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  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to the regional lymph nodes. The lymph from the testes will drain to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Testes are retroperitoneal organs and its lymphatic drainage is to the lumbar and para-aortic nodes along the lumbar vertebrae.The scrotum is the one which drains into the nearby superficial inguinal nodes.The glans penis and clitoris drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry aneurysm as a complication of his disease. The patient complains of a sudden, severe headache. You are guessing subarachnoid haemorrhage secondary to a ruptured berry aneurysm as the cause of his severe headaches. What is the most likely location of his aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Anterior communicating artery

      Explanation:

      One of the complications that polycystic kidney disease may cause is the development of a brain aneurysm. A berry aneurysm is the most common type of brain aneurysm. The Circle of Willis, where the major blood vessels meet at the base of the brain, is where it usually appears. The most common junctions of the Circle of Willis where an aneurysm may occur include the anterior communicating artery (35%), internal carotid artery (30%), the posterior communicating artery and the middle cerebral artery (22%), and finally, the posterior circulation sites, most commonly the basilar artery tip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the...

    Incorrect

    • You note that the prostate of a 60-year-old patient is enlarged during the examination. You suspect BPH. Anatomically, the prostate has four main lobes. Which of the lobes is affected by benign prostatic hypertrophy?

      Your Answer: Posterior lobe

      Correct Answer: Median lobe

      Explanation:

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), also known as benign prostatic hypertrophy, is characterized by an enlarged prostate gland. The prostate is divided into four major lobes. The median lobe is the most commonly affected by benign prostatic enlargement, resulting in urethral obstruction and urine symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to...

    Incorrect

    • If a lesion is observed in Broca's area, which function is expected to become affected?

      Your Answer: Comprehension of speech

      Correct Answer: Formation of words

      Explanation:

      The primary functions of the Broca area are both language production and comprehension. While the exact role in the production is still unclear, many believe that it directly impacts the motor movements to allow for speech. Although originally thought to only aid in speech production, lesions in the area can rarely be related to impairments in the comprehension of language. Different regions of the Broca area specialize in various aspects of comprehension. The anterior portion helps with semantics, or word meaning, while the posterior is associated with phonology, or how words sound. The Broca area is also necessary for language repetition, gesture production, sentence grammar and fluidity, and the interpretation of others’ actions.Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia in which the output of spontaneous speech is markedly diminished and there is a loss of normal grammatical structure. Specifically, small linking words, conjunctions, such as and, or, and but, and the use of prepositions are lost. Patients may exhibit interjectional speech where there is a long latency, and the words that are expressed are produced as if under pressure. The ability to repeat phrases is also impaired in patients with Broca’s aphasia. Despite these impairments, the words that are produced are often intelligible and contextually correct. In pure Broca’s aphasia, comprehension is intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer: Acute porphyria

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Opioids should be avoided in people who have: A risk of paralytic ileus (opioids reduce gastric motility)Acute respiratory depressionAn acute exacerbation of asthma (opioids can aggravate bronchoconstriction as a result of histamine release)Conditions associated with increased intracranial pressure including head injury (opioids can interfere with pupillary response making neurological assessment difficult and may cause retention of carbon dioxide aggravating the increased intracranial pressure)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      195.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.Which of these anatomic structures is the deepest structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:SkinFatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique musclesRectus abdominis muscleAponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominisFascia transversalisExtraperitoneal fatParietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      All opioids have the potential to cause:Gastrointestinal effects – Nausea, vomiting, constipation, difficulty with micturition (urinary retention), biliary spasmCentral nervous system effects – Sedation, euphoria, respiratory depression, miosisCardiovascular effects – Peripheral vasodilation, postural hypotensionDependence and tolerance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old boy is taken to the emergency room after accidentally falling off the monkey bars. Witnesses of the accident reported that, when the patient fell, he hit his right hand on a bar and a loud thump was heard. On examination, the hand is oedematous, tender and erythematous. On ultrasound, a rupture of the flexor carpi ulnaris is noted.Which of the following statements is true regarding the flexor carpi ulnaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It acts to adduct the hand at the wrist joint

      Explanation:

      Flexor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle located in the anterior compartment of the forearm. It belongs to the superficial flexors of the forearm, along with pronator teres, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis. Flexor carpi ulnaris is the most medial of the superficial flexors.Innervation of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is from the brachial plexus via the ulnar nerve (C7-T1).Flexor carpi ulnaris receives its arterial blood supply via three different routes. Proximally, a branch of the posterior ulnar recurrent artery supplies the muscle as it passes between the humeral and ulnar heads. Branches of the ulnar artery supply the middle and distal parts of the muscle, with an accessory supply also present distally via the inferior ulnar collateral artery.Due to its position and direction in the forearm, flexor carpi ulnaris can move the hand sideways as well as flexing it. Contracting with flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris produces flexion of the hand at the wrist joint. However, when it contracts alongside the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle in the posterior compartment, their counteracting forces produce adduction of the hand at the wrist, otherwise known as ulnar deviation or ulnar flexion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the hard palate, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphatic vessels from the palate usually drain into deep cervical lymph nodes.

