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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old Indian woman presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and central...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old Indian woman presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and central abdominal pain. She has vomited eight times over the last 24 hours. The vomit is non-bilious and non-bloody. She also reports that she has not moved her bowels for the last four days and is not passing flatus. She reports that she had some form of radiation therapy to her abdomen ten years ago in India for ‘stomach cancer’. There is no urinary urgency or burning on urination. She migrated from India to England two months ago. She reports no other past medical or surgical history.
      Her observations and blood tests results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C
      Blood pressure 155/59 mmHg
      Heart rate 85 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 19 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
      White cell count 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein 36 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      The patient’s urine dipstick is negative for leukocytes and nitrites. Physical examination reveals a soft but distended abdomen. No abdominal scars are visible. There is mild tenderness throughout the abdomen. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Rectal examination reveals no stool in the rectal vault, and no blood or melaena.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Small Bowel Obstruction, Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, Pyelonephritis, and Viral Gastroenteritis

      Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider different possibilities to provide appropriate management. Here are some differential diagnoses for abdominal pain:

      Small bowel obstruction (SBO) is characterized by vomiting, lack of bowel movements, and hyperactive bowel sounds. Patients who have had radiation therapy to their abdomen are at risk for SBO. Urgent management includes abdominal plain film, intravenous fluids, nasogastric tube placement, analgesia, and surgical review.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is caused by reduced arterial blood flow to the small intestine. Patients with vascular risk factors such as hypertension, smoking, and diabetes mellitus are at risk. Acute-onset abdominal pain that is out of proportion to examination findings is a common symptom.

      Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa pain, pyrexia, and leukocytosis. Vital signs are usually stable.

      Pyelonephritis is characterized by fevers or chills, flank pain, and lower urinary tract symptoms.

      Viral gastroenteritis typically presents with fast-onset diarrhea and vomiting after ingestion of contaminated food. However, the patient in this case has not had bowel movements for four days.

      In summary, abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory findings to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He has no history...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He has no history of alcohol consumption and no known risk factors for liver disease. However, his grandfather passed away from liver cancer. Upon investigation, his serum albumin is 38 g/L (37-49), serum total bilirubin is 41 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 105 U/L (5-35), serum alkaline phosphatase is 135 U/L (45-105), serum ferritin is 1360 mcg/L, and serum iron saturation is 84%. A liver biopsy reveals Perls' Prussian blue positive deposits in the liver. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Correct Answer: Venesection

      Explanation:

      Venesection is the primary treatment for haemochromatosis, with a target serum ferritin of less than 50 mcg/L achieved within three to six months. Azathioprine and prednisolone are not used in treatment, while iron chelators such as desferrioxamine are reserved for certain cases. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in treating primary biliary cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man with a history of intravenous (iv) drug abuse 16 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of intravenous (iv) drug abuse 16 years ago is referred by his doctor with abnormal liver function tests. He has significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT). He tests positive for hepatitis C RNA and genotyping reveals genotype 1 hepatitis C. Liver biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration with some evidence of early hepatic fibrosis with associated necrosis.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this man?

      Your Answer: Pegylated (PEG)-interferon α and ribavirin

      Correct Answer: Direct acting antivirals (DAAs)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hepatitis C: Direct Acting Antivirals and Combination Therapies

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can lead to serious long-term health complications such as cirrhosis and liver cancer. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended as first-line therapy for hepatitis C, as direct acting antivirals (DAAs) have proven to be more effective. DAAs target different stages of the hepatitis C virus lifecycle and have a success rate of over 90%. Treatment typically involves a once-daily oral tablet regimen for 8-12 weeks and is most effective when given before cirrhosis develops.

      While ribavirin alone is not as effective, combination therapies such as PEG-interferon α and ribavirin have been used in the past. However, for patients with genotype 1 disease (which has a worse prognosis), the addition of a protease inhibitor to the treatment regimen is recommended for better outcomes.

      It is important to note that blood-borne infection rates for hepatitis C are high and can occur after just one or two instances of sharing needles during recreational drug use. Testing for hepatitis C involves antibody testing, followed by RNA and genotyping to guide the appropriate combination and length of treatment.

      Overall, the combination of PEG-interferon, ribavirin, and a protease inhibitor is no longer used in the treatment of hepatitis C, as newer and more effective therapies have been developed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man has been experiencing burning epigastric pain and vomiting on and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been experiencing burning epigastric pain and vomiting on and off for the past 4 weeks. His father was recently treated for gastric cancer. During an upper GI endoscopy, gastric biopsies were taken and tested positive for Helicobacter pylori. The patient has a penicillin allergy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for eradicating H. pylori in this individual?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole 20 mg twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for one week

      Explanation:

      H. pylori infection is a common cause of peptic ulceration and increases the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma. A PPI-based triple therapy is effective in 90% of cases with low rates of re-infection. For patients not allergic to penicillin, a 7-day PPI triple therapy including omeprazole, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin is appropriate. Metronidazole is given twice daily for seven days, while levofloxacin is only used if the patient has had previous exposure to clarithromycin. Quadruple therapy, including metronidazole or clarithromycin, bismuth, tetracycline, and PPI, is second-line in H. pylori eradication and is given for two weeks. In penicillin-allergic patients, clarithromycin and metronidazole are used with a PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue. He reports experiencing 'abdominal complaints' for the past 6 years, without relief from any treatments. Upon examination, he appears severely pale and has glossitis. He has been having bowel movements five to six times per day. The only significant history he has is that he had to undergo surgery at the age of 4 to remove a swallowed toy. Blood tests show the following results: Hemoglobin - 98 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), Vitamin B12 - 60 pmol/l (normal range: 160-900 pmol/l), Folate - 51 μg/l (normal range: 2.0-11.0 μg/l), and Cholesterol - 2.7 mmol/l (normal range: <5.2 mmol/l). What is the appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 replacement

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)

      Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, and megaloblastic anemia. It is often caused by a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, such as decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility. Patients who have had intestinal surgery are also at an increased risk of developing SIBO.

      The most effective treatment for SIBO is a course of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, or rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.

      In contrast, a gluten-free diet is the treatment for coeliac disease, which presents with malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Steroids are not an appropriate treatment for SIBO or coeliac disease, as they can suppress local immunity and allow further bacterial overgrowth.

      Vitamin B12 replacement is necessary for patients with SIBO who have megaloblastic anemia due to B12 malabsorption and metabolism by bacteria. There is no indication of intestinal tuberculosis in this patient, but in suspected cases, intestinal biopsy may be needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old alcoholic presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old alcoholic presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain, shortness of breath and pain on swallowing after a heavy drinking session the night before. He reports having vomited several times this morning, after which the pain started. He denies any blood in the vomit and has no melaena. On examination, he is febrile and tachypnoeic and has a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest X-ray reveals a left-sided pneumothorax and air within the mediastinum.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management to treat the underlying cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chest drain insertion

      Correct Answer: Urgent surgery

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture

      Suspected oesophageal rupture is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. This condition is more common in patients with a history of alcohol excess and can be associated with a triad of vomiting, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema. Symptoms include retrosternal chest/epigastric pain, tachypnoea, fever, pain on swallowing, and shock. A chest X-ray reveals gas within soft tissue spaces, pneumomediastinum, left pleural effusion, and left-sided pneumothorax. Without rapid treatment, the condition can be fatal.

      Antibiotics are necessary to treat the infection that may result from oesophageal rupture. However, they will not address the underlying cause of the infection.

      Chest drain insertion is not the correct management for pneumothorax secondary to oesophageal rupture. A chest drain would not resolve the underlying cause, and air would continue to enter the pleural cavity via the oesophagus.

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. PPIs would be the correct management for a suspected perforated ulcer. However, the history of acute-onset pain following vomiting is more in keeping with oesophageal rupture.

      Urgent endoscopy is not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. Endoscopy risks further oesophageal perforation, and there is no report of haematemesis or melaena, making this a less likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture: Antibiotics, Chest Drain Insertion, PPIs, and Endoscopy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite receiving 6 units of blood. He has a medical history of arthritis and takes methotrexate and ibuprofen. What is the next most appropriate course of action from the following options?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Endoscopy in Diagnosing and Treating Upper GI Bleeds

      When a patient presents with an upper GI bleed, it is important to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In cases where the bleed is likely caused by a duodenal ulcer from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use, an OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) is necessary for diagnosis and initial therapeutic management. Endoscopy allows for the identification of a bleeding ulcer, which can then be injected with adrenaline and clipped to prevent re-bleeding.

