00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his symptoms through dietary changes alone. He is primarily bothered by abdominal discomfort and bloating.
      What is the most suitable next step in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Mebeverine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. The condition is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Management of IBS involves psychological support, dietary measures, and pharmacological treatment for symptom relief.

      Antispasmodics, such as mebeverine hydrochloride, are commonly used to alleviate pain and bloating in IBS patients. Loperamide is the first choice of antimotility agent for diarrhea, while laxatives are recommended for constipation. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, are considered a second-line treatment option for IBS patients who do not respond to other medications. However, the use of opioids, such as tramadol, is not recommended due to the risk of constipation, dependence, and tolerance.

      In conclusion, pharmacological management of IBS should be tailored to the individual patient’s symptoms and needs, with a focus on providing relief from pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. Regular review and adjustment of medication dosages are necessary to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of occasional abdominal distension...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of occasional abdominal distension and bloating, which varies with her menstrual cycle and is accompanied by episodes of constipation. She works as a teacher and finds work stressful; she has previously taken a course of sertraline for depression/anxiety. On examination, bloods and colonoscopy are normal.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

      Explanation:

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal disorder that causes abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits without any identifiable organic pathology. It is more common in women and can be worsened by stress and the perimenstrual period. Diagnosis is made by ruling out other potential causes of symptoms. Management includes dietary changes, such as increasing fiber intake and avoiding trigger foods, as well as psychological support. Medications may also be used to alleviate symptoms. This patient’s symptoms are not consistent with chronic pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis, peptic ulcer disease, or diverticulitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      92.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is the primary test that should be employed for screening individuals with coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, the initial serological test for coeliac disease should be tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old man with Crohn's disease visits his primary care physician complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with Crohn's disease visits his primary care physician complaining of discomfort in the area around his anus. He mentions the presence of malodorous pus when he cleans himself. During the examination, a draining opening is observed on his perineum. A digital rectal exam confirms the diagnosis of a perianal fistula. What imaging modality is the best option for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI pelvis

      Explanation:

      When investigating suspected perianal fistulae in patients with Crohn’s disease, MRI is the preferred imaging modality. This is because an MRI can accurately map out the extent and track of the fistula, as well as identify any associated abscesses or other fistulas. As perianal fistulas are a soft tissue pathology, an MRI pelvis is the most effective way to visualize them. Barium enema is not reliable for imaging small structures like fistulas, while CT pelvis may potentially identify fistulas but is less sensitive and accurate than MRI. Endo-anal ultrasound may be used for some perianal fistulas, but given the likelihood of complex fistulas in Crohn’s disease, MRI is the preferred option. Additionally, MRI is preferable in adults of reproductive age to avoid unnecessary radiation exposure to the reproductive organs.

      Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.

      To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of acute rectal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of acute rectal pain. He has a 2-month history of perianal pain and bright red rectal bleeding at the time of defaecation. He has been taking regular codeine for the past six months for low back pain.
      On examination, there is a thrombosed haemorrhoid visible externally. It is impossible to proceed with digital rectal examination because the patient is in too much pain.
      What is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most likely option.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thrombosed Haemorrhoids

      Thrombosed haemorrhoids can cause severe pain and discomfort. The best treatment option in the acute phase is evacuation of the clot through incision and drainage. This provides immediate relief from the pain. Rubber-band ligation and injection sclerotherapy are effective outpatient treatments for haemorrhoids, but they are not used in the acute setting. Stool softeners should be prescribed to prevent constipation, which is the main cause of haemorrhoids. Topical treatments containing multiple ingredients, including corticosteroids, may help relieve symptoms but are not useful in treating the acute pain of a thrombosed haemorrhoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant for the past two days. He reports feeling like he has the flu and his wife mentions that he has had a fever for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 38.1ÂșC, blood pressure at 100/60 mmHg, and pulse at 102/min. He experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant and his sclera have a yellowish tint. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice, and pain in the right upper quadrant indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which is commonly associated with ascending cholangitis. This combination of symptoms is not typically seen in cases of acute cholecystitis.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - As a foundation doctor in the surgical assessment unit, you assess a sixty-three-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor in the surgical assessment unit, you assess a sixty-three-year-old man presenting with jaundice. During examination, you detect a mass in the right upper quadrant, but no other significant findings are present. The patient denies any history of foreign travel and is a non-drinker. Additionally, tests for hepatitis come back negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gallbladder malignancy

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an enlarged gallbladder that is not tender and is accompanied by painless jaundice, it is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. Instead, it is important to consider the possibility of malignancy. Therefore, further investigation should be done to check for malignancy of the gallbladder or pancreas, as either of these conditions could lead to biliary obstruction, resulting in a mass and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a diagnosis of primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). She initially complained of abdominal pain and itching, but is now asymptomatic except for significant fatigue. What medication should be prescribed for this patient? Choose the most likely option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a liver disease that can lead to cirrhosis if left untreated. Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) is the main treatment for PBC, as it can prevent or delay the development of cirrhosis. UDCA increases bile flow, inhibits toxic bile acid production, prevents hepatocyte apoptosis, and reduces the liver’s immune response. However, UDCA may cause side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and thinning hair.

      Spironolactone is a diuretic that can be useful for end-stage liver disease with ascites, but it is not indicated for treating fatigue in PBC patients. Aspirin and ibuprofen should be avoided by PBC patients, as they can worsen liver disease. Cholestyramine is used for cholestatic itching, but it should not be taken with UDCA as it can prevent UDCA absorption.

      In summary, UDCA is the primary treatment for PBC, and other medications should be used with caution and only for specific symptoms or complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis visits his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a 4-day history of a feeling of rectal fullness, tenesmus, diarrhoea with small, frequent stools and mucus, and rectal bleeding. He denies systemic symptoms. He is not sexually active. Physical examination is unremarkable. The GP thinks a diagnosis of inflammatory exacerbation of proctitis is likely and contacts the local Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBM) specialist nurse for advice.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Per-rectal administration of aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Proctitis: Aminosalicylates, Topical Corticosteroids, and More

      Proctitis, an inflammation of the rectal mucosa, can be caused by various factors such as radiation, infections, autoimmune diseases, and trauma. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, pain, and diarrhea. To manage proctitis, aminosalicylates in the form of enemas or suppositories are often used as first-line therapy to reduce inflammation and relieve symptoms. Topical corticosteroids are less effective but can be used in patients who cannot tolerate aminosalicylates. Oral prednisolone is a second-line therapy for ulcerative colitis. Ibuprofen is not recommended, and codeine phosphate and loperamide may aggravate symptoms. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and severity of proctitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - At a practice meeting, you are discussing strategies to increase the rate of...

    Incorrect

    • At a practice meeting, you are discussing strategies to increase the rate of early cancer detection. Which of the following patients is most likely to need screening for hepatocellular carcinoma, given that they are 50 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks as the third most common cause of cancer worldwide. The leading cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the most common cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B and C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

      HCC tends to present late, and patients may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, decompensation may occur in patients with chronic liver disease. Raised AFP levels are also common. Screening with ultrasound and alpha-fetoprotein may be necessary for high-risk groups, including patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B and C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol.

      Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. It is important to note that Wilson’s disease is an exception to the typical causes of liver cirrhosis and HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Passmed