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the pharynx and palate drain into the deep cervical lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred speech. Upon further examination, the attending physician noted the presence of dysdiadochokinesia, intention tremors, and nystagmus. An MRI is taken, which revealed a brain tumour.Which of the following options is the most probable diagnosis given the clinical features of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma of cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Pilocytic astrocytoma (PCA), previously known as cystic cerebellar astrocytoma or juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, was first described in 1931 by Harvey Cushing, based on a case series of cerebellar astrocytomas; though he never used these terms but rather described a spongioblastoma. They are low-grade, and usually well-circumscribed tumours, which tend to occur in young patients. By the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of central nervous system tumours, they are considered grade I gliomas and have a good prognosis.PCA most commonly occurs in the cerebellum but can also occur in the optic pathway, hypothalamus, and brainstem. They can also occur in the cerebral hemispheres, although this tends to be the case in young adults. Presentation and treatment vary for PCA in other locations. Glial cells include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, and microglia. Astrocytic tumours arise from astrocytes and are the most common tumour of glial origin. The WHO 2016 categorized these tumours as either diffuse gliomas or other astrocytic tumours. Diffuse gliomas include grade II and III diffuse astrocytomas, grade IV glioblastoma, and diffuse gliomas of childhood. The other astrocytic tumours group include PCA, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, and anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma.PCA can present with symptoms secondary to the posterior fossa mass effect. This may include obstructive hydrocephalus, with resultant headache, nausea and vomiting, and papilledema. If hydrocephalus occurs before the fusion of the cranial sutures (<18-months-of-age), then an increase in head circumference will likely occur. Lesions of the cerebellar hemisphere result in peripheral ataxia, dysmetria, intention tremor, nystagmus, and dysarthria. In contrast, lesions of the vermis cause a broad-based gait, truncal ataxia, and titubation. Posterior fossa lesions can also cause cranial nerve palsies. Diplopia may occur due to abducens palsy from the stretching of the nerve. They may also have blurred vision due to papilledema. Seizures are rare with posterior fossa lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient suffers from an injury to his hip and thigh. As a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers from an injury to his hip and thigh. As a consequence of his injury, the nerve that was damaged innervates the obturator externus muscle.In which of the following nerves is the obturator externus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior branch of the obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The obturator externus is innervated by the posterior branch of the obturator nerve, L2-L4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass that protrudes when standing. The patient notes that it is reducible when lying down. On physical examination, there is presence of a cough impulse. The initial assessment is hernia. Further investigation reveals that the mass lies lateral to the epigastric vessels.Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient diagnosed with cranial nerve palsy exhibits asymmetrical movement of the palate, nasal regurgitation of food, and nasal quality to the voice. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely responsible for the aforementioned features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve, ‘the wanderer’, contains motor fibres (to the palate and vocal cords), sensory components (posterior and floor of external acoustic meatus) and visceral afferent and efferent fibres. Palatal weakness can cause nasal speech and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tracts must be affected if a patient presents with decreased pain and temperature sensation in both lower extremities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The main function of the spinothalamic tract is to carry pain and temperature via the lateral part of the pathway and crude touch via the anterior part. The spinothalamic tract pathway is an imperative sensory pathway in human survival because it enables one to move away from noxious stimuli by carrying pain and temperature information from the skin to the thalamus where it is processed and transmitted to the primary sensory cortex. The primary sensory cortex communicates with the primary motor cortex, which lies close to it, to generate rapid movement in response to potentially harmful stimuli. Furthermore, the spinothalamic tract has a role in responding to pruritogens, causing us to itch. Interestingly, itching suppresses the spinothalamic tract neuron response to the histamine effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old athlete presents with buttock pain after tearing his gluteus maximus muscle.Which of the following is NOT an action of the gluteus maximus muscle? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hip abduction

      Explanation:

      Gluteus maximus is the main extensor muscle of the hip and assists with lateral rotation of the thigh at the hip joint. It also acts as a hip adductor, steadies the thigh, and assists in raising the trunk from a flexed position.Gluteus maximus is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to give a tutorial on common upper limb neurology to a group of medical students. You use the example of a man falling from a balcony onto spiked fencing, sustaining a puncture wound to the axilla. This results in an injury to the musculocutaneous nerve. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of forearm pronation

      Explanation:

      Flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm are weakened but not lost entirely due to the actions of the pectoralis major and deltoid, the brachioradialis and the supinator muscles respectively. There is loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Forearm pronation would not be affected as this is primarily produced by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, innervated by the median nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic supply to the rectum is from which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic supply is from the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2 – S4) and inferior hypogastric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following statements is correct about the extensor digitorum muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct about the extensor digitorum muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It extends the medial four digits at the metacarpophalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Extensor digitorum is a long muscle located in the posterior compartment of the forearm. Together with the extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor digiti minimi, extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis as well as the brachioradialis, it belongs to the group of superficial extensors of the forearm. These muscles can be easily palpated in the lateral aspect of the posterior forearm, especially during the extension of hand when they are contracted.Extensor digitorum runs from the lateral epicondyle of humerus to the medial four phalanges of the hand. In this way, it generates the pull for the extension of the four medial fingers in their metacarpophalangeal and both interphalangeal joints. Extensor digitorum also participates in the extension of the wrist.Extensor digitorum is innervated by posterior interosseous nerve which is a continuation of a deep branch of radial nerve (root value C7 and C8).Extensor digitorum is vascularized by the branches of three different arteries: (1) posterior interosseous artery, (2) radial recurrent artery, and (3) anterior interosseous artery. Anterior and posterior interosseous arteries are the branches of the common interosseous artery that arises from the ulnar artery. The radial recurrent artery is a branch of the radial artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The pelvic bone is formed by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pelvic bone is formed by which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium, ischium and pubis

      Explanation:

      Each pelvic bone is formed by three elements: the ilium (superiorly), the pubis (anteroinferiorly) and the ischium (posteroinferiorly).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to fracture of the head of the fibula?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      Avulsion fractures of the fibular head are rare and are so-called the arcuate signal. The “arcuate signal” is used to describe an avulsed bone fragment related to the insertion site of the tendon of the biceps femoris associated with the arcuate complex, which consists of the fabellofibular, popliteofibular, and arcuate ligaments. Such lesions are typically observed in direct trauma to the knee with excessive varus and internal rotation forces or indirect trauma with the same direction of the force.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was taken and a neurological examination was performed.Which of the following cranial nerves is correctly paired with its lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The oculomotor nerve: the eye appears to look ‘down and out’

      Explanation:

      The following are the lesions of the cranial nerves:1. Olfactory nerve (I)Reduced taste and smell, but not to ammonia which stimulates the pain fibres carried in the trigeminal nerve2. Optic nerve (II)Manifested by visual field defects, pupillary abnormalities, optic neuritis, optic atrophy, papilledema3. Oculomotor nerve (III)A fixed, dilated pupil which doesn’t accommodate, ptosis, complete internal ophthalmoplegia (masked by ptosis), unopposed lateral rectus causes outward deviation of the eye. If the ocular sympathetic fibres are also affected behind the orbit, the pupil will be fixed but not dilated.4. Trochlear nerve (IV)Diplopia due to weakness of downward and inward eye movement. The most common cause of a pure vertical diplopia. The patient tends to compensate by tilting the head away from the affected side.5. Trigeminal nerve (V)Reduced sensation or dysesthesia over the affected area. Weakness of jaw clenching and side-to-side movement. If there is a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion, the jaw deviates to the weak side when the mouth is opened. There may be fasciculation of temporalis and masseter.6. Abducens nerve (VI)Inability to look laterally. The eye is deviated medially because of unopposed action of the medial rectus muscle.7. Facial nerve (VII)Facial weakness. In an LMN lesion the forehead is paralysed – the final common pathway to the muscles is destroyed; whereas the upper facial muscles are partially spared in an upper motor neurone (UMN) lesion because of alternative pathways in the brainstem. There appear to be different pathways for voluntary and emotional movement. CVAs usually weaken voluntary movement, often sparing involuntary movements (e.g., spontaneous smiling). The much rarer selective loss of emotional movement is called mimic paralysis and is usually due to a frontal or thalamic lesion.8. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)Unilateral sensorineural deafness, tinnitus. Slow-growing lesions seldom present with vestibular symptoms as compensation has time to occur.9. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)Unilateral lesions do not cause any deficit because of bilateral corticobulbar connections. Bilateral lesions result in pseudobulbar palsy. These nerves are closely interlinked.10. Vagus nerve (X)Palatal weakness can cause ‘nasal speech’ and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.11. Accessory nerve (XI)Weakness and wasting of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles12.Hypoglossal nerve (XII)An LMN lesion produces wasting of the ipsilateral side of the tongue, with fasciculation; and on attempted protrusion the tongue deviates towards the affected side, but the tongue deviates away from the side of a central lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55 year old man presents to ED complaining of leg weakness. Your...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old man presents to ED complaining of leg weakness. Your colleague has examined the patient and suspects femoral nerve palsy. Which of the following clinical features would you LEAST expect to see on examination of this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weakness of hip extension

      Explanation:

      Damage to the femoral nerve results in weakness of hip flexion and knee extension and loss of sensation over the anterior thigh and the anteromedial knee, medial leg and medial foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the hip joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hamstrings and gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      For hip extension, the gluteus maximus and hamstring muscles work together. To compensate for gluteus maximus weakness, the hamstring frequently acts as the primary hip extensor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Injury to which nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the brachialis...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to which nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the brachialis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The brachialis muscle is a prime flexor of the forearm at the elbow joint. It is fusiform in shape and located in the anterior (flexor) compartment of the arm, deep to the biceps brachii. The brachialis is a broad muscle, with its broadest part located in the middle rather than at either of its extremities. It is sometimes divided into two parts, and may fuse with the fibres of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, or pronator teres muscles. It also functions to form part of the floor of the cubital fossa.The brachialis is primarily supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6). In addition, a small lateral portion of the muscle is innervated by the radial nerve (C7).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following ligaments supports the head of the talus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ligaments supports the head of the talus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spring ligament

      Explanation:

      The spring-ligament complex is a significant medial arch stabilizer. The two important functions of this ligament include promoting the stability of the talonavicular joint by acting as a support for the talus head and by acting as a static support to maintain the medial longitudinal arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of aspirin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclo-oxygenase (COX) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes and the resulting inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis results in analgesic, antipyretic and to a lesser extent anti-inflammatory actions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old rugby player suffers from an anterior cruciate ligament tear while pivoting to attempt to run around another player. An MRI was performed and showed that his injury caused two other structures in the knee joint to be injured. Which of the following structures is most likely also injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial meniscus

      Explanation:

      The O’Donoghue unhappy triad or terrible triad often occurs in contact and non-contact sports, such as basketball, football, or rugby, when there is a lateral force applied to the knee while the foot is fixated on the ground. This produces an abduction-external rotation mechanism of injury.The O’Donoghue unhappy triad comprises three types of soft tissue injury that frequently tend to occur simultaneously in knee injuries. O’Donoghue described the injuries as: anterior cruciate ligament tear, medial collateral ligament injury, and medial meniscal tear (lateral compartment bone bruise).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 44 year old woman is brought to ED having fallen down the...

    Incorrect

    • A 44 year old woman is brought to ED having fallen down the stairs and injured her right arm. On examination she is unable to abduct her arm normally, and has weakness of lateral rotation. She has sensory loss over the lateral aspect of her upper arm. Which of the following injuries is most likely to produce this pattern of injury:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical neck of humerus fracture

      Explanation:

      Damage to the axillary nerve will result in loss of abduction past about 15 degrees and weakness of lateral rotation due to paralysis of the deltoid and teres minor and loss of sensation over the regimental badge area on the upper lateral arm. The axillary nerve is most likely injured in fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus due to its course where it winds around this region together with the posterior humeral circumflex vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is true about the extensor carpi radialis longus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the extensor carpi radialis longus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It assists with abduction of the hand at the wrist

      Explanation:

      The majority of extensor carpi radialis longus originates from the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus (distal third) and anterior aspect of the lateral intermuscular septum of the arm. A small portion of its fibres originate from the common extensor tendon attached to the lateral epicondyle of humerus. The fibres unite into a muscle belly which extends approximately to the middle of the forearm. The muscle belly is then replaced by a flat tendon that travels distally along the lateral surface of the radius, together with the tendon of extensor carpi radialis brevis. Both tendons course towards the radial styloid process, deep to the tendons of abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. Proximal to the wrist, the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis pass behind the radial styloid process within a common synovial sheath and continue along the radial groove deep to the extensor retinaculum of the wrist. At this level, the tendon of extensor carpi radialis longus is crossed by the tendon of extensor pollicis longus, after which it inserts on the posterior aspect of the base of the second metacarpal bone. Some tendon slips can insert into the first and third metacarpal bones.Extensor carpi radialis longus receives innervation from the radial nerve, with contributions mainly from spinal nerves C5-C8. The radial nerve is a branch of the brachial plexus.Extensor carpi radialis longus receives blood supply mainly from the radial artery. It directly supplies the distal part of the muscle, while the rest of the muscle receives blood from one of its radial recurrent branches. The brachial artery also supplies a small portion of the muscle via the radial collateral artery.Extensor carpi radialis longus primarily acts on the wrist joint to produce two major actions: (1) wrist extension by working synergistically with extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi ulnaris, and (2) hand abduction (radial deviation), with the help of flexor carpi radialis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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