptoms are particularly severe at night.

      What is the most appropriate class of antibiotics to prescribe for this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrolide antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis, can be treated with macrolide antibiotics such as azithromycin or clarithromycin. This infection typically has an incubation period of 5-10 days (maximum 21 days) before the onset of symptoms such as a mild cough, low-grade fever, and coryzal symptoms. The paroxysmal phase follows, characterized by clusters of rapid coughs, a high-pitched whoop, cyanosis, vomiting, and exhaustion. Patients are infectious from the onset of the catarrhal phase until 3 weeks after the start of the paroxysmal phase. Antibiotics are only indicated if the patient presents within 3 weeks of onset of the paroxysmal phase.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest reveals the presence of an air-crescent sign. Which microorganism is commonly linked to this sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspergillus

      Explanation:

      Radiological Findings in Pulmonary Infections: Air-Crescent Sign and More

      Different pulmonary infections can cause distinct radiological findings that aid in their diagnosis and management. Here are some examples:

      – Aspergillosis: This fungal infection can lead to the air-crescent sign, which shows air filling the space left by necrotic lung tissue as the immune system fights back. It indicates a sign of recovery and is found in about half of cases. Aspergilloma, a different form of aspergillosis, can also present with a similar radiological finding called the monad sign.
      – Mycobacterium avium intracellulare: This organism causes non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection in the lungs, which tends to affect patients with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or immunocompromised states.
      – Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium can cause cavitating lung lesions and abscesses, which appear as round cavities with an air-fluid level.
      – Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This bacterium can cause pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease, and CT scans may show ground-glass attenuation, bronchial wall thickening, peribronchial infiltration, and pleural effusions.
      – Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This bacterium may cause cavitation in the apical regions of the lungs, but it does not typically lead to the air-crescent sign.

      Understanding these radiological findings can help clinicians narrow down the possible causes of pulmonary infections and tailor their treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her 7-year-old son to the Emergency Department as she is concerned about his left knee. The child injured his knee while playing outside, and the knee is now significantly swollen and he is experiencing a lot of pain. The mother mentions that the child bruises easily. The mother herself does not have any such issues, but her sister had similar problems when she was young.
      What is the most probable pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of a clotting factor in the intrinsic pathway of coagulation

      Explanation:

      Pathophysiological Mechanisms of Various Medical Conditions

      Haemophilia: Deficiency of a Clotting Factor in the Intrinsic Pathway of Coagulation
      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive condition that affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It is caused by a mutation in factor VIII or IX, leading to deficient coagulation. Patients present with excessive bleeding, such as spontaneous bruising, prolonged bleeding following a dental procedure or minor injury, bleeding into the joints (haemarthrosis), and epistaxis. Treatment involves correcting the deficiency with concentrated factor VIII or IX.

      Von Willebrand’s Disease: Deficiency of a Protein Found in Endothelial Cells and Released by Endothelial Damage
      Von Willebrand’s disease is an autosomal dominant, inherited bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the von Willebrand factor. This protein is found in the endothelial cells lining the vessels and is released following endothelial damage. It promotes adhesion of platelets to the area of damage and stabilizes factor VIII, both actions promoting haemostasis. Symptoms include easy bruising and prolonged bleeding following minimal trauma.

      Ewing’s Sarcoma: Translocation Between Chromosomes 11 and 22
      Ewing’s sarcoma is a malignant bone tumour seen in children and young adults. It is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 22.

      Leukaemia: Invasion of Bone Marrow by Leukaemic Cells
      Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the invasion of bone marrow by leukaemic cells, leading to pancytopenia, a condition in which there is a deficiency of all three types of blood cells: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Symptoms include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and increased susceptibility to infections. Treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and bone marrow transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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Surgery (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
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