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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?

      Your Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:
      – It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.
      – It is unimodal
      – The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).
      – Its density has two inflection points.
      – Its density is log-concave.
      The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer: Peroxisome

      Correct Answer: Proteasome

      Explanation:

      Delivery of ubiquitinated substrates to the proteasome.
      Ubiquitinated proteins are delivered to the proteasome by various routes and the complete picture of how these pathways fit together has yet to emerge, reviewed in. Some substrates bind directly to the proteasome by interacting with the 19S regulatory particle subunits Rpn1028 or Rpn1329, and probably Rpt530. Alternatively, ubiquitinated substrates can be brought to the proteasome by adaptors that bind both the proteasome and the ubiquitin chain on the substrate to deliver it for degradation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to...

    Incorrect

    • You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to patients with multiple sclerosis in the local area. Which factor would determine how many resources will be required?

      Your Answer: Incidence

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      To describe how often a disease or another health event occurs in a population, different measures of disease frequency can be used. The prevalence reflects the number of existing cases of a disease. In contrast to the prevalence, the incidence reflects the number of new cases of disease and can be reported as a risk or as an incidence rate. Prevalence and incidence are used for different purposes and to answer different research questions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct definition regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (mean)

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      Explanation:

      The SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. In reality, however, only one sample is extracted from the population. Therefore, the SEM is estimated using the standard deviation (SD) and a sample size (Estimated SEM). The SEM computed by a statistical program is an estimated value calculated via this process.

      Estimated Standard Error of the Mean (SEM)=SDn√

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Choose the wrong statement regarding hypocalcaemia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the wrong statement regarding hypocalcaemia:

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval is seen

      Correct Answer: Chvostek's sign is more sensitive and specific than Trousseau's sign

      Explanation:

      Chvostek and Trousseau signs can be elicited in patients with hypocalcaemia. Chvostek sign is the twitching of the upper lip with tapping on the cheek 2 cm anterior to the earlobe, below the zygomatic process overlying the facial nerve. Trousseau sign (a more reliable sign present in 94% of hypokalaemic individuals and only 1% to 4% of healthy people) is the presence of carpopedal spasm observed following application of an inflated blood pressure cuff over systolic pressure for 3 minutes in hypokalaemic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After 6 months he presents in the infectious clinic with a second episode of meningitis. His past history is clear and he takes no regular medication. Which of the following is most probably deficient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following would you choose to compare survival time with in this particular study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      The hazard ratio describes the relative risk of the complication based on comparison of event rates.

      Hazard ratios have also been used to describe the outcome of therapeutic trials where the question is to what extent treatment can shorten the duration of the illness. However, the hazard ratio, a type of relative risk, does not always accurately portray the degree of abbreviation of the illness that occurred. In these circumstances, time-based parameters available from the time-to-event curve, such as the ratio of the median times of the placebo and drug groups, should be used to describe the magnitude of the benefit to the patient. The difference between hazard-based and time-based measures is analogous to the odds of winning a race and the margin of victory. The hazard ratio is the odds of a patient’s healing faster under treatment but does not convey any information about how much faster this event may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism, presents with ptosis and muscle weakness. She's noticed that her muscle weakness becomes worse towards the end of the day. Clinical examination reveals fatigable ptosis and proximal limb weakness. Myasthenia gravis is suspected. Which receptor is implicated in the pathophysiology of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an organ-specific autoimmune disease caused by an antibody-mediated assault on the muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction. Binding of antibodies to the AChR leads to loss of functional AChRs and impairs the neuromuscular signal transmission, resulting in muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He is up to date with all vaccinations which were offered as part of his childhood vaccination scheme. It is July. Which of the following vaccinations does he require in the first instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcus, meningococcus type B and C, Haemophilus type B

      Explanation:

      Acquired asplenia or hyposlenia can occur following splenectomy. Hyposplenism is used to describe reduced (‘hypo-‘) splenic functioning and is associated with increased risk of sepsis from polysaccharide encapsulated bacteria. In particular, patients are at risk from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and meningococcus. The risk is elevated as much as 350–fold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      The Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the major site at which membrane lipids are synthesized in eukaryotic cells. Because they are extremely hydrophobic, lipids are synthesized in association with already existing cellular membranes rather than in the aqueous environment of the cytosol. Although some lipids are synthesized in association with other membranes, most are synthesized in the ER. They are then transported from the ER to their ultimate destinations either in vesicles or by carrier proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5, after being stabbed in the back. Which sign would you expect to see by assessing the patient's sensory function and muscle strength?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis

      Explanation:

      Depending on the level of SCI, patients experience paraplegia or tetraplegia. Paraplegia is defined as the impairment of sensory or motor function in lower extremities. Patients with incomplete paraplegia generally have a good prognosis in regaining locomotor ability (,76% of patients) within a year. Complete paraplegic patients, however, experience limited recovery of lower limb function if their NLI is above T9. The spinothalamic tract is the one responsible for sensory information such as pain or temperature. However, it decussates at the same level the nerve root enters the spinal cord, meaning that the sensory loss will be contralateral. However, the dorsal column carries sensory fibres for fine touch and vibration and it decussates at the medulla which means that the sensory loss will be ipsilateral. The corticospinal tract is responsible for motor functions and it decussates at the medulla, meaning that the motor function loss will be ipsilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1

      Explanation:

      The duration of these cell cycle phases varies considerably in different kinds of cells. For a typical rapidly proliferating human cell with a total cycle time of 24 hours, the G1 phase might last about 11 hours, S phase about 8 hours, G2 about 4 hours, and M about 1 hour. The proliferation of most animal cells is similarly regulated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In particular, a decision point in late G1, called the restriction point in animal cells, is the point at which the cell becomes committed to the cell cycle and after which extracellular proliferation stimulants are no longer required.. Although the proliferation of most cells is regulated primarily in G1, some cell cycles are instead controlled principally in G2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the...

    Incorrect

    • A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gaucher's disease

      Explanation:

      Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
      In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 21 - Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group). The relative risk is mistaken by some, with the odds ratio and absolute risk. Relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without the exposure. Thus to calculate the relative risk, we must know the exposure status of all individuals (either exposed or not exposed). This implies that relative risk is only appropriate for cases where the exposure status and incidence of disease can be accurately determined such as prospective cohort studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 22 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents with dyspnoea and an urgent chest X-ray is scheduled. Sputum cultures reveal pneumonia and he receives treatment with erythromycin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. This means it stops the further growth of bacteria rather than directly destroying it. This is achieved by inhibiting protein synthesis. Erythromycin binds to the 23S ribosomal RNA molecule in the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. This causes a blockage in the exiting of the peptide chain that is growing. Given that humans have 40S and 60S subunits, and do not have 50S subunits, erythromycin does not affect protein synthesis in human tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 24 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
      increased B2-microglobulin
      decreased IL-2 production
      polyclonal B-cell activation
      decreased NK cell function
      reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 25 - 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a...

    Incorrect

    • 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin for those who've had a stroke. Out of 170 patients, 120 received the aspirin in addition to the new drug with the remaining 50 patients receiving just aspirin. After 5 years, 18 out of the 120 patients receiving the new drug in addition to aspirin and 10 out of the 50 patients receiving just aspirin, had had a stroke. What is the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options. Control event rate = 10 / 50 = 0.2
      Experimental event rate = 18 / 120 = 0.15

      Absolute risk reduction = 0.2 – 0.15 = 0.05
      Number needed to treat = 1 / 0.05 = 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic...

    Incorrect

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug for children with absence seizures. The total number of the children selected for the study was 400, from which 150 children were assigned to take the new drug and 250 children were assigned in the control group. After a period of four months, only 15 children taking the new drug had a seizure compared to 100 children from the control group who had seizure. What is the correct value regarding the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      Relative risk reduction (RRR) tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group who did not have the treatment. In the previous example, the relative risk reduction of fever and rash in the group of the children on the intervention was 40 per cent (1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 per cent). RRR = (EER -CER) / CER = (0.1 – 0.4) / 0.4 = -0.75 or 75% reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is caused by vitamin D? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is caused by vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased plasma phosphate

      Explanation:

      Intestinal phosphate absorption is mediated by both transcellular and paracellular routes. The 1,25(OH)2D increases intestinal transcellular phosphate absorption at least in part by enhancing expression of type 2b sodium–phosphate cotransporter, thus increasing plasma phosphate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 28 - What kind of receptor is the nitric oxide receptor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of receptor is the nitric oxide receptor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guanylate cyclase receptor

      Explanation:

