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  • Question 1 - At a multidisciplinary meeting, the nutritional concerns of a 70-year-old patient on the...

    Incorrect

    • At a multidisciplinary meeting, the nutritional concerns of a 70-year-old patient on the oncology ward are being discussed. The patient is currently undergoing chemotherapy and radiotherapy for pancreatic cancer and has been experiencing a significant decrease in appetite and body mass index, which now sits at 17 kg/m². Nurses have reported that the patient has not been eating meals. The dietician team suggests discussing the risks and benefits of parenteral nutrition before involving the patient's family. This form of nutrition is expected to continue for the next few weeks. Which blood vessel would be suitable for administering parenteral nutrition?

      Your Answer: External jugular vein

      Correct Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition must be administered through a central vein due to its high phlebitic nature. This type of nutrition is considered full nutrition and should only be given for more than 10 days. If it is only used to supplement enteral feeding or for a short period, peripheral parenteral nutrition may be an option. The reason for using a central vein is that TPN is hypertonic to blood and has a high osmolality, which can increase the risk of phlebitis. Central veins are larger, have higher flow rates, and fewer valves than peripheral veins, making them more suitable for TPN administration. The subclavian vein is an example of a central vein that can be used for this purpose. The external jugular veins, hepatic portal vein, superior mesenteric artery, and pulmonary arteries are not appropriate for TPN administration.

      Nutrition Options for Surgical Patients

      When it comes to providing nutrition for surgical patients, there are several options available. The easiest and most common option is oral intake, which can be supplemented with calorie-rich dietary supplements. However, this may not be suitable for all patients, especially those who have undergone certain procedures.

      nasogastric feeding is another option, which involves administering feed through a fine bore nasogastric feeding tube. While this method may be safe for patients with impaired swallow, there is a risk of aspiration or misplaced tube. It is also usually contra-indicated following head injury due to the risks associated with tube insertion.

      Naso jejunal feeding is a safer alternative as it avoids the risk of feed pooling in the stomach and aspiration. However, the insertion of the feeding tube is more technically complicated and is easiest if done intra-operatively. This method is safe to use following oesophagogastric surgery.

      Feeding jejunostomy is a surgically sited feeding tube that may be used for long-term feeding. It has a low risk of aspiration and is thus safe for long-term feeding following upper GI surgery. However, there is a risk of tube displacement and peritubal leakage immediately following insertion, which carries a risk of peritonitis.

      Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy is a combined endoscopic and percutaneous tube insertion method. However, it may not be technically possible in patients who cannot undergo successful endoscopy. Risks associated with this method include aspiration and leakage at the insertion site.

      Finally, total parenteral nutrition is the definitive option for patients in whom enteral feeding is contra-indicated. However, individualised prescribing and monitoring are needed, and it should be administered via a central vein as it is strongly phlebitic. Long-term use is associated with fatty liver and deranged LFTs.

      In summary, there are several nutrition options available for surgical patients, each with its own benefits and risks. The choice of method will depend on the patient’s individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Given her age and first episode of psychosis, what crucial investigation is necessary to rule out other potential underlying causes?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      When elderly patients present with sudden onset psychosis, it is important to consider and rule out organic causes before attributing it to a primary psychotic disorder. In such cases, a CT head scan or even an MRI should be considered to detect any underlying organic causes such as a brain tumour, stroke or CNS infection. While HbA1c is typically used to assess diabetes control, PET scans are more commonly used to provide detailed information about metabolic processes in tissues, such as identifying active cancer cells. Chest X-rays may also be useful in certain cases.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus

      Correct Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen

      The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.

      Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
      Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladder

      The fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.

      Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleen

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery

      The origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
      Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.

      Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
      Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the left

      At the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 64-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for follow-up after his...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old male presents to his primary care physician for follow-up after his blood pressure was found to be elevated during his routine check-up. He has a medical history of heart failure, asthma, and type 2 diabetes. His current medications include lisinopril, salbutamol inhaler, atorvastatin, and metformin. His home blood pressure readings over the past two weeks have averaged 156/92 mmHg. As a result, his doctor recommends adding another medication to his treatment plan to manage his hypertension. What is the most suitable medication for this patient's new diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Felodipine

      Explanation:

      For a patient with hypertension, heart failure, diabetes, and asthma, the most appropriate management option is a calcium channel blocker, such as felodipine. Dihydropyridines, like amlodipine, are preferred over non-dihydropyridines, like verapamil, as they are less likely to exacerbate heart failure. Verapamil should be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect, which can reduce cardiac output, slow the heart rate, and increase the risk of impaired AV conduction. Bisoprolol is not recommended for asthmatic patients, and beta-blockers are a fourth-line option for hypertension. Furosemide and spironolactone are third and fourth-line options, respectively, and should only be used after calcium channel blockers have been tried. Verapamil should not be used in patients with heart failure and other comorbidities.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.3
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and metabolic bone disease are detected during investigations. A small intestine biopsy reveals severe villous atrophy, particularly in the proximal segments. The patient responds well to a gluten-free diet for one year, but her symptoms return despite maintaining the diet. A repeat biopsy shows changes similar to the previous one. What condition should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer: T-cell intestinal lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Non-Responsive Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease, also known as gluten-sensitive enteropathy, is associated with specific human leukocyte antigen subtypes. The hallmark of this disease is the disappearance of clinical features and intestinal histologic findings upon discontinuing gluten in the diet. However, in cases where patients who were previously responding well to a gluten-free diet stop responding, the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma, a complication of coeliac disease, should be strongly considered.

      Other conditions, such as tropical sprue, dermatitis herpetiformis, collagenous sprue, and refractory sprue, may also present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction. Tropical sprue does not respond to gluten restriction, while dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease associated with coeliac disease and does not cause failure of response to a gluten-free diet. Collagenous sprue is characterized by the presence of a collagen layer beneath the basement membrane and does not respond to a gluten-free diet. Refractory sprue, on the other hand, is a subset of coeliac disease where patients do not respond to gluten restriction and may require glucocorticoids or restriction of soy products.

      In conclusion, when a patient with coeliac disease stops responding to a gluten-free diet, it is important to consider the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma and differentiate it from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the impact of cyclo-oxygenase inhibition on the physiological changes that occur...

    Incorrect

    • What is the impact of cyclo-oxygenase inhibition on the physiological changes that occur within the first 48 hours after birth?

      Your Answer: Maintains patency of ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Promotes ductus arteriosus closure

      Explanation:

      The Role of Prostaglandins in Fetal Circulation

      In fetal life, the ductus arteriosus plays a crucial role in transmitting blood from the pulmonary trunk to the arch of the aorta. Prostaglandins are necessary to maintain the patency of the ductus arteriosus by vasodilating it. However, at birth, the increase in arterial oxygen tension leads to a decrease in prostaglandin production, causing the ductus arteriosus to constrict and eventually fibrose over 24-48 hours.

      In cases where the ductus arteriosus needs to be closed artificially, such as in patent ductus arteriosus, cyclo-oxygenase inhibitors like indomethacin are administered to reduce prostaglandin levels. On the other hand, some congenital cardiac defects rely on the patency of the ductus arteriosus to maintain systemic circulation, and prostaglandin infusions are given to keep the duct open.

      After birth, right side heart pressures decrease due to a reduction in pulmonary resistance, leading to the closure of the foramen ovale. Additionally, surfactant production is dependent on corticosteroid levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.3
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old mother comes to see her GP. She had given birth to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old mother comes to see her GP. She had given birth to her child 8 weeks ago. She is feeling upset and tearful, explaining that motherhood is not what she expected. She is experiencing poor quality of sleep, loss of appetite, and feelings of guilt. She has not mentioned any thoughts of suicide. What screening tool should be used for this patient?

      Your Answer: GAD7

      Correct Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      To screen for postnatal depression, healthcare professionals can use the Edinburgh Scale questionnaire. Patients displaying symptoms of depression after giving birth should be assessed using either the Edinburgh Scale or the PHQ-9 form, according to NICE guidelines. The severity of anxiety can be measured using the GAD 7 questionnaire. The Bishop score is a scoring system used to determine if induction of labor is necessary.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.8
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with constipation that has worsened...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with constipation that has worsened over the past six weeks. She reports straining during defecation. She has a feeling of incomplete evacuation. She has two children who were born via vaginal delivery without history of tears. She has had bladder suspension surgery. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-distended without palpable masses.
      On digital rectal examination, she has an empty rectum. Her resting anal tone is weak but her squeeze tone is normal. She does not relax the puborectalis muscle or the external anal sphincter when simulating defecation; she also has 4-cm perineal descent with straining.
      What is the most appropriate investigation to carry out next?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance defecography

      Explanation:

      Magnetic resonance defecography is the most appropriate investigation for a patient with abnormal pelvic floor muscle tone, perineal descent, and symptoms of incomplete evacuation during defecation. This test evaluates global pelvic floor anatomy and dynamic motion, identifying prolapse, rectocele, and pelvic floor dysfunctions. Other tests, such as abdominal ultrasound, barium enema, colonoscopy, and CT abdomen, may not provide sufficient information on the underlying pathology of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast that has appeared suddenly over the past month. She is very concerned about it and describes it as being located below the nipple. Additionally, she has noticed mild tenderness to the lump. She cannot recall any triggers or trauma that may have caused it. During the examination, a well-defined, 2 cm mobile mass is palpated in the left breast. There is no skin discoloration or discharge present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenosis

      Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      If a female under 30 years old has a lump that is non-tender, discrete, and mobile, it is likely a fibroadenoma. This type of lump can sometimes be tender. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is more common in older women and is described as painful and lumpy, especially around menstruation. Ductal carcinoma is also more common in older women and can present with a painless lump, nipple changes, nipple discharge, and changes in the skin’s contour. Fat necrosis lumps tend to be hard and irregular, while an abscess would show signs of inflammation such as redness, fever, and pain.

      Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.

      Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain on both sides and experiencing deep pain during intercourse. She confesses to having unprotected sex while on vacation in Spain. During the examination, her temperature is found to be 37.9°C. Bimanual examination reveals adnexal tenderness, and speculum examination shows mucopurulent cervical discharge. What is the best choice of antibiotic treatment?

      Your Answer: Penicillin IM then oral doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone IM then oral metronidazole and doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and its Causes

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that is consistent with the patient’s history. According to guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH), triple antibiotic therapy is the recommended treatment for PID. However, in pregnant patients, doxycycline is contraindicated and is substituted with erythromycin.

      There are several possible causes of PID, including endogenous vaginal flora, aerobic Streptococci, C. trachomatis, and N. gonorrhoeae. These microorganisms can cause inflammation of the female reproductive organs, leading to PID. It is important to identify the cause of PID to ensure appropriate treatment and prevent complications such as infertility and chronic pelvic pain. By the causes of PID, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent its occurrence and provide effective treatment to those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a fall at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a fall at home. He reports tripping over a rug and landing on his left knee, resulting in an audible crack and severe pain. The patient is unable to bear weight on the affected leg and experiences swelling and discoloration. Upon examination, the left knee is found to have significant haemarthrosis and limited range of motion due to pain. However, the patient is able to perform a straight leg raise successfully. Radiographs reveal a non-displaced patella fracture with joint effusion. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's knee injury?

      Your Answer: Surgical management - open reduction, internal fixation (ORIF)

      Correct Answer: Conservative management with knee immobilisation

      Explanation:

      Non-displaced patella fractures with an intact extensor mechanism can be treated without surgery by immobilizing the joint in extension. Arthroscopy may be necessary for ligamentous or meniscal damage and recurrent patella dislocations, but surgical reconstruction is not required. Pain relief and reassurance should be provided after immobilization to allow for proper healing. ORIF is only necessary in cases of extensor mechanism failure, open fractures, or fracture displacement. Partial patellectomy is reserved for patients with large comminuted patella fractures where ORIF is not feasible to preserve as much of the patella as possible.

      Understanding Patella Fractures

      The patella is a small bone located in the knee joint that plays a crucial role in the extensor mechanism of the knee. It is a sesamoid bone that develops within the quadriceps tendon and protects the knee from physical trauma. The patella increases the efficiency of the quadriceps tendon by increasing its distance from the center of rotation of the knee joint.

      Patella fractures can occur due to direct or indirect injury. Direct injury usually follows a direct blow or trauma to the front of the knee, while indirect injury happens when the quadriceps forcefully contracts against a block to knee extension. Clinical features of patella fractures include swelling, bruising, pain, tenderness, and a palpable gap.

      Plain films are usually sufficient to diagnose patella fractures, with a minimum of two views required. Undisplaced fractures with an intact extensor mechanism can be managed non-operatively in a hinged knee brace for 6 weeks, while displaced fractures and those with loss of extensor mechanisms should be considered for operative management.

      It is important to consider the entire extensor mechanism of the knee and the posterior surface of the patella when dealing with patella fractures, as any disruption of the patellofemoral joint may lead to secondary osteoarthritis down the line. Proper diagnosis and management of patella fractures can help prevent long-term complications and ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      66.8
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  • Question 12 - Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding that has been progressively worsening over the past year. She also complains of severe period pain that typically starts a few days before each menstrual cycle. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 28 days. Lila states she has not been sexually active for the past year and is not taking any regular medications. She has two children, both born via vaginal delivery without any complications. Upon abdominal examination, no abnormalities are noted, and a speculum examination reveals a normal cervix. You decide to order a full blood count. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request a transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with menorrhagia along with pelvic pain, abnormal exam findings, or intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, it is recommended to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound. According to the NICE guidelines, a transvaginal ultrasound should be preferred over a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI for women with significant dysmenorrhoea or a bulky, tender uterus on examination that suggests adenomyosis.

      In the case of Lila, who is experiencing new menorrhagia and significant dysmenorrhoea, a transvaginal ultrasound is necessary. If a transvaginal ultrasound is not possible, a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI can be considered, but the limitations of these techniques should be explained.

      For women without identified pathology, fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, the first-line treatment recommended by the guideline is a levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS). While this may be an appropriate treatment for Lila, the initial next step should be to arrange for a transvaginal ultrasound to investigate further. At this stage, there are no red flags in Lila’s history or examination that warrant an urgent referral to gynaecology.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman is experiencing a difficult separation from her spouse. She presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is experiencing a difficult separation from her spouse. She presents with a 2-week history of increasing headaches that are affecting her entire head. The headaches worsen when she strains. She is also experiencing more frequent nausea. Although she is neurologically intact, there is slight papilloedema noted on fundoscopy. Other than that, her examination is unremarkable. In her medical history, she had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her calf when she was in her 30s, for which she received 6 months of treatment. She has not taken any significant medications recently. A non-contrast CT scan of her brain is performed and comes back normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Venous Sinus Thrombosis from Other Headache Causes

      Venous sinus thrombosis is a condition where one or more dural venous sinuses in the brain become blocked by a blood clot. This can cause a subacute headache with nausea and vomiting, along with signs of increased intracranial pressure. Diagnosis requires a high level of suspicion and imaging with contrast-enhanced CT venogram or MRI with MR venography. Treatment with heparin can improve outcomes, but specialist input is necessary if there has been haemorrhagic infarction. Other conditions that can cause headaches, such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, tension headache, and encephalitis, have different presentations and require different diagnostic approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that is usually caused by a viral infection. Antibiotics are not necessary in most cases as they are only effective against bacterial infections. Changing formula feeds is also not recommended as it may cause further digestive problems. However, if the child is unable to tolerate oral fluids, intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary to prevent dehydration.

      Lactose intolerance is a common occurrence in children with gastroenteritis, but it is not inevitable. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and adjust their diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis as they are more commonly used to diagnose structural abnormalities in the digestive system.

      In summary, the management of gastroenteritis in children involves providing supportive care such as oral rehydration therapy and monitoring for signs of dehydration. Antibiotics are not necessary unless there is a bacterial infection present. It is important to be aware of the possibility of lactose intolerance and adjust the child’s diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of intense itching on the soles of her hands and feet, particularly at night, which is disrupting her sleep. Due to abnormal liver function tests (LFTs), she is referred to the obstetric team. The team prescribes medication that greatly alleviates her pruritus symptoms.
      What is the probable medication that the obstetric team has prescribed to this patient based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Ursodeoxycholic acid is the recommended initial medical treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. The patient’s symptoms and abnormal liver function tests, along with her pregnancy status, suggest obstetric cholestasis. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends ursodeoxycholic acid to alleviate pruritus and improve liver function in women with obstetric cholestasis. Cetirizine is not effective for pruritic symptoms during pregnancy, while cholestyramine is the preferred treatment for cholestatic pruritus but is not typically used for obstetric cholestasis. Dexamethasone is not the first-line therapy for obstetric cholestasis. Rifampicin may be used as an alternative treatment for pruritus, but caution should be exercised in patients with pre-existing liver disease due to potential hepatotoxicity, and it is not indicated for obstetric cholestasis.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - You are a GP seeing a 38-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You are a GP seeing a 38-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with premature menopause and is experiencing night sweats and hot flashes. After discussing her options, she agrees to start hormone replacement therapy. She asks you what the recommended duration of treatment is.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should continue HRT until the age of 50

      Explanation:

      For women experiencing premature menopause, it is recommended to continue taking HRT until the age of 50. Premature menopause is diagnosed through blood tests, specifically an elevated FSH on two separate occasions. According to the 2019 NICE guidelines, starting HRT or a combined hormonal contraceptive and continuing treatment until natural menopause (unless there are contraindications) can reduce the risk of chronic diseases such as cardiovascular disease and osteoporosis. HRT may also have a positive impact on blood pressure compared to combined hormonal contraceptives, and both options can provide bone protection.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old G1P0 woman is brought to the hospital at 39 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old G1P0 woman is brought to the hospital at 39 weeks of gestation by her husband because she is experiencing strong uterine contractions. She delivers a healthy baby with an Apgar score of 8, 5 min after birth. However, she experiences significant bleeding with an estimated blood loss of six litres and is hypotensive with a BP of 60/24 mmHg despite aggressive resuscitation. The placenta appears to be adherent to the uterine wall and the surgeons are unable to separate it. It is noted that she was treated with ceftriaxone for a gonococcal infection 5 years ago, although she had lower abdominal pain for some time after.
      What is the definitive treatment for this patient’s present condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from placenta accreta, a pregnancy complication where the placenta attaches to the myometrium wall. This condition is often caused by past Caesarean sections, Asherman syndrome, or pelvic inflammatory disease, which the patient had due to a previous infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae. To prevent co-transmission with Chlamydia trachomatis, doxycycline is given with a third-generation cephalosporin. The patient’s placenta accreta is likely due to scarring from pelvic inflammatory disease, and a total hysterectomy may be necessary if the patient’s condition worsens. While the patient may require a large blood transfusion, immediate transfusion is not the definitive treatment. Oxytocin may be used as a first-line treatment, but a hysterectomy is the definitive treatment if bleeding persists. Phenylephrine, a vasoconstrictor, may decrease bleeding but is not a definitive treatment for placenta accreta. Dinoprostone, a prostaglandin E2 analogue, is not indicated for placenta accreta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 18 - With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated? ...

    Incorrect

    • With which condition are hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of thyroid

      Explanation:

      Sipple Syndrome (MEN 2A)

      Sipple syndrome, also known as Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 2A, is a group of endocrine disorders that occur together in the same patient and are typically inherited. This syndrome is caused by a defect in a gene that controls the normal growth of endocrine tissues. As a result, individuals with Sipple syndrome may develop bilateral medullary carcinoma or C cell hyperplasia, phaeochromocytoma, and hyperparathyroidism.

      Sipple syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, which means that if a person has the defective gene, they have a 50% chance of passing it on to their offspring. This syndrome affects both males and females equally, and the peak incidence of medullary carcinoma in these patients is typically in their 30s.

      In summary, Sipple syndrome is a rare inherited disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands. It is important for individuals with a family history of this syndrome to undergo genetic testing and regular screenings to detect any potential tumors or abnormalities early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with severe Raynaud's phenomenon and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with severe Raynaud's phenomenon and finger arthralgia. Upon examination, you observe tight and shiny skin on her fingers, as well as several telangiectasia on her upper torso and face. She is also awaiting a gastroscopy for heartburn investigation. Which antibody is the most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most specific test for limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis among patients with systemic sclerosis is the anti-centromere antibodies.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old patient is attending her routine check-up at the general practice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient is attending her routine check-up at the general practice. She was prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder two years ago and reports a new symptom. The doctor suspects lithium toxicity. What might the patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyuria

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is a symptom of lithium toxicity, which can also cause renal dysfunction, hypothyroidism, and benign intracranial hypertension (BIH). To monitor for toxicity, lithium serum levels should be tested regularly, along with renal function, thyroid function, calcium levels, and body weight. Abdominal discomfort is a common side effect of lithium but does not necessarily indicate toxicity. Fatigue is a common symptom in people with bipolar disorder, but it is not a reported symptom of lithium toxicity. While a fine tremor is an expected finding in people taking lithium, a coarse tremor may indicate toxicity and should prompt testing of lithium-serum levels.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum check-up. She did not...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum check-up. She did not breastfeed and had a normal delivery. She wants to begin using contraception but is worried about any potential delay in her ability to conceive again within the next 1-2 years. What factor is most likely to cause a delay in her return to normal fertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only injectable contraception

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic for counselling about Down syndrome screening, as her sister has the genetic condition. After discussing the various tests with her, she decides to opt for the earliest possible diagnostic test that will tell her whether her baby has Down syndrome.
      What is the test that you are most likely to advise her to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

      Expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their developing baby. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a diagnostic procedure that can be done from 11 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities. The risk of miscarriage is low, at 0.7% within 14 days and 1.3% within 30 days. Amniocentesis is another diagnostic option that can be done from 15 weeks, with a slightly lower risk of miscarriage at 0.6%.

      Anomaly scans are typically done at 18-21 weeks to check for any physical abnormalities in the baby, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. The nuchal translucency test, combined with blood tests, is a screening test that can determine the individual’s risk for certain chromosomal abnormalities. The quadruple blood test is another screening option that measures various hormones and proteins to assess the risk of certain conditions.

      Overall, expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their baby. It is important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual pregnancy.

      Understanding Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant visits you for her booking...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant visits you for her booking appointment. She has a brother with Down syndrome and wants to know more about the screening program. You provide information about the combined test. What other blood markers, in addition to nuchal translucency, are measured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 24 - A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman complains of feeling down, having low energy, and losing interest in activities. She has been experiencing poor sleep for the past 2 weeks and has had no appetite. Her physician prescribes mirtazapine. What category of medications does mirtazapine fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      By blocking alpha2 adrenoreceptors, mirtazapine increases the release of neurotransmitters and functions as a noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant.

      Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects

      Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.

      Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.

      Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man is prescribed duloxetine for a major depressive episode after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is prescribed duloxetine for a major depressive episode after having no response to citalopram or fluoxetine.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly added drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of duloxetine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a member of the antidepressant class known as serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors. When selecting an antidepressant, patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost are all factors to consider. SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio and comparable efficacy to other antidepressants.

      Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors

      Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.

      Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.

      Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old primiparous woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at 12 weeks’...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primiparous woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at 12 weeks’ gestation and attended for her nuchal scan. She is currently on insulin treatment. Her HbA1c at booking was 34 mmol/mol (recommended at pregnancy < 48 mmol/mol).
      What is the most appropriate antenatal care for pregnant women with pre-existing diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Women with diabetes should be seen in the Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy

      Managing diabetes in pregnancy requires close monitoring to reduce the risk of maternal and fetal complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for healthcare professionals to follow when caring for women with diabetes during pregnancy.

      Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic Visits

      Women with diabetes should be seen in a Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy. This ensures that any problems are addressed promptly and appropriately.

      Serial Fetal Scanning

      Women with diabetes should be offered serial fetal scanning from 26 weeks’ gestation every four weeks. This helps to monitor and prevent complications such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, stillbirth, and congenital anomalies.

      Delivery by Induction of Labour or Caesarean Section

      Women with diabetes should be advised to deliver by induction of labour or Caesarean section between 38 and 39+6 weeks’ gestation. This is because diabetes is associated with an increased risk of stillbirth, and the risk is managed by inducing labour when the pregnancy reaches term.

      Induction at 41+6 Weeks’ Gestation

      Women with diabetes who do not opt for an elective induction or a Caesarean section between 37+0 to 38+6 weeks’ gestation and wish to await spontaneous labour should be warned of the risks of stillbirth and neonatal complications. In cases of prolonged pregnancy, the patient should be offered induction by, at most, 40+6 weeks’ gestation.

      Retinal Assessment

      All women with pre-existing diabetes should be offered retinal assessment at 16–20 weeks’ gestation. If initial screening is normal, then they are offered a second retinal screening test at 28 weeks’ gestation. If the booking retinal screening is abnormal, then a repeat retinal screening test is offered to these women earlier than 28 weeks, usually between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is presented to his pediatrician for a routine check-up. The pediatrician observes that the neonate's urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, instead of the distal glans penis. What other congenital anomaly is this neonate more likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is often accompanied by cryptorchidism in neonates, indicating a potential issue with embryological urogenital migration that may be linked to endocrine disruptions during pregnancy, such as low serum androgens. Imperforate anus, obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus, and posterior urethral valve are not associated with hypospadias and would present with different symptoms or complications.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl where he was stabbed....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl where he was stabbed. He has a stab wound on the left side of his chest, specifically the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. His blood pressure (BP) is 70 mmHg systolic, his heart sounds are muffled, and his jugular veins are distended, with a prominent x descent and an absent y descent.
      What is the most appropriate way to characterize the boy's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beck’s triad

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Terminology: Beck’s Triad, Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy, Virchow’s Triad, Cushing Syndrome, and Kussmaul’s Sign

      Beck’s Triad: A combination of muffled or distant heart sounds, low systolic blood pressure, and distended neck veins. This triad is associated with cardiac tamponade.

      Takotsubo Cardiomyopathy: A non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy triggered by emotional stress, resulting in sudden weakening or dysfunction of a portion of the myocardium. It is also known as broken heart syndrome.

      Virchow’s Triad: A triad that includes hypercoagulability, endothelial/vessel wall injury, and stasis. These factors contribute to a risk of thrombosis.

      Cushing Syndrome: A condition caused by prolonged use of corticosteroids, resulting in signs and symptoms such as hypertension and central obesity. However, low blood pressure is not a typical symptom.

      Kussmaul’s Sign: A paradoxical rise in jugular venous pressure on inspiration due to impaired filling of the right ventricle. This sign is commonly associated with constrictive pericarditis or restrictive cardiomyopathy. In cardiac tamponade, the jugular veins have a prominent x descent and an absent y descent, whereas in constrictive pericarditis, there will be a prominent x and y descent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for the past few days. He notices a small amount of fresh, bright-red blood on the toilet paper. He has been having one or two bowel movements per day, which is normal for him, but lately, he has been experiencing hard stools. He is concerned about the pain he will feel during his next bowel movement. He has no other symptoms, fever, or recent weight loss. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. The doctor diagnoses him with an anal fissure. What would be an appropriate management option at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulk-forming laxatives

      Explanation:

      When someone has an anal fissure, they typically experience painful rectal bleeding that appears bright red. The recommended course of action in this case would be to use bulk-forming laxatives and provide dietary guidance on consuming more fluids and fiber. These conservative methods are usually sufficient for treating most cases of acute anal fissures. Additionally, topical analgesics and anesthetics may be utilized.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 30 - What is the mechanism of action of nicotinic acid in the management of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of nicotinic acid in the management of hyperlipidaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit hepatic secretion of VLDL

      Explanation:

      The Benefits and Limitations of Nicotinic Acid as a Lipid-Lowering Agent

      Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is a B-group vitamin that has been found to have several beneficial effects on the lipid profile. It can reduce triglycerides by decreasing the secretion of very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) by the liver, lower low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, and increase high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol. However, the use of nicotinic acid as a drug has been limited due to its side effects.

      The most common side effect of nicotinic acid is facial flushing, which can be disabling for some patients. To address this issue, the HPS2-THRIVE Trial was conducted using extended-release niacin with a prostaglandin receptor blocker called laropiprant. The goal was to minimize flushing and enable hyperlipidemic patients to benefit more from niacin usage.

      However, the study found that the addition of extended-release niacin-laropiprant to statin-based LDL cholesterol-lowering therapy did not significantly reduce the risk of major vascular events. Instead, it increased the risk of serious adverse events. Therefore, while nicotinic acid has several beneficial effects on the lipid profile, its use as a drug is limited by its side effects and the need for further research to minimize these effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (3/4) 75%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
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