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  • Question 1 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A child presents with hypothyroidism. Which of the following features is characteristic of...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with hypothyroidism. Which of the following features is characteristic of hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Microglossia

      Correct Answer: Prolonged neonatal jaundice

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism is one of the most important diseases of the new-born, which may lead to mental and physical retardation when treatment is delayed or an appropriate dosage of thyroxine is not administered. The most alarming and earliest sign is jaundice, especially when it is prolonged, during the neonatal period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 17-year-old male arrives at the clinic, 7 days after having unprotected intercourse...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male arrives at the clinic, 7 days after having unprotected intercourse with his girlfriend, and complains of dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. He is otherwise feeling well. Microscopic examination of the urethral swab shows gram negative diplococci. Which of the following drugs should be used in this patient?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Effective treatment can cure gonorrhoea and help prevent long-term complications. CDC recommends a single dose of 250mg of intramuscular ceftriaxone AND 1g of oral azithromycin. It is important to take all of the medication prescribed to cure gonorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch

      Explanation:

      There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.Right Sixth Arch:Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.Left Sixth ArchVentral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by...

    Incorrect

    • A child with jaundice and pale stools would most likely be evaluated by which of the following tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Blood tests do not help in the diagnosis of jaundice except of course by telling the level of jaundice (bilirubin) and providing some corroborative evidence such as autoantibodies, tumour markers or viral titres in the case of hepatitis. Classifying causes of jaundice on the basis of ultrasound provides a quick and easy schema for diagnosing jaundice which is applicable in primary care as well as hospital based practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zidovudine

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination following the successful administration of a median nerve block?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to abduct the thumb

      Explanation:

      Successful administration of median nerve block can be confirmed by the inability to abduct the thumb. The median nerve supplies all the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, apart from the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the outer two fingers: so these two fingers can still be flexed. There is a sensory loss to the thumb, index, middle and half of the ring fingers. Absence of thumb abduction due to paralysis of abductor pollicis brevis is a good test for median nerve paralysis.Other options:- The radial nerve supplies the extensors -hence wrist drop does not occur in this scenario. – The ulnar nerve supplies the skin of the ulnar side of the hand. Hence anaesthesia will not affect this area. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the interossei muscles of the hand, which affect abduction and adduction of the fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2C and acute abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2C and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. Clinically he is jaundiced. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a common bile duct diameter of 10mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impacted Gall Stone

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, this patient most probably has impacted gall stones. Gall stones in children can be caused by haematological diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia. Cholesterol stones are also becoming more prevalent. A dilated common bile duct (> 10mm in adults) suggests gall stone impaction. The presence of pyrexia indicates cholecystitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A father brought his 6-year-old son with cystic fibrosis to the ER department...

    Incorrect

    • A father brought his 6-year-old son with cystic fibrosis to the ER department due to massive hematemesis. He is hypotensive and has a tachycardia. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Bleeding oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension can cause a massive gastrointestinal haemorrhage resulting in shock. Perforated ulcer is less likely in this age group. Mallory Weiss tear would not likely result in a massive haemorrhage. Aorto-intestinal fistula is more common in older patients with abdominal aneurysms. Boerhaave’s syndrome is a result of a ruptured oesophagus following excessive vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after...

