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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of flu-like symptoms, including spiking fevers, headache, rigors, vomiting and diarrhoea.
      On examination, he looks unwell, is febrile and jaundiced. His abdomen is soft, with mild, generalised tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. He returned from Nigeria six months ago after a 8-week stay with a charity mission. He had all the appropriate travel vaccinations and took mefloquine prophylaxis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schistosomiasis

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Travel-Related Illnesses: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Malaria, Yellow Fever, Enteric Fever, Hepatitis A, and Schistosomiasis are some of the common travel-related illnesses that can affect people visiting certain parts of the world.

      Malaria is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by a parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include headache, cough, fatigue, fever with rigors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Diagnosis is made through thick and thin blood films, and treatment should be guided by an infectious disease specialist.

      Yellow fever is an insect-borne tropical disease with symptoms that may include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and abnormal bleeding. It has a short incubation period of 3-6 days and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Vaccination is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.

      Enteric fever is caused by salmonella typhoid or paratyphoid and is transmitted orally via contaminated food or drink. Symptoms include severe flu-like symptoms, especially diarrhea and fever. Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, and treatment is with antibiotics.

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection transmitted via contaminated food or water. Symptoms include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and tender hepatomegaly. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, and treatment is supportive.

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection spread by flatworms that live in freshwater. Symptoms can include fever, rash, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chronic infection may present as rectal bleeding, hematuria, anemia, or cystitis. Diagnosis is made through blood and stool tests, and treatment is with antiparasitic medication.

      In conclusion, travelers to certain parts of the world should be aware of the risk of these illnesses and take appropriate precautions, including vaccination, prophylaxis, and avoiding contaminated food and water. If symptoms develop, prompt medical attention should be sought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      147.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old patient with asthma has been stable on salbutamol when required. Recently...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient with asthma has been stable on salbutamol when required. Recently she has been experiencing shortness of breath during exercise and is using the salbutamol inhaler three times a week. She has a good inhaler technique.
      Which of the following is the next step in her treatment?

      Your Answer: Addition of inhaled corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Next Step in Asthma Treatment: Addition of Inhaled Corticosteroids

      According to the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN)/British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidance, patients with asthma who have had an attack in the last two years, use inhaled β2 agonists three times or more a week, are symptomatic three times or more a week, or wake up one night a week should move to the next step of treatment. The preferred next step is the addition of inhaled corticosteroids, which should be titrated to the smallest effective dose while maintaining symptom control.

      While an oral leukotriene-receptor antagonist is suggested as an alternative next step if the patient cannot take inhaled corticosteroids, it is not as effective as inhaled corticosteroids. Oral corticosteroids are not recommended as they have many side effects and are not necessary in this scenario.

      An inhaled long-acting β2 agonist would be appropriate for the third step of treatment, but this patient should move to the second step, which involves inhaled corticosteroids and continuing as required salbutamol. Simply increasing the salbutamol dose would be inappropriate and not in line with guidance. This patient requires both preventer and reliever therapy to effectively manage her asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old female patient comes to you seeking emergency contraception after her condom...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient comes to you seeking emergency contraception after her condom broke last night. She is not currently using any regular form of contraception and is currently on day 20 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. You have discussed the possibility of an intrauterine device, but she has declined. What would be the most suitable course of action among the available options?

      Your Answer: Stat dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      76.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area...

    Correct

    • A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis that began 45...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis that began 45 minutes ago. He has a history of chronic back pain and takes ibuprofen, as well as warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The medical team initiates resuscitation and places two large-bore cannulas. What is the appropriate management for this patient in an acute setting?

      Your Answer: IV proton pump inhibitors and prothrombin complex concentrate

      Correct Answer: IV prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      There is insufficient evidence to support the use of PPIs in stopping bleeding, as in most cases, bleeding ceases without their administration. Administering IV proton pump inhibitors and fresh frozen plasma prior to endoscopy is incorrect, as PPIs should not be given and fresh frozen plasma should only be given to patients with specific blood clotting abnormalities.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.

      For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      66
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with a painless rash on her left leg that has been expanding outwardly in a circular pattern. She mentions that the rash appeared 3 weeks after returning from a hiking trip in the western part of the United States. Lyme disease is confirmed through serological testing, but doxycycline cannot be prescribed due to her pregnancy. What is the best alternative treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      67.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent conjunctivitis in one eye. Despite being treated with chloramphenicol and steroid eye drops, the symptoms did not improve. After three weeks, he visited the eye casualty with a constantly teary, painless, and red right eye. Upon examination, it was found that he had decreased visual acuity and mild proptosis in the affected eye. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Correct Answer: Orbital lymphoma

      Explanation:

      If a patient has chronic unilateral conjunctivitis that is not responding to treatment, it could be a sign of orbital lymphoma.

      Orbital lymphoma typically has a slow onset of symptoms, which is why it is the most appropriate answer in this situation. If the red eye persists despite treatment, it is important to investigate further to rule out any serious underlying conditions. The other options listed are not applicable as they are associated with a painful red eye.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      99.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A previously well 62-year-old bank clerk was seen by her general practitioner (GP),...

    Correct

    • A previously well 62-year-old bank clerk was seen by her general practitioner (GP), complaining of recurrent attacks of dizziness. She complains of recurring attacks of the room spinning around her in a horizontal plane, which is happening on multiple occasions every day. Each attack lasts about 10 seconds and seems to occur whenever she turns in bed, lies down or sits up from the supine position. There are no other associated symptoms. She is taking no medication. Standard neurological examination is normal.
      Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

      Your Answer: Benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of recurrent positional vertigo

      Recurrent positional vertigo is a common complaint that can have various underlying causes. One of the most frequent diagnoses is benign positional paroxysmal vertigo (BPPV), which typically affects middle-aged and older women and is triggered by specific head movements. BPPV is diagnosed based on the patient’s history and confirmed with the Hallpike manoeuvre, which elicits characteristic nystagmus. Treatment options include canalith repositioning manoeuvres and vestibular rehabilitation exercises.

      However, other conditions may mimic BPPV or coexist with it, and therefore a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary. Migraine-associated vertigo is a type of vestibular migraine that can cause brief episodes of vertigo without headache, but usually has a longer duration and is not triggered by positional changes. Posterior circulation ischaemia, which affects the brainstem and cerebellum, can also cause vertigo, but typically presents with other neurological symptoms and has a more acute onset. Postural hypotension, which results from a drop in blood pressure upon standing, can cause dizziness and syncope, but is not usually related to head movements. Labyrinthitis, an inflammation of the inner ear, can cause vertigo and hearing loss, but is not typically triggered by positional changes.

      Therefore, a careful history and physical examination, including a neurological assessment, are essential to differentiate between these conditions and guide appropriate management. In some cases, further testing such as imaging or vestibular function tests may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You assess a 24-year-old female patient who complains of bilateral nasal obstruction, nocturnal...

    Correct

    • You assess a 24-year-old female patient who complains of bilateral nasal obstruction, nocturnal cough, and clear nasal discharge for the past three weeks. She reports experiencing similar symptoms around the same time last year and has a medical history of asthma. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily activities. Proper management involves identifying and avoiding allergens, as well as using medication as prescribed by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe chest pain, scoring 9 out of 10, that began an hour ago. He is a smoker and is currently taking amlodipine for his hypertension. Following an ECG and troponin testing, he is diagnosed with NSTEMI. Using the GRACE score, his predicted 6-month mortality is 2%, and he is not at high risk of bleeding. However, the nearest primary percutaneous intervention unit is over an hour away. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin, ticagrelor and fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      91.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
ENT (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed