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Question 1
Correct
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A 10-month-old infant is brought to the ward following a visit to the emergency department due to seizures. The parents present a video of the contractions that seem to resemble colic. They also express worry about their child's development, noting a change. An EEG and MRI head are conducted, revealing hypsarrhythmia and an abnormality, respectively. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: West's syndrome
Explanation:West’s syndrome is characterized by infantile spasms, which can be mistaken for colic by families. However, it is crucial to recognize that there is an underlying pathology indicated by abnormal EEG and MRI results, with hypsarrhythmia being a classic feature of West’s syndrome. While seizures in babies may resemble infantile colic or pseudo seizures, the presence of abnormal EEG readings confirms a brain pathology. There is no evidence of infection or fever to suggest febrile convulsions. Partial seizures with sensory auras are often associated with temporal lobe seizures.
Understanding Infantile Spasms
Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.
Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.
Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old known type 1 diabetic presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and drowsiness. During the examination, you detect a distinct smell of pear drops on her breath. Despite the severity of her condition, she insists on leaving to attend a friend's birthday party. After discussing the potential consequences of leaving, she appears to comprehend the risks and can articulate her decision. However, her parents believe she should remain for treatment. What course of action should you take?
Your Answer: Make the patient sign a self-discharge form
Correct Answer: Admit the patient for treatment, seeking legal advice if she continues to refuse treatment
Explanation:This person is below the age of 16 but is considered to have the ability to make decisions. As a result, they have the right to consent to treatment without the need for parental approval. However, if they choose to decline treatment, their best interests must be taken into account. In this case, the patient is suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis, and leaving without treatment would likely result in death. Therefore, it would be reasonable to conclude that it is in their best interests to receive treatment.
According to the General Medical Council’s ethical guidelines, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person when it comes to treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, if a child lacks the capacity to consent, parental consent can be relied upon. In Scotland, parents are unable to authorize treatment that a competent young person has refused. In England, Wales, and Northern Ireland, the laws regarding parents overriding a young person’s competent refusal are complex.
When a young person refuses treatment, the harm to their rights must be carefully weighed against the benefits of treatment to make decisions that are in their best interests. This is outlined in paragraphs 30-33 of the GMC’s ethical guidance for individuals aged 0-18 years.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents have recently arrived in the UK from Syria, seeking refuge. She received a Hepatitis B vaccination before leaving Syria.
What other vaccinations should she be provided with now?Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B
Explanation:Paediatric Vaccination Schedule for 2-Month-Old Babies in the UK
The correct vaccination regime for a 2-month-old baby in the UK includes diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B. However, the guidelines have been updated since 2015, and now include pneumococcus (PCV) vaccination at 12 weeks. Meningitis B is vaccinated against at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year, while meningitis C and PCV are vaccinated against at 12 months. Rotavirus and meningitis B are also recommended in the vaccination schedule at 8 weeks old, but meningitis C is not included in this particular regime.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy, with a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), is admitted to the Paediatric Ward due to a fever of 38.9 °C at home. He received his last treatment 1 week ago. His parents report that he has been feeling well, without cough, cold, rash, or vomiting.
Upon examination, his vital signs are stable except for a temperature of 38.4 °C. Physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and blood culture are taken from the portacath, revealing a haemoglobin (Hb) level of 11.5, a white cell count (WCC) of 1.1, neutrophils of 0.2, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 85.
What is the most crucial next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Start iv fluids
Correct Answer: Start intravenous (iv) Tazocin®
Explanation:Management of Febrile Neutropenia in a Child with ALL Receiving Chemotherapy
Febrile neutropenia is a serious complication in cancer patients, particularly those receiving chemotherapy. It is defined as neutropenia with fever or symptoms of significant sepsis. In such cases, immediate initiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics is crucial to prevent mortality.
In this scenario, a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) presents with febrile neutropenia. The first step is to start intravenous Tazocin® monotherapy, pending blood cultures and a thorough physical examination. A urine sample should also be obtained, particularly for children under the age of 5. Chest radiography is only necessary for symptomatic children.
After 48 hours, if the child shows improvement and cultures are negative, empirical antibiotic treatment can be discontinued or switched to oral antibiotics such as Augmentin®. Intravenous fluids may be necessary if the child deteriorates or becomes haemodynamically unstable.
It is also important to send urine and stool samples for microbial culture and sensitivity (MC&S) to investigate sepsis. However, initiating antibiotics should be the first priority.
In summary, febrile neutropenia in cancer patients is a medical emergency that requires prompt initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Close monitoring and appropriate investigations are necessary to ensure timely and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A newborn is delivered via elective Caesarean section at 37 weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension. At two hours of age, the male infant is exhibiting mild intercostal recession and grunting. Oxygen saturations are 95-96% on room air. What is the probable reason for the respiratory distress?
Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a persistent dry cough and difficulty feeding for the past week. Her medical history is unremarkable, but she had a mild fever and coryzal symptoms a week ago. On examination, bilateral wheezing is heard with a respiratory rate of 58/min. However, there are no signs of increased work of breathing and chest expansion is symmetrical. The infant's temperature is 37.6ºC and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Continue observation then discharge with safety-netting advice
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is typically caused by a virus, so antibiotics should not be immediately prescribed. However, if there are signs of secondary bacterial pneumonia or respiratory failure, antibiotics may be considered. It is incorrect to prescribe antibiotics based on a chest X-ray, as this is not a reliable method for determining further treatment. Bronchodilators, like salbutamol inhalers, are not helpful in treating bronchiolitis, especially in children under 1 year old who are unlikely to have viral-induced wheezing.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy with severe haemophilia A is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother due to a nosebleed that has been ongoing for over 30 minutes. He is currently receiving regular injections to manage his condition but is aware that further treatment may be necessary in the event of a significant bleed. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Recombinant factor VIII
Explanation:Treatment Options for Haemophilia A: Recombinant Factor VIII and Desmopressin
Haemophilia A is a genetic condition that results in a deficiency of clotting factor VIII. The severity of the condition varies depending on the level of factor VIII present. Patients with severe haemophilia A or a history of significant bleeds may receive prophylactic recombinant factor VIII to prevent recurrent bleeding and joint damage. In cases of acute bleeding, recombinant factor VIII can be used to stop the bleed. Desmopressin is an option for mild to moderate haemophilia A, but is not effective for severe cases or haemophilia B. Local measures can also be used to minimize bleeding, but the best option for a child with severe haemophilia A experiencing significant epistaxis is to treat with recombinant factor VIII.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 10 week old male infant is presented to the GP by his mother with concerns about an undescended testis on the right side since birth. The mother was advised to seek medical attention if the issue persisted after 6 to 8 weeks of age. Upon examination, the GP confirms the presence of a unilateral undescended testis on the right side, with a normal appearing penis. What would be the next step in management?
Your Answer: Arrange ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Review at 3 months of age
Explanation:If the testicle remains undescended after 3 months, it is recommended to refer the child to a paediatric surgeon for review before they reach 6 months of age, as per the NICE guidelines for undescended testes.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 3-month-old previously healthy boy is brought into the pediatrician's office by his father who is concerned about a change in his behavior. The father suspects his child has a fever. During the examination, the baby is found to have a temperature of 38.5 ºC but no other notable findings.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer: Urgent referral for paediatric assessment at the hospital
Explanation:If a child under 3 months old has a fever above 38ºC, it is considered a high-risk situation and requires urgent assessment. This is a crucial factor to consider when evaluating a child with a fever. The NICE guidelines use a traffic light system to categorize the risk level of children under 5 with a fever, taking into account various factors such as the child’s appearance, activity level, respiratory function, circulation, hydration, and temperature. If the child falls under the green category, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they fall under the amber category, parents should be given advice and provided with a safety net, or the child should be referred for pediatric assessment. Children in the red category must be referred urgently to a pediatric specialist. In children under 3 months with fever, NICE recommends performing various investigations such as blood culture, full blood count, c-reactive protein, urine testing for urinary tract infections, stool culture if diarrhea is present, and chest x-ray if there are respiratory signs. Lumbar puncture should be performed in infants under 1 month old, all infants aged 1-3 months who appear unwell, and infants aged 1-3 months with a white blood cell count (WBC) less than 5 × 109/liter or greater than 15 × 109/liter. NICE also recommends administering parenteral antibiotics to this group of patients.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to you by his parents due to his three-year history of nocturnal enuresis. Despite attempts at toileting, reducing fluid intake before bed, and implementing a reward system, there has been little improvement. The use of an enuresis alarm for the past six months has also been unsuccessful, with the boy still experiencing four to five wet nights per week. Both the parents and you agree that pharmacological intervention is necessary, in addition to the other measures. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment option from the following list?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Explanation:Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 20-days-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a distended abdomen and lethargy. The parents report a decrease in feeding over the past three days and repeated vomiting, with bilious vomit. The infant also had bloody stools this morning but no fever. He was born prematurely at 35 weeks due to premature rupture of membranes but is currently in good health. Based on the probable diagnosis, which investigation should be conducted?
Your Answer: Test feed
Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Explanation:The preferred diagnostic test for necrotising enterocolitis is an abdominal x-ray. This condition, which is a leading cause of death among premature infants, presents with symptoms such as abdominal distension, feeding intolerance, bloody stool, and bilious vomiting. An abdominal x-ray can reveal dilated bowel loops, intramural gas, and portal venous gas. Treatment involves total gut rest and total parenteral nutrition, with laparotomy required for babies with perforations.
Intussusception is diagnosed using abdominal ultrasound, but this is unlikely in this case as the child does not have the characteristic symptoms of paroxysmal abdominal colic pain and red currant jelly stool. Laparotomy is used to investigate perforation, but this is unlikely as the child has no fever. Test feed is used to diagnose pyloric stenosis, but this is also unlikely as the child is presenting with multiple gastrointestinal symptoms. An upper gastrointestinal tract contrast study is used to diagnose malrotation, but this is unlikely as the child was born healthy.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his father. He has been experiencing a dry cough and runny nose for the past 7 days, along with a 6-day history of fevers up to 38.7ºC that have not responded to paracetamol and ibuprofen.
During the examination, the boy appears generally unwell and unhappy. His tongue is bright red, and there is a maculopapular rash on his trunk. Bilateral conjunctival injection is present, but there is no apparent discharge. Additionally, palpable submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed.
What investigation should be utilized to screen for long-term complications, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Urinary albumin:creatinine ratio
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:An echocardiogram should be used to screen for coronary artery aneurysms, which are a complication of Kawasaki disease. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, a child must have a fever for at least 5 days and meet 4 out of 5 diagnostic criteria, including oropharyngeal changes, changes in the peripheries, bilateral non purulent conjunctivitis, polymorphic rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. This disease is the most common cause of acquired cardiac disease in childhood, and it is important to exclude coronary artery aneurysms. Echocardiograms are a noninvasive and appropriate screening modality for this complication, as they do not expose the child to ionising radiation. Antistreptolysin O antibody titres, CT coronary angiogram, and ECG are not appropriate screening modalities for coronary artery aneurysms associated with Kawasaki disease.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old presents with a 5-day history of high fever and coryza. His parents bring him to clinic with a rash that started today on his chest and has now spread to his arms. He has been off his food for the last 48 hours, but his fever has settled. On examination, he is apyrexial. Other vital signs are normal. He is alert and responsive. He has cervical lymphadenopathy, with enlarged red tonsils but no pus. Both tympanic membranes are slightly pink. His chest is clear. He has a pink blanching maculopapular rash to his torso and arms.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Scarlet fever
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Common Childhood Infections and Their Symptoms
Roseola Infantum, Glandular Fever, Parvovirus Infection, Scarlet Fever, and Meningococcal Septicaemia are some of the common childhood infections that parents should be aware of.
Roseola Infantum is caused by herpesvirus 6 and is characterized by high fever lasting for 3-5 days, followed by a rash on the body. Glandular Fever, caused by Epstein-Barr virus, presents with general malaise, sore throat, fever, and abdominal pain. Parvovirus Infection causes erythema infectiosum, with a rash starting on the cheeks and spreading to the limbs. Scarlet Fever, associated with Streptococcus pyogenes, presents with a sandpaper-like rash on the neck, chest, and trunk, and a red, strawberry-like tongue. Meningococcal Septicaemia is characterized by a haemorrhagic, non-blanching rash or purpura found all over the body.
It is important for parents to be aware of the symptoms of these infections and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. She has been experiencing coryza and a fever of 38C for the past 3 days. This morning her father noticed a red rash on both cheeks and pallor surrounding her mouth. What is the most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:The cause of the boy’s symptoms, which include a red rash following coryza and fever, is erythema infectiosum, also known as slapped-cheek syndrome. This infection is caused by parvovirus b19, a common organism responsible for childhood infections.
The table provides information on various childhood infections including chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, erythema infectiosum, scarlet fever, and hand, foot and mouth disease. Each infection has its own unique features such as fever, rash, and systemic upset. Chickenpox starts with fever and an itchy rash that spreads from the head and trunk. Measles has a prodrome of irritability and conjunctivitis, followed by a rash that starts behind the ears and spreads to the whole body. Mumps causes fever, malaise, and parotitis. Rubella has a pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spreads to the whole body, along with suboccipital and postauricular lymphadenopathy. Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, causes lethargy, fever, and a slapped-cheek rash. Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci and causes fever, malaise, tonsillitis, and a rash with fine punctate erythema. Hand, foot and mouth disease causes mild systemic upset, sore throat, and vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is concerned about her growth. He reports that she is not keeping up with her peers in terms of height and weight. The girl has been experiencing smelly diarrhoea around 4-5 times per week and complains of stomach pain.
During the examination, the GP notes that the girl's abdomen is distended and her buttocks appear wasted. Her growth chart shows a drop of 2 centile lines, now placing her on the 10th centile.
Which investigation is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?Your Answer: IgA TTG antibodies
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.
Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.
In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 6-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father. He reports that Samantha has had a fever for 3 days and yesterday developed some ulcers in her mouth. Today, he noticed that there are red spots on Samantha's hands and feet which have now started to worry him.
Which virus is most likely causing Samantha's symptoms?Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Correct Answer: coxsackievirus
Explanation:Hand, foot, and mouth disease is identified by the presence of oral ulcers followed by vesicles on the palms and soles, accompanied by mild systemic upset. The most common cause of this acute viral illness is Coxsackie A16 virus, although other Coxsackie viruses may also be responsible. Enterovirus 71 can also cause this disease, which is more serious. Roseola, a contagious viral infection that primarily affects children between 6 months and 2 years old, is caused by human herpesvirus (HHV) 6. It is characterized by several days of high fever, followed by a distinctive rash. Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is typically caused by parainfluenza virus and produces a distinctive barking cough. Chickenpox, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is highly contagious and results in an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 5-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past day. The baby was born at 38 weeks, induced 48 hours after pre-labor spontaneous rupture of membranes. Following observation, there were no concerns and the baby was discharged. The infant is breastfed every 1-2 hours, but over the past 24 hours, has been less interested in feeding, occurring every 3-4 hours, sometimes being woken to feed. The baby appears uncomfortable during feeding and frequently pulls away. The mother also reports an unusual grunting sound after the baby exhales. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neonatal sepsis
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 3-day-old infant is presenting with increased work of breathing. The baby was born via elective caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. On examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute (normal: 30-60) and an oxygen saturation of 94% (normal: >90%). Nasal flaring is also observed. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflated lung fields and a line of fluid in the horizontal fissure of the left lung. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Supportive care
Explanation:The primary treatment for uncomplicated transient tachypnoea of the newborn is observation and supportive care, which may include oxygen supplementation if necessary. In this case, the symptoms and chest x-ray results suggest a diagnosis of transient tachypnoea of the newborn, which is caused by excess fluid in the lungs due to caesarean delivery. This condition is not life-threatening and can be managed with careful monitoring and appropriate care. Corticosteroids are not recommended for newborns with this condition, and humidified oxygen and nebulised salbutamol are not necessary in this case.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 2-day-old male is brought to the neonatal unit due to bilious vomiting and decreased feeding. He was delivered without complications at 32 weeks gestation. An abdominal X-ray reveals intramural gas, prompting the cessation of oral feeding and initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Necrotising enterocolitis can be identified by the presence of pneumatosis intestinalis on an abdominal X-ray.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to suspected learning difficulties. Whilst talking to her parents, you notice that she has a friendly and sociable personality. You begin to wonder if she might have William's syndrome.
What physical characteristic would be the strongest indicator of this diagnosis?Your Answer: Tall, slender stature
Correct Answer: Elfin facies
Explanation:William’s syndrome is linked to unique physical characteristics such as elfin facies, a broad forehead, strabismus, and short stature. It is important to note that Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by a tall and slender stature. Edward’s syndrome is associated with rocker-bottom feet, while foetal alcohol syndrome is linked to a flattened philtrum. Turner’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome are associated with webbing of the neck. Individuals with William’s syndrome often have an elongated, not flat philtrum.
Understanding William’s Syndrome
William’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects neurodevelopment and is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The condition is characterized by a range of physical and cognitive features, including elfin-like facies, short stature, and learning difficulties. Individuals with William’s syndrome also tend to have a very friendly and social demeanor, which is a hallmark of the condition. Other common symptoms include transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and supravalvular aortic stenosis.
Diagnosis of William’s syndrome is typically made through FISH studies, which can detect the microdeletion on chromosome 7. While there is no cure for the condition, early intervention and support can help individuals with William’s syndrome to manage their symptoms and lead fulfilling lives. With a better understanding of this disorder, we can work towards improving the lives of those affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy is admitted to the ward with difficulty breathing. His mother reports a 3-day illness with cough and cold symptoms, low-grade fever and increasing difficulty breathing this morning. He has had no similar episodes. The family are all non-smokers and there is no history of atopy. His immunisations are up-to-date and he is otherwise growing and developing normally.
In the Emergency Department, he was given burst therapy and is now on one-hourly salbutamol inhalers. On examination, he is alert and playing. Heart rate (HR) 150 bpm, respiratory rate (RR) 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 94% on air. There is mild subcostal recession, and his chest shows good air entry bilaterally, with mild wheeze throughout.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Add Atrovent® nebulisers
Correct Answer: Stretch to 2-hourly salbutamol and add 10 mg soluble prednisone for 3 days
Explanation:Management of Viral-Induced Wheeze in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Viral-induced wheeze is a common presentation of wheeze in preschool children, typically associated with a viral infection. Inhaled b2 agonists are the first line of treatment, given hourly during acute episodes. However, for children with mild symptoms and maintaining saturations above 92%, reducing the frequency of salbutamol to 2-hourly and gradually weaning off may be appropriate. Steroid tablet therapy is recommended for use in hospital settings and early management of asthma symptoms in this age group. It is important to establish a personal and family history of atopy, as a wheeze is more likely to be induced by asthma if it occurs when the child is otherwise well. Oxygen via nasal cannulae is not necessary for mild symptoms. Prednisolone may be added for 3 days with a strong history of atopy, while montelukast is given for 5 days to settle inflammation in children without atopy. Atrovent® nebulisers are not typically used in the treatment of viral-induced wheeze but may be useful in children with atopy history where salbutamol fails to reduce symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department, during the autumn period, with severe dyspnoea at rest. She has been unwell for the past week with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor which are typically worse in the late evening. On examination, intercostal and subdiaphragmatic recessions are noticeable. A chest radiograph shows tapering of the upper trachea.
What is the most probable pathogen responsible for this girl's condition?Your Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:The most likely cause of this patient’s dyspnoea at rest, combined with being generally unwell and the time of year, is croup. Croup is commonly caused by the parainfluenza virus. Bordetella pertussis, Parvovirus B19, and Respiratory syncytial virus are unlikely causes as they present with different symptoms and are associated with different conditions.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy fell off his bike and now has an angled left elbow. His left hand feels cold and there are no detectable brachial, radial, or ulnar pulses. An X-ray of the elbow reveals a displaced humeral supracondylar fracture on the left side (Milch Type 1/Gartland II). What is the most suitable initial course of action?
Your Answer: Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of the fracture
Explanation:Complications and Management of Supracondylar Fractures
Supracondylar fractures can lead to various complications, including vascular and nerve injuries, compartment syndrome, and malunion. Arterial injury is a common complication, occurring in 5% of fractures, and can result from the brachial artery becoming kinked or lacerated. It is important to carefully check and record the distal circulation in the patient’s notes.
Initial management of supracondylar fractures involves providing analgesia and performing an emergency reduction of the fracture to restore the brachial artery’s unkinking and distal blood flow. Displaced fractures are typically treated with percutaneous pinning. However, if blood flow is not restored, a vascular surgeon should perform a surgical exploration of the brachial artery.
Lacerations of the artery can be repaired either primarily with sutures or with a vein graft. It is crucial to address complications promptly to prevent further damage and ensure proper healing. By the potential complications and appropriate management strategies, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care for patients with supracondylar fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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As a doctor working on the paediatric ward, you encounter a 5-year-old patient who has become unresponsive. You call for assistance from another doctor and proceed to open the patient's airway, but the child is not breathing. After giving five rescue breaths, the other doctor checks for a femoral pulse, which is not present. You decide to initiate CPR while waiting for further help to arrive.
What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths and the recommended rate of chest compressions for this child?Your Answer: Chest compressions rate of 100-120/min, ratio of 15:2
Explanation:For both infants and children, the correct rate for chest compressions during paediatric BLS is 100-120/min. A ratio of 15:2 should be used when there are two or more rescuers, while a ratio of 30:2 is used for lay rescuers. It is important to avoid compressions that are too fast, as rates of 120-150/min do not allow enough time for blood to return to the ventricles. Using only one hand, the pressure should be reduced, but the compression rate should remain the same. Rates of 80-100/min are incorrect as they do not provide sufficient blood flow to vital organs.
Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines
Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.
The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.
For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.
In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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At what age is precocious puberty in females defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?
Your Answer: 8 years of age
Explanation:Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of groin pain that has been present for the past two hours. He reports feeling nauseous and has vomited twice. He admits to having unprotected sexual intercourse recently. Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the left testicle and scrotum. The left side lacks the cremaster reflex, and lifting the affected testicle causes more pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular torsion is a condition where the testis twists on the remnant of the processus vaginalis, leading to restricted blood flow. The main symptom is severe testicular pain, which may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The affected testis may also appear swollen and red. The cremaster reflex may be absent on the affected side, and elevating the testicle can worsen the pain.
While the patient had unprotected sex recently, the symptoms are not typical of epididymitis, which usually involves urinary symptoms and relief of pain with testicular elevation (Prehn’s sign positive).Acute Scrotal Disorders in Children: Differential Diagnoses
When a child presents with an acute scrotal problem, it is crucial to rule out testicular torsion as it requires immediate surgical intervention. The most common age for testicular torsion is around puberty. On the other hand, an irreducible inguinal hernia is more common in children under two years old. Epididymitis, which is inflammation of the epididymis, is rare in prepubescent children. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a child with an acute scrotal disorder. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment can prevent serious complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father who reports a 'barking' cough that has occurred a few times daily for the past two days. The child's appetite and behavior remain unchanged. Upon examination, the pediatrician finds no abnormalities. What is the recommended first-line treatment for mild croup?
Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:Regardless of severity, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately for mild croup, which is characterized by a barking cough and the absence of stridor or systemic symptoms.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see you at the General Practice surgery where you are working as a Foundation Year 2 doctor. The daughter had a runny nose and sore throat for the past few days but then developed bright red rashes on both her cheeks. She now has a raised itchy rash on her chest, that has a lace-like appearance, but feels well. She has no known long-term conditions and has been developing normally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Parvovirus infection
Explanation:Common Skin Rashes and Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics
Parvovirus Infection: Also known as ‘slapped cheek syndrome’, this mild infection is characterized by a striking appearance. However, it can lead to serious complications in immunocompromised patients or those with sickle-cell anaemia or thalassaemia.
Pityriasis Rosea: This rash starts with an oval patch of scaly skin and is followed by small, scaly patches that spread across the body.
Impetigo: A superficial infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, impetigo results in fluid-filled blisters or sores that burst and leave a yellow crust.
Scarlet Fever: This rash is blotchy and rough to the touch, typically starting on the chest or abdomen. Patients may also experience headache, sore throat, and high temperature.
Urticaria: This itchy, raised rash is caused by histamine release due to an allergic reaction, infection, medications, or temperature changes. It usually settles within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?
Your Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes
Explanation:When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children
Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:
– Children aged less than 18 months
– Diagnostic uncertainty
– Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
– Focal features during the seizure
– Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
– Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
– No focus of infection identified
– Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
– Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infectionIt is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric emergency department by her father. She has been very fussy for the past 6 hours, crying out every 20 minutes, and her father suspects she is in pain. She has vomited twice during this time, and her father noticed a red jelly-like substance in her diaper 2 hours ago. The little girl is very uncooperative during examination and refuses to let anyone touch her abdomen. Her vital signs show a mild tachycardia, but no fever is present. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to determine the cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Explanation:Intussusception is best diagnosed through ultrasound. Given the boy’s symptoms, an urgent abdominal ultrasound is necessary to rule out this condition. While a complete blood count may provide some general information, it is not specific to any particular diagnosis. An abdominal X-ray can confirm the presence of intestinal obstruction, but it cannot identify the underlying cause, which is crucial in this case. CT scans should generally be avoided in young children due to the high levels of radiation they emit.
Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.
In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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