      Soluble guanylyl cyclase (GC-1) is the primary receptor of nitric oxide (NO) in smooth muscle cells and maintains vascular function by inducing vasorelaxation in nearby blood vessels. GC-1 converts guanosine 5′-triphosphate (GTP) into cyclic guanosine 3′,5′-monophosphate (cGMP), which acts as a second messenger to improve blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old female patient presents with a one week history of bloody diarrhoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female patient presents with a one week history of bloody diarrhoea, fever and abdominal pain. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which she controls with methotrexate. Her stool sample shows Campylobacter jejuni. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluids + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      This woman is receiving methotrexate, an immunosuppressant, to control her rheumatoid arthritis. In such immunocompromised patients, BNF suggests clarithromycin as first-line management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 30 - Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 31 - Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: myc

      Explanation:

      Myc is a family of regulator genes and proto-oncogenes that code for transcription factors.

      A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes. Tumor suppressor genes can be grouped into categories including caretaker genes, gatekeeper genes, and landscaper genes; the classification schemes are continually evolving.
      Examples include:
      Gene Associated cancers
      p53 Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
      APC Colorectal cancer
      BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer
      BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
      NF1 Neurofibromatosis
      Rb Retinoblastoma
      WT1 Wilm’s tumour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 32 - A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation of the kneecaps. Choose the dermatome most likely compromised:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      L4 dermatome distribution includes the kneecaps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 33 - Choose the correct statement regarding leptin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding leptin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is produced mainly by the hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Leptin, a 167–amino acid hormone, was discovered in 1994 and is secreted mainly by adipocytes. Plasma leptin levels are significantly correlated with body mass index (BMI) and the total amount of body fat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 34 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the A&E with a 24-hour-history of gradual-onset fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the A&E with a 24-hour-history of gradual-onset fever, light sensitivity and headache. Clinical examination reveals neck stiffness and an area of rash which does not disappear upon pressure on her right shin. Anamnesis reveals a history of 3 episodes of meningococcal meningitis in the past and she was started on ceftriaxone for another suspected meningitis. However, you suspect that the patients might be immunodeficient. Which immunodeficiency does she most probably have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5-9 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis. The common terminal pathway consists of complement components C5–C9, and activation forms the anaphylatoxin C5a, a strong proinflammatory mediator, and the membrane attack complex (MAC), which creates pores in the bacterial cell wall (12). Deficiencies in these late complement components have been recognized as a cause of recurrent and familial meningococcal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 35 - A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.

      Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
      This could be:
      the child’s mother or father
      the child’s legally appointed guardian
      a person with a residence order concerning the child
      a local authority designated to care for the child
      a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
      Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
      Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 36 - A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has multiple non-healing leg ulcers. She reports feeling unwell for several months. Examination findings include a normal blood pressure, pulse 90 bpm, pale conjunctivae and poor dentition associated with bleeding gums. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Severe vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy, a disorder characterized by hemorrhagic manifestations and abnormal osteoid and dentin formation.
      Vitamin C plays a role in collagen, carnitine, hormone, and amino acid formation. It is essential for bone and blood vessel health and wound healing and facilitates recovery from burns. Vitamin C is also an antioxidant, supports immune function, and facilitates the absorption of iron (see table Sources, Functions, and Effects of Vitamins).
      Dietary sources of vitamin C include citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, broccoli, strawberries, and sweet peppers. (See also Overview of Vitamins.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 37 - A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
      An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 38 - Choose the correct statement regarding interferon: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding interferon:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferon-alpha and interferon-beta bind to the same type of receptor

      Explanation:

      Type I interferons (IFNs) form a network of homologous cytokines that bind to a shared, heterodimeric cell surface receptor and engage signalling pathways that activate innate and adaptive immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 39 - A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to look at the potential of hip protectors to reduce femoral neck fractures in elderly nursing home patients. The study included 800 patients randomly selected with an average age of 82 years of age. The data was collected over a two year period and the patients were randomly put in the standard care group or the hip protector group. From the 400 patients assigned to the hip protector group, 10 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. From the 400 patients assigned to the standard care group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture over the two year period. What is the correct value regarding the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. In this example, the ARR is 8 per cent (20 per cent – 12 per cent = 8 per cent). This means that, if 100 children were treated, 8 would be prevented from developing bad outcomes. Another way of expressing this is the number needed to treat (NNT). If 8 children out of 100 benefit from treatment, the NNT for one child to benefit is about 13 (100 ÷ 8 = 12.5). CER = 20 / 400 = 1 / 20 = 0.05, EER = 10 / 400 = 0.025, ARR =CER – EER = 0.025

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 40 - Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
      Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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