    Incorrect

    • An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after his GP noted an ejection systolic murmur and thrill at the upper left sternal edge. SpO2 saturation is at 98%, and an ECG reveals an R/S ratio >1 in the V1 lead.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary Stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be pulmonary stenosis. Pulmonary Stenosis:Pulmonary valve murmurs are heard in the upper left sternal edge, associated with a thrill but no desaturation in the absence of an additional shunt. The ECG changes suggest right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary stenosis is often well tolerated in childhood unless severe. These should be monitored with serial echocardiography, and balloon pulmonary valvoplasty should be considered once the pressure gradient reaches 64 mmHg.Other options:- Atrial septal defect: While atrial septal defects are associated with right ventricular outflow tract murmurs, they would not cause a thrill.- Patent ductus arteriosus: PDA murmurs can be audible in the left upper sternal edge, but would normally be audible in the left infraclavicular area and be continuous rather than ejection systolic. This left to right shunt would not cause desaturation but does cause left-sided volume loading and hence left-sided ECG changes.- Tetralogy of Fallot: Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, subpulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This would often cause a ULSE murmur with a thrill and RVH on ECG. However, this degree of obstruction would cause shunting from right to left, and this child would be desaturated.- Ventricular septal defect: Isolated ventricular septal defects cause pansystolic murmurs at the left lower sternal edge. They would have left-sided ECG changes and normal saturations (in the absence of pulmonary hypertension).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking of one arm followed by generalised shaking. A flat erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid, which has not changed in size or appearance, has been present since birth.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS), also called encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis, is a neurocutaneous disorder with angiomas that involve the leptomeninges (leptomeningeal angiomas [LAs]) and the skin of the face, typically in the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) distributions of the trigeminal nerve. The hallmark of SWS is a facial cutaneous venous dilation, also referred to as a nevus flammeus or port-wine stain (PWS).Signs and symptoms:SWS is generally diagnosed clinically, based on the typical cutaneous, central nervous system (CNS), and ocular abnormalities associated with it.Neurological signs include the following:Developmental delay/intellectual disabilityLearning problemsAttention deficit-hyperactivity disorderInitial focal seizures progressing to frequent, secondarily generalized seizuresIncreasing seizure frequency and duration despite the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)Increasing duration of a transient postictal deficitIncrease in focal or diffuse atrophy – Determined by serial neuroimagingProgressive increase in calcificationsDevelopment of hemiparesisDeterioration in cognitive functioningPhysical signs of SWS are as follows:Port-wine stainMacrocephalyOcular manifestationsSoft-tissue hypertrophyHemiparesisVisual lossHemianopsiaOcular involvement in SWS may include the following signs:BuphthalmosGlaucomaTomato-catsup colour of the fundus (ipsilateral to the nevus flammeus) with glaucomaConjunctival and episcleral haemangiomasDiffuse choroidal haemangiomasHeterochromia of the iridesTortuous retinal vessels with occasional arteriovenous communications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of the foetus. During her visit, she is informed she is going to have a baby boy. What will be the chromosomal arrangement of the baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)

      Explanation:

      In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2 days. She is lethargic and persistently crying. Urine dipstick showed leucocytes. What is the single most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine for C&S

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and leucocytes on the urine dipstick is suggestive of a urinary tract infection. To confirm the diagnosis, urine should be sent for culture and sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week

      Explanation:

      European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1…week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives: Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises: Stapes, Temporal styloid process, Stylohyoid ligament, and Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.Muscles: Muscles of face Occipitofrontalis muscle Platysma Stylohyoid muscle Posterior belly of Digastric Stapedius muscle Auricular musclesNerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth

      Explanation:

      6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (ah,Å¥ eh,Å¥ ohÅ¥) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with m,Å¥ bÅ¥) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation

      Explanation:

      A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6 week old girl presents with intermittent rectal bleeding. She is breastfed...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old girl presents with intermittent rectal bleeding. She is breastfed and otherwise healthy. Doctors suggest the baby has allergic proctitis. What of the following should the mother do and what should she feed her baby at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue to breast-feed; mother to go onto a strict milk- and soya-free diet

      Explanation:

      This is probably a case of protein-induced allergic proctitis, due to dietary protein transmitted through the mother to the breast-fed child. The mother should go on a milk-free and soya-free diet but continue to breast-feed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them.Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with a history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She seems lethargic and has a blood glucose of 24 mmol/l. Which of the following defines diabetes, according to the World Health Organization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms

      Explanation:

      WHO states that diabetes can be diagnosed from a single fasting glucose of > 7.0 mmol/l with characteristic symptoms or a glucose level of > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after a glucose load. Two fasting glucose levels of > 7.0 mmol/l on separate occasions can also fit the diagnosis in the absence of characteristic symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The neurological examination is unremarkable except for seven brown macules on the skin that vary in diameter from 1 to 2 cm. Clinical examination reveals several freckles in the axilla and the inguinal region. What is the most probably underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma

      Explanation:

      Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma is a benign slow-growing tumour. The clinical picture of the child suggests neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), with cafe-au-lait spots and axillary and inguinal freckling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire whether to have an interval appendicectomy to prevent the chances of having appendicitis again. What percentage of patients with conservatively managed appendix mass are likely to develop recurrent appendicitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0-20%

      Explanation:

      The chance of having appendicitis again after appendix mass is around 17% in children. While the traditional teachings by Hamilton Bailey recommend following the conservative Ochsner-Sherren regimen followed by an interval appendicectomy six weeks after the discharge of the patient, there remains a looming controversy whether to perform an interval appendicectomy or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
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  • Question 28 - Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed. Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis. Other features of hyposplenism are: – Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.- Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.- Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.Causes for hyposplenism include:- Congenital asplenia- Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).- Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed