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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain and nausea that has persisted for 12 hours. She has oedema in her hands and feet, and a urine dip reveals protein 2+. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, and her most recent blood tests are as follows:

      - Hb: 95 g/l
      - Platelets: 60 * 109/l
      - WBC: 5.5 * 109/l
      - Bilirubin: 88 µmol/l
      - ALP: 526 u/l
      - ALT: 110 u/l

      What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Delivery of the fetus

      Explanation:

      The woman has HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia. Management includes magnesium sulfate, dexamethasone, blood pressure control, and blood product replacement. Delivery of the fetus is the only cure.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours after giving birth. The delivery was uncomplicated. On examination, her pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and respirations are 24/min. Diffuse crackles are heard in all lung fields and pulse oximetry shows 85%. A chest x-ray reveals a peripheral wedge-shaped opacity. Despite appropriate interventions, she passes away. Autopsy findings reveal fetal squamous cells in the pulmonary blood vessels.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary thromboembolism

      Correct Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The presence of fetal squamous cells in the maternal blood vessels of a woman who died during or after labor suggests that she had amniotic fluid embolism instead of pulmonary thromboembolism.

      The patient displayed symptoms of pulmonary embolism shortly after giving birth, including acute shortness of breath, tachycardia, and tachypnea, as well as a wedge-shaped infarction on her chest x-ray. The resulting hypoventilation caused hypoxia. Given that pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, there is an increased risk of thrombus formation and subsequent embolization, making pulmonary thromboembolism the primary differential diagnosis.

      However, the histological findings during autopsy confirmed that the woman had amniotic fluid embolism, as fetal squamous cells were found in her maternal blood vessels. The risk of fetal and maternal blood mixing is highest during the third trimester and delivery, and fetal cells can act as thrombogenic factors. Although rare, this condition has a high mortality rate, and even those who survive often experience severe deficits, including neurological damage.

      Fat embolism typically occurs after long bone fractures or orthopedic surgeries, while air embolism is very rare but can cause immediate death. Cholesterol embolization is a common scenario after cannulation, such as angiography, where the catheter mechanically displaces the cholesterol thrombus, leading to emboli.

      Amniotic Fluid Embolism: A Rare but Life-Threatening Complication of Pregnancy

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but potentially fatal complication of pregnancy that occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a severe reaction. Although many risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unknown. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases occur during labor, but they can also occur during cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of amniotic fluid embolism include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. However, there are no definitive diagnostic tests for this condition, and diagnosis is usually made by excluding other possible causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires immediate critical care by a multidisciplinary team, as the condition can be life-threatening. Treatment is primarily supportive, and the focus is on stabilizing the patient’s vital signs and providing respiratory and cardiovascular support as needed. Despite advances in medical care, the mortality rate associated with amniotic fluid embolism remains high, underscoring the need for continued research into the underlying causes and potential treatments for this rare but serious complication of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 3 - A woman in her early pregnancy has her kidney function assessed during a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early pregnancy has her kidney function assessed during a regular check-up. It is observed that her plasma urea and creatinine levels have decreased compared to her pre-pregnancy levels. What is the reason for this change?

      Your Answer: Foetal plasma filtration

      Correct Answer: Increased renal perfusion

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, plasma urea and creatinine levels decrease due to increased renal perfusion, which allows for more efficient clearing of these substances from the circulation. Additionally, the increased plasma volume dilutes these substances. This is a result of physiological changes in pregnancy, such as increased uterine size, cervical ectropion, and increased vaginal discharge. Cardiovascular and haemodynamic changes also occur, including increased plasma volume and decreased levels of albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects, such as muscle relaxation, can lead to decreased blood pressure, constipation, and bladder relaxation. It is important to note that the foetus does not have functioning kidneys, and the mother filters the blood for it.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation. She complains of feeling breathless, and her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 92bpm, blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg, temperature of 36.7ºC, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. To rule out any respiratory issues, an arterial blood gas is performed, which indicates respiratory alkalosis. What physiological change during pregnancy could have caused this?

      Your Answer: Increase in tidal volume and increase in pulmonary ventilation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is an increase in tidal volume and pulmonary ventilation. Pregnancy leads to an increase in tidal volume without any change in respiratory rate, resulting in an overall increase in pulmonary ventilation. This can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the loss of carbon dioxide.

      Incorrect options include a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in pulmonary ventilation, which is not observed during pregnancy. Similarly, an increase in tidal volume and a decrease in pulmonary ventilation, or no change in either tidal volume or pulmonary ventilation, are also not accurate descriptions of respiratory changes during pregnancy.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old athlete visits her GP with complaints of amenorrhea. She hasn't had...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old athlete visits her GP with complaints of amenorrhea. She hasn't had her period for the past 6 months, and her pregnancy test came back negative. She had regular periods before and started menstruating at the age of 12. The patient has been undergoing rigorous training for marathons for the last 8 months. She doesn't have any fever or diarrhea, and there are no signs of hirsutism on examination.

      The blood test results show:

      - TSH: 2 mU/L (normal range: 0.4 – 4)
      - Free T4: 15 pmol/L (normal range: 9 – 25)
      - Free T3: 5.2 nmol/L (normal range: 3.5 – 7.8)
      - LH: <1 IU/L (normal range: 1-12)
      - FSH: <1 IU/L (normal range: 1-9)

      What is the most likely cause of her amenorrhea?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing secondary amenorrhoea, which is indicative of hypothalamic amenorrhoea due to low-level gonadotrophins. This could be caused by the patient’s intensive training for marathons, as well as other risk factors such as stress and anorexia nervosa. Hyperthyroidism is unlikely as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms or abnormal thyroid function test results. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) can be ruled out as the patient does not have hirsutism, a high BMI, or elevated LH and FSH levels. Pregnancy is also not a possibility as the patient’s test was negative and she does not exhibit any signs of pregnancy.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman who has gone through menopause is being evaluated for vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman who has gone through menopause is being evaluated for vaginal bleeding that has persisted for the past 3 months. There is no history of cancer in her family, and her recent cervical screening test came back normal. A transvaginal ultrasound revealed an endometrial thickness of 5 mm. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      If a woman experiences postmenopausal bleeding, it is important for medical professionals to consider the possibility of endometrial cancer. According to NICE guidelines from 2015, women aged 55 or older with postmenopausal bleeding should be urgently referred for further evaluation.

      One common method of evaluation is a transvaginal ultrasound, which can measure the thickness of the endometrial lining. A 3-mm cut-off is often used and has been found to be highly effective in detecting endometrial cancer. This method can also identify women who are unlikely to have endometrial cancer, which can help avoid more invasive procedures such as endometrial biopsy. However, some medical centers may use a cut-off of 4 mm or even 5 mm for endometrial biopsy.

      In the case of a woman with an endometrial thickness of 6mm, the next step would be to perform an endometrial biopsy.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman attends a routine appointment, where her doctor explains the normal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman attends a routine appointment, where her doctor explains the normal physiological changes in menopause. Which of the following clinical features would be considered abnormal in menopause?

      Your Answer: Increased respiratory rate

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, several physiological changes occur in the body. The tidal volume increases due to the relaxation of intercostal muscles and diaphragm caused by progesterone. However, constipation may occur due to the same hormone relaxing smooth muscles and the pressure of the growing baby. Micturition rate may either increase or decrease due to the mass effect of the baby on the bladder and surrounding structures.

      Other changes include an increase in uterine size, cervical ectropion, and increased vaginal discharge due to increased mucus production. Cardiovascular changes include an increase in plasma volume, white cell count, platelets, ESR, cholesterol, and fibrinogen, while albumin, urea, and creatinine decrease. Progesterone-related effects include decreased blood pressure, bladder relaxation, biliary stasis, and increased tidal volume.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old female patient arrives with new vaginal bleeding right after her membranes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient arrives with new vaginal bleeding right after her membranes rupture. There are fetal heart abnormalities, such as decelerations and bradycardias. Transvaginal ultrasonography confirms the presence of fetal-origin ruptured blood vessels overlying the cervix. What could be the probable cause of her bleeding?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Correct Answer: Vasa praevia

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption occurs when the placenta separates abnormally from the uterine wall, often resulting in bleeding during the second trimester. On the other hand, placenta praevia is caused by a placenta that is located in the lower uterine segment and typically causes painless vaginal bleeding after 28 weeks, which is usually not life-threatening. Placenta accreta is often not detected until the third stage of labor, when the placenta is found to be abnormally attached and requires surgical removal, or it may cause postpartum bleeding.

      Understanding Bleeding During Pregnancy

      Bleeding during pregnancy can be a cause for concern and should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional. The causes of bleeding can vary depending on the trimester of pregnancy. In the first trimester, bleeding may be due to a spontaneous abortion, ectopic pregnancy, or hydatidiform mole. In the second trimester, bleeding may be due to a spontaneous abortion, hydatidiform mole, placental abruption, or bloody show. In the third trimester, bleeding may be due to placental abruption, placenta praevia, or vasa praevia.

      It is important to rule out other conditions such as sexually transmitted infections and cervical polyps. Each condition has its own unique features. For example, a spontaneous abortion may present as painless vaginal bleeding around 6-9 weeks, while placental abruption may present as constant lower abdominal pain and a tender, tense uterus with normal lie and presentation.

      It is important to note that vaginal examination should not be performed in primary care for suspected antepartum haemorrhage, as women with placenta praevia may hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages. She is seeking guidance on how to improve her chances of a successful pregnancy. What factors are linked to miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Correct Answer: Older paternal age

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is not caused by a single factor, but rather by a combination of risk factors. Women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40 are at a significantly higher risk of experiencing a miscarriage. It is important to note that activities such as exercise, emotional stress, consuming spicy foods, and engaging in sexual intercourse do not increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as spontaneous abortion, refers to the natural expulsion of the products of conception before the 24th week of pregnancy. It is a common occurrence, with approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies ending in miscarriage during the early stages. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used instead of abortion.

      Studies show that up to 50% of conceptions fail to develop into a blastocyst within 14 days. This highlights the importance of early detection and monitoring during pregnancy. Additionally, recurrent spontaneous miscarriage affects approximately 1% of women, which can be a distressing and emotionally challenging experience.

      Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for women who experience this loss. With proper medical attention and emotional support, women can navigate through this difficult time and move forward with hope and healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old girl visits the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She is provided with a pregnancy test, which indicates a positive result. From which part of her body would the beta-hCG, detected on the pregnancy test, have been secreted?

      Your Answer: The placenta

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the placenta produces beta-hCG, which helps to sustain the corpus luteum. This, in turn, continues to secrete progesterone and estrogen throughout the pregnancy to maintain the endometrial lining. Eventually, after 6 weeks of gestation, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone.

      Endocrine Changes During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including endocrine changes. Progesterone, which is produced by the fallopian tubes during the first two weeks of pregnancy, stimulates the secretion of nutrients required by the zygote/blastocyst. At six weeks, the placenta takes over the production of progesterone, which inhibits uterine contractions by decreasing sensitivity to oxytocin and inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. Progesterone also stimulates the development of lobules and alveoli.

      Oestrogen, specifically oestriol, is another major hormone produced during pregnancy. It stimulates the growth of the myometrium and the ductal system of the breasts. Prolactin, which increases during pregnancy, initiates and maintains milk secretion of the mammary gland. It is essential for the expression of the mammotropic effects of oestrogen and progesterone. However, oestrogen and progesterone directly antagonize the stimulating effects of prolactin on milk synthesis.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the syncitiotrophoblast and can be detected within nine days of pregnancy. It mimics LH, rescuing the corpus luteum from degenerating and ensuring early oestrogen and progesterone secretion. It also stimulates the production of relaxin and may inhibit contractions induced by oxytocin. Other hormones produced during pregnancy include relaxin, which suppresses myometrial contractions and relaxes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis, and human placental lactogen (hPL), which has lactogenic actions and enhances protein metabolism while antagonizing insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman delivers a healthy baby boy at 39+5 weeks. Suddenly, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman delivers a healthy baby boy at 39+5 weeks. Suddenly, a significant amount of blood is observed flowing from her vagina five minutes after delivery, prompting the emergency buzzer to be activated.