      Continued transfusion may help resuscitate the patient, but it will not stop the bleeding. A CT scan with embolisation could be useful, but a CT scan alone would not be sufficient. Laparotomy should only be considered if endoscopic therapy fails. Diagnostic laparoscopy is not necessary as a clinical diagnosis can be made based on the patient’s history and condition.

      In conclusion, endoscopy is crucial in diagnosing and treating upper GI bleeds, particularly in cases where a duodenal ulcer is suspected. It allows for immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?

      Your Answer: Corrected calcium

      Correct Answer: Serum amylase

      Explanation:

      Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis

      Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.

      Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.

      Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male returns from a backpacking trip in Eastern Europe with symptoms of diarrhea. He has been experiencing profuse watery diarrhea and colicky abdominal pain for the past week. He has been going to the toilet approximately 10 times a day and occasionally feels nauseated, but has not vomited. He has lost around 5 kg in weight due to this illness. On examination, he has a temperature of 37.7°C and appears slightly dehydrated. There is some slight tenderness on abdominal examination, but no specific abnormalities are detected. PR examination reveals watery, brown feces. What investigation would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stool microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Giardiasis in Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common condition that can occur when travelling to different parts of the world. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from giardiasis, which is caused by a parasite that can be found in contaminated water or food. The best way to diagnose giardiasis is through microscopic examination of the faeces, where cysts may be seen. However, in some cases, chronic disease may occur, and cysts may not be found in the faeces. In such cases, a duodenal aspirate or biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

      The treatment for giardiasis is metronidazole, which is an antibiotic that is effective against the parasite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of abdominal discomfort and bloating that has persisted for six months. The GP initially suspected bowel cancer and referred her for a colonoscopy, which came back negative. The gastroenterologist who performed the colonoscopy suggested that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome. The patient has no prior history of digestive issues. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Treat as irritable bowel syndrome for now and review in one month

      Correct Answer: Measure serum CA125 level

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, women over the age of 50 who experience regular symptoms such as abdominal bloating, loss of appetite, pelvic or abdominal pain, and increased urinary urgency and/or frequency should undergo serum CA125 testing. It is important to note that irritable bowel disease rarely presents for the first time in women over 50, so any symptoms suggestive of IBD should prompt appropriate tests for ovarian cancer. If serum CA125 levels are elevated, an ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis should be arranged. If malignancy is suspected, urgent referral must be made. Physical examination may also warrant direct referral to gynaecology if ascites and/or a suspicious abdominal or pelvic mass is identified.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis? ...

    Correct

    • What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that is usually caused by a viral infection. Antibiotics are not necessary in most cases as they are only effective against bacterial infections. Changing formula feeds is also not recommended as it may cause further digestive problems. However, if the child is unable to tolerate oral fluids, intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary to prevent dehydration.

      Lactose intolerance is a common occurrence in children with gastroenteritis, but it is not inevitable. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and adjust their diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis as they are more commonly used to diagnose structural abnormalities in the digestive system.

      In summary, the management of gastroenteritis in children involves providing supportive care such as oral rehydration therapy and monitoring for signs of dehydration. Antibiotics are not necessary unless there is a bacterial infection present. It is important to be aware of the possibility of lactose intolerance and adjust the child’s diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department with massive haematemesis. An emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department with massive haematemesis. An emergency endoscopy revealed a bleeding gastric ulcer located on the lesser curvature of the stomach. Which vessel is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: The right gastroepiploic artery

      Correct Answer: The left gastric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries that supply the stomach: A brief overview

      The stomach is a vital organ that requires a constant supply of blood to function properly. There are several arteries that supply blood to different parts of the stomach. Here is a brief overview of these arteries:

      1. Left gastric artery: This artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery. Bleeding at the lesser curvature of the stomach is most likely to be caused by these two arteries. The left gastric artery is one of the three branches that arise from the coeliac trunk.

      2. Right gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the left gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.

      3. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the right gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.

      4. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is a branch off the common hepatic artery that supplies the duodenum, head of the pancreas, and greater curvature of the stomach.

      5. Short gastric arteries: These are four or five small arteries from the splenic artery that supply the fundus of the stomach.

      Understanding the different arteries that supply the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions related to the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old man had a gastric endoscopy to investigate possible gastritis. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man had a gastric endoscopy to investigate possible gastritis. During the procedure, the endoscope passed through the oesophagogastric junction and entered the stomach.
      Which part of the stomach is situated closest to this junction?