      Which synthetic chemical could potentially aid in the treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) can occur when the uterus fails to contract after childbirth. To manage this condition, healthcare providers typically take an ABCDE approach and administer drugs that stimulate uterine contractions. One such drug is a synthetic form of oxytocin called Syntocinon, which can be given intravenously. Ergometrine, another drug that stimulates uterine contractions, is often given alongside Syntocinon. Tranexamic acid, a synthetic lysine analogue that inhibits the fibrinolytic system, may also be administered. If PPH persists, a synthetic prostaglandin like carboprost may be given. Prostacyclin (PGI2) has no effect on uterine contractions and is not used to manage PPH. Dopamine and prolactin, which regulate lactation, are not involved in controlling postpartum haemorrhage.

      Understanding Oxytocin: The Hormone Responsible for Let-Down Reflex and Uterine Contraction

      Oxytocin is a hormone composed of nine amino acids that is produced by the paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate the let-down reflex of lactation by causing the contraction of the myoepithelial cells of the alveoli of the mammary glands. It also promotes uterine contraction, which is essential during childbirth.

      Oxytocin secretion increases during infant suckling and may also increase during orgasm. A synthetic version of oxytocin, called Syntocinon, is commonly administered during the third stage of labor and is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage. However, oxytocin administration can also have adverse effects, such as uterine hyperstimulation, water intoxication, and hyponatremia.

      In summary, oxytocin plays a crucial role in lactation and childbirth. Its secretion is regulated by infant suckling and can also increase during sexual activity. While oxytocin administration can be beneficial in certain situations, it is important to be aware of its potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 12 - A 24-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She is hesitant...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She is hesitant about using hormonal methods due to potential side effects and inquires about the 'temperature method'. This method involves monitoring her temperature regularly to track her menstrual cycle.

      What does an increase in temperature signify in this cycle?

      Your Answer: Ovulation

      Explanation:

      Following ovulation, the body temperature increases, which can be used as a method of behavioural contraception. By measuring and plotting the temperature each day, patients can identify their fertile window and use alternative contraception during this time. However, this method is less effective than hormonal contraception. The rise in temperature is due to the increase in progesterone levels, which is maintained after fertilisation. The initiation of the follicular phase and menses do not cause a rapid rise in temperature, as the progesterone levels are typically low during these phases. A peak in oestrogen does not affect the body temperature.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucus thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 13 - A physician informs a recently pregnant woman about the typical physiological alterations that...

    Incorrect

    • A physician informs a recently pregnant woman about the typical physiological alterations that occur during pregnancy. He clarifies that her cardiac output will rise. What is the primary cause of this?

      Your Answer: Increased peripheral resistance

      Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the main contributor to the increased cardiac output is the increased stroke volume, which is caused by the activation of the renin-angiotensin system and the subsequent increase in plasma volume. Although the heart rate also increases slightly, it is not as significant as the increase in stroke volume. Therefore, the major contributor to the increased cardiac output is the stroke volume.

      The statements ‘decreased heart rate’ and ‘increased peripheral resistance’ are incorrect. In fact, peripheral resistance decreases due to progesterone, which contributes to the normal decrease in blood pressure during pregnancy. Peripheral resistance is more concerned with blood pressure.

      Pregnancy also causes various physiological changes, including increased uterine size, cervical ectropion, reduced cervical collagen, and increased vaginal discharge. Cardiovascular and haemodynamic changes include increased plasma volume, anaemia, increased white cell count, platelets, ESR, cholesterol, and fibrinogen, as well as decreased albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects, such as muscle relaxation, can cause decreased blood pressure, constipation, ureteral dilation, bladder relaxation, biliary stasis, and increased tidal volume.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 14 - A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in his class and not having experienced a deepening of his voice yet. His mother takes him to see the GP, who conducts a comprehensive history and examination. The doctor provides reassurance that the boy is developing normally and explains that puberty occurs at varying times for each individual. What are the cells in the testes that secrete testosterone?

      Your Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      Spermatogonia are male germ cells that are not yet differentiated and undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Leydig cells are interstitial cells found in the testes that secrete testosterone in response to LH secretion. Sertoli cells are part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes and are activated by FSH. They nourish developing sperm cells. Myoid cells are contractile cells that generate peristaltic waves. They surround the basement membrane of the testes.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman who has given birth twice visits her doctor due to a two-week history of white vaginal discharge. She reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy. She recently switched to a different soap and wonders if this could be the cause. She is taking birth control pills and is in a stable relationship with her spouse.

      During the examination, a strong fishy odor is present, and a gray discharge is visible that does not stick to the vaginal lining. The rest of the exam is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Vaginosis and Other Causes of Vaginal Discharge

      Vaginal discharge is a common concern among women, and bacterial vaginosis (BV) is the most common non-STI-related cause. BV occurs when there is an imbalance in the normal flora of the vaginal mucosa, which is mostly made up of Lactobacilli. These bacteria produce hydrogen peroxide, which helps to maintain a healthy pH level in the vagina by killing off anaerobes. However, disruptions to the normal flora, such as the use of new products or hormonal imbalances, can lead to the death of Lactobacilli and an increase in pH. This creates an environment where anaerobes like Gardnerella vaginalis can thrive and cause BV.

      Candidiasis, caused by the fungus Candida albicans, is the second most common cause of non-STI-related vaginal discharge. It is characterized by thick white curds attached to the vaginal mucosa and is often associated with vulval itching. However, this patient does not describe these symptoms.

      It is important to note that sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and trichomoniasis can also cause vaginal discharge. However, there is no indication in this patient’s clinical history that she may be affected by any of these infections. the causes of vaginal discharge can help women identify when they need to seek medical attention and receive appropriate treatment.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 16 - A 23-year-old woman presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain, vomiting, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody vaginal discharge. She has a history of being treated for a genital tract infection two years ago but cannot recall the name of the condition. She is sexually active with one male partner and occasionally uses condoms. Her last menstrual period was five weeks ago, and she has never been pregnant. A positive urine beta-hCG test confirms the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. What is a potential risk factor for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy is more likely to occur in women who have had pelvic inflammatory disease, which can cause damage to the tubes. Other risk factors include a history of ectopic pregnancy, the presence of an intrauterine contraceptive device, endometriosis, and undergoing in-vitro fertilization. However, the use of antibiotics, condoms, and being young are not considered established risk factors. While endometriosis can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, this patient does not have a history of symptoms associated with the condition.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors associated with ectopic pregnancy and to seek medical attention immediately if they experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or shoulder pain. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 17 - John, a 67-year-old male, visited his doctor with concerns about blood in his...

    Correct

    • John, a 67-year-old male, visited his doctor with concerns about blood in his urine. He is post-retirement age.

      With a clinical suspicion of bladder cancer, the doctor urgently refers him via the 2-week wait pathway.

      After cystoscopy and biopsy, bladder cancer of the urothelium is excluded and he is given the all clear.

      What is the normal type of epithelium lining the bladder?

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium

      Explanation:

      The ectocervix is covered by a layer of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium, while the endocervix is lined with simple columnar epithelium that secretes mucus.

      Abnormal cells are often found in the transformation zone, which is the area where the stratified squamous non-keratinized cells transition into the mucus-secreting simple columnar cells.

      Other examples of epithelial cell types include stratified squamous keratinized epithelium found on palmer skin, and stratified columnar non-keratinized epithelium found on the conjunctiva of the eye.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.

      While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided lower abdominal pain, shoulder tip pain, and small amounts of dark brown vaginal discharge. She reports missing her period for the past 8 weeks despite having a regular 30-day cycle. She is sexually active with multiple partners and does not always use contraception. Additionally, she has been experiencing diarrhea and dizziness for the past 2 days. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a gestational sac in the left Fallopian tube, and her β-hCG level is >1500 IU (<5 IU). What is the most likely underlying factor that increases her risk for this condition?

      Your Answer: Natural conception

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is likely in this case, as the symptoms suggest a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. This condition can cause scarring and damage to the Fallopian tubes, which can impede the fertilized egg’s passage to the uterus, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is not a well-documented risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but the progesterone-only pill and intrauterine contraceptive device are. Both IVF and subfertility are also risk factors for ectopic pregnancies, while smoking or exposure to cigarette smoke increases the risk.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors associated with ectopic pregnancy and to seek medical attention immediately if they experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or shoulder pain. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 19 - At 32 weeks gestation, a woman is in labour and the baby's head...

    Incorrect

    • At 32 weeks gestation, a woman is in labour and the baby's head is delivered. However, after a minute of gentle traction, the shoulders remain stuck. What is the initial step that should be taken to address shoulder dystocia once it has been identified?

      Your Answer: Zavanelli manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

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  • Question 20 - During a routine abdominal CT scan for abdominal discomfort and weight loss, a...

    Correct

    • During a routine abdominal CT scan for abdominal discomfort and weight loss, a 27-year-old gentleman is found to have enlarged para-aortic lymph nodes.

      Which part of his body should be examined for a possible cancer, considering the CT results?

      Your Answer: Testes

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her initial prenatal visit. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her initial prenatal visit. She has a history of four previous pregnancies and is a smoker. Her body mass index is 33kg/m² and her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg. Considering the number of risk factors she has, what is the most suitable approach to managing her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Commence low-dose aspirin from week 28 until 6 weeks postnatal

      Correct Answer: Commence low molecular weight heparin immediately and continue 6 weeks postnatal

      Explanation:

      A pregnant woman who has 3 risk factors should receive LMWH from 28 weeks until 6 weeks after giving birth. If she has more than 3 risk factors, she should start LMWH immediately and continue until 6 weeks postnatal.

      The risk factors for thromboprophylaxis include age over 35, a body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      In this particular case, the woman has 4 risk factors, including being 36 years old, a smoker, having a parity over 3, and a body mass index of 33. Therefore, she needs to begin taking low molecular weight heparin immediately and continue until 6 weeks after giving birth.

      While all pregnant women should be advised to stay mobile and hydrated, this woman requires medical treatment due to her increased risk factors.

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), which is why it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and take appropriate prophylactic measures. A risk assessment should be conducted at the time of booking and on any subsequent hospital admission. Women with a previous VTE history are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, along with input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, comorbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy. If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of DVT is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the preferred treatment for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided. By taking these measures, the risk of developing VTE during pregnancy can be reduced.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes,...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes, and painful sexual intercourse due to vaginal dryness. The doctor suspects that she may be going through menopause and orders a set of blood tests to check her hormonal levels.

      What hormonal changes are probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production

      Explanation:

      The cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production in the ovaries, which can be caused naturally or by medical intervention, leads to menopause. This decrease in hormone production often results in elevated levels of FSH and LH.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old male presents with a recurrent history of chest infections. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with a recurrent history of chest infections. During the examination, it is observed that there is an absence of palpable vas deferens, but both testes are present in the scrotum. What is the probable underlying disease association?

      Your Answer: Kleinfelters syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Absence of the Vas Deferens

      Absence of the vas deferens is a condition that can occur either unilaterally or bilaterally. In 40% of cases, the cause is due to mutations in the CFTR gene, which is associated with cystic fibrosis. However, in some non-CF cases, the absence of the vas deferens is due to unilateral renal agenesis. Despite this condition, assisted conception may still be possible through sperm harvesting.

      It is important to understand the underlying causes of absence of the vas deferens, as it can impact fertility and the ability to conceive. While the condition may be associated with cystic fibrosis, it can also occur independently. However, with advancements in assisted reproductive technologies, individuals with this condition may still have options for starting a family. By seeking medical advice and exploring available options, individuals can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old woman at eight weeks gestation visits her doctor complaining of sporadic...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman at eight weeks gestation visits her doctor complaining of sporadic vaginal bleeding for the past four weeks and hyperemesis. During the obstetric examination, a non-tender, uterus larger than expected for the gestational age is observed. What condition is highly indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia

      Correct Answer: Molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption, placenta praevia, and ectopic pregnancy can cause vaginal bleeding, but they do not typically result in a non-tender, large-for-dates uterus. Gestational diabetes is not associated with vaginal bleeding or hyperemesis.

      Molar pregnancy is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs when there is an abnormal fertilization of an empty ovum. There are two types of molar pregnancies: complete and partial. Complete hydatidiform moles have a karyotype of 46 XX or 46 XY, with all genetic material coming from the father. Partial hydatidiform moles have a karyotype of 69 XXX or 69 XXY and contain both maternal and paternal chromosomes. Neither type of molar pregnancy can result in a viable fetus.

      The most common symptom of a molar pregnancy is vaginal bleeding, which can range from light to heavy. In about 25% of complete molar pregnancies, the uterus may be larger than expected for the gestational age. Complete hydatidiform moles produce high levels of beta hCG due to the large amounts of abnormal chorionic villi, which can lead to hyperemesis, hyperthyroidism, and other symptoms. Women who are under 20 years old or over 35 years old are at a higher risk of having a molar pregnancy.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man has suffered an irreparable injury to his left testicle. The surgeon opts for an orchidectomy and severs the artery supplying the left testicle. What is the origin of this vessel?

      Your Answer: Abdominal aorta

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta gives rise to the testicular artery.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 26 - A 10-year-old boy is being released from the hospital following an episode of...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is being released from the hospital following an episode of acute testicular pain. The cause of his admission was an anatomical abnormality related to the processus vaginalis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      The gubernaculum is responsible for assisting the testicles in descending from the abdomen to the scrotum, while the processus vaginalis precedes this descent and then closes. Abnormalities such as a patent processus vaginalis, also known as bell clapper deformity, can increase the risk of testicular torsion. Nutcracker syndrome occurs when the left renal vein is compressed between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta, leading to a varicocele due to the left gonadal vein draining into the left renal vein. Acute testicular pain may be caused by epididymitis or mumps orchitis, but these conditions are not related to defects in the processus vaginalis. Signs of bowel obstruction may indicate an incarcerated inguinal hernia.

      The Development of Testicles in Foetal Life

      During foetal life, the testicles are situated within the abdominal cavity. They are initially found on the posterior abdominal wall, at the same level as the upper lumbar vertebrae. The gubernaculum testis, which is attached to the inferior aspect of the testis, extends downwards to the inguinal region and through the canal to the superficial skin. Both the testis and the gubernaculum are located outside the peritoneum.

      As the foetus grows, the gubernaculum becomes progressively shorter. It carries the peritoneum of the anterior abdominal wall, known as the processus vaginalis. The testis is guided by the gubernaculum down the posterior abdominal wall and the back of the processus vaginalis into the scrotum. By the third month of foetal life, the testes are located in the iliac fossae, and by the seventh month, they lie at the level of the deep inguinal ring.

      After birth, the processus vaginalis usually closes, but it may persist and become the site of indirect hernias. Partial closure may also lead to the development of cysts on the cord.

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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of pain in her lower right abdomen. She has no significant medical history. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and her cycles have been regular in the past.

      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.5°C, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and blood pressure is 110/72 mmHg. There is tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Right Iliac Fossa Pain in Women

      Right iliac fossa pain in women can be caused by various conditions such as mittelschmerz, appendicitis, and ectopic pregnancy. However, in the case of a young woman who is seven weeks past her last period, ectopic pregnancy is highly suspected. This condition occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube.

      To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the most appropriate initial test would be a pregnancy test. This test detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. If the test is positive, further evaluation such as ultrasound and blood tests may be necessary to determine the location of the pregnancy and the appropriate management. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if experiencing RIF pain, as delay in diagnosis and treatment of ectopic pregnancy can lead to serious complications.

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  • Question 28 - Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk...

    Correct

    • Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk of spreading to the opposite breast?

      Your Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A classic characteristic of invasive lobular carcinoma is the possibility of metastasis to the opposite breast.

      Understanding Lobular Carcinoma of the Breast

      Lobular carcinoma of the breast is a less common type of breast cancer that presents differently from ductal carcinoma. The mass is usually more diffuse and less obvious on imaging tests like ultrasound and mammography, which can result in inadequate treatment if the disease is understaged. For women with invasive lobular carcinoma, an MRI scan of the breast is usually recommended before breast conserving surgery is performed to ensure the safest approach.

      Lobular carcinomas are also more likely to be multifocal and metastasize to the opposite breast. In some cases, lobular carcinoma in situ may be diagnosed incidentally on core biopsies. Unlike ductal carcinoma in situ, lobular carcinoma in situ is less strongly associated with foci of invasion and is usually managed through close monitoring. Understanding the differences between lobular and ductal carcinoma can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for patients with breast cancer.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 29 - Lily is a 32-year-old female who has been in a relationship for 3...

    Incorrect

    • Lily is a 32-year-old female who has been in a relationship for 3 years. Lily and her partner have been trying to conceive regularly for over a year without success. They have visited their doctor to arrange some tests to investigate a potential cause. What is the hormone that is released after ovulation and can be utilized as an indicator of fertility?

      Your Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      To test for ovulation in women with regular cycles, Day 21 progesterone (mid-luteal cycle progesterone) is used. However, for those with irregular cycles, progesterone should be tested a week before the predicted menstruation. Ovulation is necessary for fertilization to occur, as it indicates the release of an egg.

      Oestrogen and Progesterone: Their Sources and Functions

      Oestrogen and progesterone are two important hormones in the female body. Oestrogen is primarily produced by the ovaries, but can also be produced by the placenta and blood via aromatase. Its functions include promoting the development of genitalia, causing the LH surge, and increasing hepatic synthesis of transport proteins. It also upregulates oestrogen, progesterone, and LH receptors, and is responsible for female fat distribution. On the other hand, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum, placenta, and adrenal cortex. Its main function is to maintain the endometrium and pregnancy, as well as to thicken cervical mucous and decrease myometrial excitability. It also increases body temperature and is responsible for spiral artery development.

      It is important to note that these hormones work together in regulating the menstrual cycle and preparing the body for pregnancy. Oestrogen promotes the proliferation of the endometrium, while progesterone maintains it. Without these hormones, the menstrual cycle and pregnancy would not be possible. Understanding the sources and functions of oestrogen and progesterone is crucial in diagnosing and treating hormonal imbalances and reproductive disorders.

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  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old woman visits her general practice for her regular cervical screening. During...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman visits her general practice for her regular cervical screening. During the screening, a sample of cells is collected from the endocervix and sent to the laboratory for analysis. The initial screening reveals the detection of high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV).

      What is the subsequent step in the screening process for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cytological examination of the current smear

      Explanation:

      When a cervical smear sample tests positive for high-risk HPV (hrHPV), it undergoes cytological examination to check for abnormal cellular changes that may indicate early cervical cancer. In the UK, cervical screening is offered to women between the ages of 25 and 65, with those aged 25-50 offered a smear every 3 years and those aged 50-65 offered a smear every 5 years. The aim of the screening programme is to detect cervical changes early on. HPV, a sexually transmitted virus, is present in almost all sexually active individuals, and HPV 16 or 18 is present in almost all cases of cervical cancer. If hrHPV is not detected, no further testing is required, and the patient can return to routine screening. Repeating the smear is not necessary following the presence of hrHPV, but a repeat smear may be required if the laboratory report an inadequate sample. Prior to colposcopy investigation, the sample must be positive for hrHPV and dyskaryosis.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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