      Your Answer: Pyloric antrum

      Correct Answer: Cardia

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Stomach: Regions and Parts

      The stomach is a muscular organ located in the upper abdomen that plays a crucial role in digestion. It is divided into several regions and parts, each with its own unique function. Here is a breakdown of the anatomy of the stomach:

      Cardia: This region surrounds the opening of the oesophagus into the stomach and is adjacent to the fundus. It is in continuity with the body of the stomach.

      Fundus: The fundus is the uppermost region of the stomach that is in contact with the inferior surface of the diaphragm. It is located above the level of the cardial orifice.

      Body: The body is the largest region of the stomach and is located between the fundus and pyloric antrum. It has a greater and lesser curvature.

      Pyloric antrum: This region is the proximal part of the pylorus, which is the distal part of the stomach. It lies between the body of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum.

      Pyloric canal: The pyloric canal is the distal part of the pylorus that leads to the muscular pyloric sphincter.

      Understanding the different regions and parts of the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various digestive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old man presents with worsening jaundice over the past two months. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents with worsening jaundice over the past two months. He denies any abdominal pain but reports that his stools have been paler than usual and his urine has been dark. The man is currently taking sulfasalazine for ulcerative colitis and has recently returned from a trip to Tanzania. On examination, he has hepatomegaly and is stable in terms of temperature and blood pressure.
      What is the probable reason for the man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of jaundice: considering cholangiocarcinoma, malaria, haemolytic anaemia, acute cholecystitis, and pancreatitis

      Jaundice is a common clinical manifestation of various diseases, including liver, biliary, and haematological disorders. When evaluating a patient with jaundice, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis based on the clinical features and risk factors. One rare but important cause of jaundice is cholangiocarcinoma, a cancer of the bile ducts that typically presents with painless progressive jaundice, hepatomegaly, and risk factors such as male gender, age over 50, and certain liver diseases. However, other conditions such as malaria and haemolytic anaemia can also cause pre-hepatic jaundice, which is characterized by elevated bilirubin levels but normal urine and stool colours. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, typically presents with severe abdominal pain, fever, and signs of inflammation, while pancreatitis is characterized by epigastric pain, fever, and elevated pancreatic enzymes. Therefore, a thorough history, physical examination, and laboratory tests are necessary to differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore inside her mouth that has been bothering her for the past week. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin for it.

      During the mouth examination, the GP observes an oval-shaped, shallow ulcer with a red rim around it. The ulcer is sensitive to touch, and no other lesions are visible. The patient does not have swollen lymph nodes and is in good health otherwise.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Immediate specialist referral

      Correct Answer: Topical steroids

      Explanation:

      Management of Aphthous Ulcers: Topical Steroids and Pain Control

      Aphthous ulcers are a common benign oral lesion that can be triggered by local trauma or certain foods. The first-line management for this condition typically involves topical steroids and topical lidocaine for pain control. Biopsy of the lesion is not indicated unless the ulcer is not healing after three weeks and malignancy needs to be excluded. Epstein-Barr virus testing is only necessary if there are signs of oral hairy leucoplakia. Immediate specialist referral is necessary if there are signs of malignancy. Oral steroids can be considered in refractory cases, but should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital after being referred by her general...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital after being referred by her general practitioner. She has been feeling nauseous and generally unwell for 1 week. Yesterday she became concerned because her skin had turned yellow. There is no past medical history of note and there is no history of intravenous (iv) drug use, blood transfusions or unprotected sexual intercourse. She has recently returned from backpacking in Eastern Europe. Viral serology is requested, as well as liver function tests which are reported as follows:
      total bilirubin 90 mmol/l
      aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 941 ui/l
      alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 1004 iu/l
      alkaline phosphatase 190 u/l.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Likely Causes of Hepatitis in a Patient: A Differential Diagnosis

      Upon considering the patient’s medical history, it is highly likely that the cause of their illness is hepatitis A. This is due to the patient’s recent travel history and lack of risk factors for other types of hepatitis. Hepatitis A is highly infectious and is transmitted through the faeco-oral route, often through contaminated water or poor sanitation.

      Hepatitis C and B are less likely causes as the patient denies any risk factors for these types of hepatitis, such as blood transfusions, unprotected sexual intercourse, or IV drug use. Hepatitis D is also unlikely as it is co-transmitted with hepatitis B.

      Yellow fever is a possibility, but the patient has not traveled to any endemic areas, such as tropical rainforests, making it less likely.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s medical history and lack of risk factors, hepatitis A is the most likely cause of their illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man presents with generalised pruritus, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with generalised pruritus, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice for the past month. He has a history of recurrent bloody bowel movements and painful defecation and is now being treated with sulfasalazine. His previous colonoscopy has shown superficial mucosal ulceration and inflammation, with many pseudopolyps involving the distal rectum up to the middle third of the transverse colon. On abdominal examination, the liver is slightly enlarged and tender. Total bilirubin level is 102.6 μmol/l and indirect bilirubin level 47.9 μmol/l. Alkaline phosphatase and γ-glutamyltransferase concentrations are moderately increased. Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are mildly elevated.
      Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive in this patient?

      Your Answer: Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

      Correct Answer: Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA)

      Explanation:

      Serologic Markers of Autoimmune Diseases

      There are several serologic markers used to diagnose autoimmune diseases. These markers include perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA), anti-dsDNA antibody, antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA), and anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA).

      p-ANCA is elevated in patients with ulcerative colitis and/or primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). Anti-dsDNA antibody is found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). ANA is a sensitive, but not specific, marker for a variety of autoimmune diseases such as SLE, mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). ASMA, ANA, and anti-liver–kidney microsomal antibody-1 (LKM-1) are serologic markers of autoimmune hepatitis. Increased levels of ASCA are often associated with Crohn’s disease.

      These serologic markers are useful in diagnosing autoimmune diseases, but they are not always specific to a particular disease. Therefore, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has been experiencing gradual difficulty in eating. She complains that when she swallows, the food gets stuck behind her chest and it takes a while for it to pass. She frequently regurgitates undigested food. A follow-up barium study reveals a bird's beak appearance. Which mediator's loss may be contributing to her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achalasia: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. This is commonly due to the denervation of inhibitory neurons in the distal esophagus, leading to a progressive worsening of symptoms over time. Diagnosis is made through a barium study and manometry, which reveal a bird’s beak appearance of the lower esophagus and an abnormally high sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing. Nitric oxide, which increases smooth muscle relaxation and reduces sphincter tone, is reduced in achalasia. Treatment options include surgical intervention, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy with drugs such as calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil.

      Other gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin, motilin, somatostatin, and gastrin do not play a role in achalasia. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions, while motilin is responsible for migrating motor complexes. Somatostatin decreases gastric acid and pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions. Gastrin promotes hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach and can result in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome when produced in excess by a gastrinoma.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 58-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner with concerns of constipation and rectal bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner with concerns of constipation and rectal bleeding. He reports a recent loss of appetite and occasional abdominal pain over the past few months. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l 130 – 180 g/l
      Mean corpuscular value (MCV) 93 fl 80 –100 fl
      What is the most suitable test to conduct for the diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario presents with symptoms that suggest a blockage in their bowel and potential signs of cancer, such as a loss of appetite and anemia. Therefore, the most important initial investigation is a colonoscopy. A colonic transit study is not appropriate as it is used for slow colonic transit and this patient has symptoms of obstruction. An abdominal X-ray can be used to investigate faecal impaction and rectal masses, but a colonoscopy should be used first-line for detailed information about colonic masses. While a CT abdomen may be needed, a colonoscopy should be performed as the initial investigation for intestinal luminal obstruction and potential malignancy. Checking thyroid function may be useful if there is suspicion of a secondary cause of constipation, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest colonic obstruction and cancer, making a thyroid function test an inappropriate initial investigation.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
      Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
      Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?

      Your Answer: Rectal involvement

      Explanation:

      Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.

      Rectal Involvement
      UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.

      Transmural Inflammation
      Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.

      Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
      Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.

      Duodenal Involvement
      UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.

      Symptoms and Severity
      Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.

      Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A newborn presents with a suspected diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is a...

    Correct

    • A newborn presents with a suspected diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is a characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: Projectile vomiting

      Explanation:

      Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that is most commonly observed in first-born male children. One of the most characteristic symptoms of this condition is projectile vomiting of large quantities of curdled milk. However, anorexia and loose stools are not typically observed in patients with this condition. The biochemical picture of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.

      This condition is caused by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric sphincter, which leads to obstruction of the gastric outlet. This obstruction can cause the stomach to become distended, leading to vomiting. Diagnosis of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically made through ultrasound imaging, which can reveal the thickened pyloric muscle. Treatment for this condition typically involves surgical intervention to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal gastric emptying.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. He feels nauseous and has been vomiting since arriving at the Emergency Department (ED). On questioning, the man tells you that he takes no regular medication. He was last in hospital three years ago after he fell from his bicycle when cycling under the influence of alcohol. He was not admitted. He travelled to Nigeria to visit relatives three months ago.
      On examination, the man’s abdomen is tender in the epigastrium. He is jaundiced. He is also tachycardic and pyrexial. Some of his investigation results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 320 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 70 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 45 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      What is the best initial treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Correct Answer: Admission, iv fluids, analgesia, keep nil by mouth and place a nasogastric tube

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Treatment for Pancreatitis and Cholecystitis: Differentiating Symptoms and Initial Management

      Pancreatitis and cholecystitis are two conditions that can present with similar symptoms, such as epigastric pain and nausea. However, the nature of the pain and other clinical indicators can help differentiate between the two and guide appropriate initial treatment.

      For a patient with pancreatitis, initial treatment would involve admission, IV fluids, analgesia, and keeping them nil by mouth. A nasogastric tube may also be placed to help with vomiting and facilitate healing. Antibiotics and surgical intervention are not typically indicated unless there are complications such as necrosis or abscess.

      In contrast, a patient with cholecystitis would receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and analgesia as initial management. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy would only be considered after further investigations such as abdominal ultrasound or MRCP.

      It’s important to note that other factors, such as a recent history of travel, may also need to be considered in determining appropriate treatment. However, careful evaluation of symptoms and clinical indicators can help guide initial management and ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
      Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bromocriptine

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide

      Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.

      Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.

      Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.

      Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a 15-month history of dysphagia. She has had...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a 15-month history of dysphagia. She has had difficulty with both liquids and solids from the onset. She reports no weight loss and there no past medical history of note. Investigation with a barium swallow demonstrates a dilated oesophagus with a ‘bird’s beak’ tapering of the distal oesophagus.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Achalasia is a motility disorder that affects the lower esophageal sphincter, causing difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids. This condition is characterized by the failure of the sphincter to relax in response to peristalsis during swallowing, which can lead to chest pain after eating and regurgitation of food. The cause of achalasia is unknown, but it is thought to be due to degeneration of the myenteric plexus.

      To diagnose achalasia, a barium swallow may reveal a dilated esophagus with a bird’s beak tapering of the distal esophagus. Manometry can confirm the high-pressure, non-relaxing lower esophageal sphincter. Endoscopy should also be carried out to exclude malignancy.

      Differential diagnosis for achalasia includes oesophageal carcinoma, pharyngeal pouch, benign oesophageal stricture, and caustic stricture. Oesophageal carcinoma is less likely in a relatively young patient without history of weight loss, and the barium swallow findings are more suggestive of achalasia than malignancy. A pharyngeal pouch would be visualized on a barium swallow, while a benign oesophageal stricture is more common in older people with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Caustic stricture would also be visualized on a barium swallow, but there is no history of caustic damage in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever,...

    Correct

    • A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever, feeling unwell, and developing bloody diarrhea for the past two days. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli 0157

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Diarrhoea and Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Enterohaemorrhagic verocytotoxin-producing E coli 0157:H7 is the most probable cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This type of E coli is known to produce toxins that can damage the lining of the intestine and cause bloody diarrhoea. In severe cases, it can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome, a condition that affects the kidneys and can cause kidney failure.

      Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can cause chronic diarrhoea, but it would be unusual for it to present acutely as in this case. Polio and giardiasis are other possible causes of diarrhoea, but they typically present as non-bloody diarrhoea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen

      The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.

      Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
      Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladder

      The fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.

      Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleen

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      The origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
      Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history of fatigue, irritability and bronzing of the skin. She would like to know more about the prognosis of the condition and is concerned about the risks of passing on the condition to any children that she may have in the future.

      Which of the following statements best describes haemochromatosis?

      Your Answer: Coexisting arthritis is usually the result of gout

      Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron, leading to iron overload and deposition in vital organs such as the liver and pancreas. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with a frequency of homozygotes in the population of 1:500. The disorder is most commonly found in Celtic nations. Symptoms typically present in the third to fourth decade of life in men and post-menopause in women and include weakness, fatigue, skin bronzing, diabetes, cirrhosis, and cardiac disease. Treatment involves venesection, and in severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary. Haemochromatosis increases the risk of developing liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma by up to 200-fold. Iron deposition in the pancreas can also lead to diabetes, and patients with haemochromatosis who develop diabetes usually require insulin treatment. Arthropathy associated with haemochromatosis is the result of pseudogout, as iron deposits impair cartilage nutrition and enhance the formation and deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Heterozygotes for the HFE gene typically do not develop cirrhosis and remain asymptomatic due to the disorder’s low penetrance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she has entered menopause. Upon conducting a blood test, the results show a Hb of 101 g/l, MCV 108.2 fl, and a B12 level of 46 ng/l. She also reports experiencing occasional changes in bowel movements. What test would be most effective in differentiating pernicious anemia from other malabsorption causes as the reason for her low B12 levels?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of macrocytic anaemia caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12. This deficiency is often due to antibodies that target either intrinsic factor or the gastric parietal cells. To diagnose pernicious anaemia, blood tests for intrinsic factor antibodies and gastric parietal cell-antibodies are necessary.

      Other tests, such as the PABA test, folic acid level, serum gastrin level, and C14 breath test, are not useful in identifying pernicious anaemia. Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the terminal ileum, but a problem in any part of this chain may result in vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Patients with pernicious anaemia require lifelong vitamin B12 injections, typically six injections over the first two weeks from diagnosis and then one every three months to maintain adequate levels. Understanding the diagnosis and treatment of pernicious anaemia is crucial for managing this condition effectively.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation...

    Correct

    • A 26-year old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at her GP's office after her blood test results showed an elevated level of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. What condition is linked to this antibody?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases: Causes and Symptoms

      Autoimmune diseases are conditions where the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues and organs. Here are some examples of autoimmune diseases and their causes and symptoms:

      Coeliac Disease
      Coeliac disease is caused by an autoimmune reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat. Symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Graves’ Disease
      This autoimmune disease affects the thyroid gland, resulting in hyperthyroidism. It is associated with anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibodies.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris
      This rare autoimmune disease causes blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces due to autoantibodies against desmoglein.

      Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
      This multisystem autoimmune disease is associated with a wide range of autoantibodies, including anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded (ds) DNA. Symptoms can include joint pain, fatigue, and skin rashes.

      Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
      This autoimmune disease results in the destruction of islet cells in the pancreas. Islet cell autoantibodies and antibodies to insulin have been described as causes. Symptoms include increased thirst and urination, weight loss, and fatigue.

      In summary, autoimmune diseases can affect various organs and tissues in the body, and their symptoms can range from mild to severe. Understanding their causes and symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains of increased frequency of loose motions associated with cramping abdominal pain for six weeks, with an accompanying 5 kg weight loss. He opens his bowels anywhere from three to six times daily, the stool frequently has mucous in it, but no blood. The patient has no recent history of foreign travel and has had no ill contacts. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. The patient is referred to Gastroenterology for further investigation. A colonoscopy and biopsy of an affected area of bowel reveals ulcerative colitis.
      Which of the following is an extra-intestinal clinical feature associated with inflammatory bowel disease?

      Your Answer: Heberden’s nodes

      Correct Answer: Sacroiliitis

      Explanation:

      Extraintestinal Clinical Features Associated with IBD

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is often accompanied by joint pain and inflammation, with migratory polyarthritis and sacroiliitis being common arthritic conditions. Other extraintestinal clinical features associated with IBD include aphthous ulcers, anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, episcleritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, finger clubbing, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and fissures. However, aortic aneurysm is not known to be associated with IBD, as it is commonly linked to Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and collagen-vascular diseases. While peripheral arthropathy of the hands is associated with IBD, it is typically asymmetrical and non-deforming. Deforming arthropathy of the hands is more commonly associated with psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes, bony distal and proximal interphalangeal joint nodes, are found in osteoarthritis and are not associated with IBD. Prostatitis, a bacterial infection of the prostate gland, is not associated with IBD and is typically caused by Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae in young, sexually active men, and Escherichia coli in older men.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (12/30) 40%
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