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  • Question 1 - This nerve is a direct continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial...

    Incorrect

    • This nerve is a direct continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus. It receives contributions from C5-C8 and T1. It exits the axilla by leaving the posterior wall, traversing the triangular space of the arm. What nerve is this, and which age groups are typically affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Radial Nerve

      The radial nerve is a significant branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, along with the axillary nerve, thoracodorsal nerve, and subscapular nerves. The median nerve, on the other hand, is a continuation of the medial and lateral cord. The long thoracic nerve originates from the ventral rami of C5 to C7.

      After exiting the axilla, the radial nerve descends behind the medial head of the triceps in the posterior compartment. It then passes through the lateral intermuscular septum at the midpoint of the arm and lies between the brachialis and brachioradialis muscles. The nerve then travels through the cubital fossa on the lateral side beneath the brachioradialis muscle. It gives off the major posterior interosseous branch and continues downwards as the superficial radial nerve. This nerve descends until it reaches the back of the hand and passes superficial to the anatomical snuffbox.

      In summary, the radial nerve is an important nerve in the upper limb that provides motor and sensory innervation to various muscles and skin areas. Its anatomy and course are crucial to understand for medical professionals to diagnose and treat any potential injuries or conditions related to this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 24-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his friends. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his friends. They report that for the past 6 days, he has not slept or eaten, and he believes that aliens are communicating with him through his phone.
      During the examination, he speaks rapidly and loudly. When asked about his condition, he describes in detail what the aliens have been telling him, including the frequency and duration of the calls, as well as the tone and pitch of their voices. He also expresses feelings of anxiety and paranoia.
      What type of thought disorder is present in this man?

      Your Answer: Knight's move thinking

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question. This can be a symptom of a manic episode, which is likely the case for this patient. The woman has been experiencing irrational thoughts for the past 5 days, which has resulted in a lack of sleep and eating. Her speech is loud and pressured, and she has a delusion that the government has given her a special mission to stop global warming. This delusion is a sign of a formal thought disorder, which is further demonstrated by her circumstantiality. She is unable to answer a question without providing excessive detail, such as describing the color of the television before finally expressing that she feels stressed. Echolalia, the repetition of someone else’s speech, is not observed in this woman. Flight of ideas, which involves accelerated speech and wandering ideas, is also not present. Knight’s move thinking, which involves poor associations to the previous topic, is also not observed.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      127.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His vital signs show a pulse rate of 105 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, and SpO2 saturations of 80% on pulse oximetry. He has a history of COPD for the past 10 years. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry bilaterally and coarse crackles. What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG)

      Explanation:

      Importance of Different Investigations in Assessing Acute Respiratory Failure

      When a patient presents with acute respiratory failure, it is important to conduct various investigations to determine the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Among the different investigations, arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most important as it helps assess the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as the patient’s pH level. This information can help classify respiratory failure into type I or II and identify potential causes of respiratory deterioration. In patients with a history of COPD, ABG can also determine if they are retaining carbon dioxide, which affects their target oxygen saturations.

      While a chest X-ray may be considered to assess for underlying pathology, it is not the most important investigation. A D-dimer may be used to rule out pulmonary embolism, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) may be done to assess for cardiac causes of respiratory failure. However, ABG should be prioritized before these investigations.

      Pulmonary function tests may be required after initial assessment of oxygen saturations to predict potential respiratory failure based on the peak expiratory flow rate. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and manage acute respiratory failure effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      151.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old Romanian immigrant presents to his general practitioner, complaining of firm and tender reddish-blue raised nodules on the front of both shins. These have been present for a number of months. He has also lost weight and suffered from a chronic cough since the beginning of the year. On examination, there are multiple red/purple, firm, painful lesions affecting both shins. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 220 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      area of upper lobe fibrosis in the right lung
      Induced sputum Acid- and alcohol-fast bacilli seen
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for his rash?

      Your Answer: Erythema infectiosum

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum and Differential Diagnosis

      Erythema nodosum is a painful, raised rash that typically occurs on the anterior aspect of the lower legs. It is a type of panniculitis and is often associated with tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. To rule out these serious conditions, a chest radiograph is usually performed at diagnosis. Diagnosis is made on clinical grounds, and patients are screened for associated medical conditions. Treatment involves managing the underlying condition, such as tuberculosis chemotherapy, and using non-steroidals for the skin rash.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include erythema infectiosum, which is caused by Parvovirus B19 and presents as a rash on the cheeks. Erythema multiforme causes target lesions that appear on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. Superficial thrombophlebitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of a superficial vein and is not associated with tuberculosis. Insect bites may cause swollen red lumps, but they are unlikely to cause the nodules seen in erythema nodosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnea. A chest x-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnea. A chest x-ray is performed, and pleural fluid is aspirated for analysis. The pleural fluid results reveal:
      - Fluid Protein 58 g/L (normal range: 10-20g/L)
      - Fluid LDH 1048 IU/L (less than 50% of plasma concentration)
      - Fluid Glucose 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 4-11 mmol/L)
      - Fluid pH 7.23 (normal range: 7.60-7.64)
      - Cell Cytology shows normal cytology with benign reactive changes

      His admission blood results are as follows:
      - Hb 145 g/L (normal range: 135-180)
      - Platelets 376 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - Total Protein 73 g/L (normal range: 60-83)
      - PT 11.2 s (normal range: 11-13.5)
      - LDH 145 IU/L (normal range: 135-225)
      - Glucose 5.8 mmol/L (normal range: 4-8)
      - pH 7.38 (normal range: 7.35-7.45)

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to gastroenterology to investigate for liver cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      Prompt drainage alongside antibiotic therapy is necessary for the management of an empyema. Therefore, the correct course of action is to insert a chest drain and commence antibiotic therapy. The diagnosis of empyema can be confirmed using Light’s criteria, which indicates an exudative effusion with a pleural fluid protein to serum protein ratio greater than 0.5 and/or a pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6. A pleural fluid pH <7.3 and a very low pleural glucose concentration (<1.6 mmol/L) are also indicative of empyema. The normal cell cytology makes malignancy unlikely. The patient's platelet and PT levels are appropriate for chest drain insertion, so there is no need to refer for investigation under the oncology team or to gastroenterology to investigate for liver cirrhosis. Starting IV antibiotics alone is insufficient for managing an empyema, as prompt drainage is necessary to give antibiotics the best chance of success. A chest drain is a tube that is inserted into the pleural cavity to allow air or liquid to move out of the cavity. It is used in cases of pleural effusion, pneumothorax, empyema, haemothorax, haemopneumothorax, chylothorax, and some cases of penetrating chest wall injury in ventilated patients. However, there are relative contraindications to chest drain insertion, such as an INR greater than 1.3, a platelet count less than 75, pulmonary bullae, and pleural adhesions. The patient should be positioned in a supine position or at a 45º angle, and the area should be anaesthetised using local anaesthetic injection. The drainage tube is then inserted using a Seldinger technique and secured with either a straight stitch or an adhesive dressing. Complications that may occur include failure of insertion, bleeding, infection, penetration of the lung, and re-expansion pulmonary oedema. The chest drain should be removed when there has been no output for > 24 hours and imaging shows resolution of the fluid collection or pneumothorax. Drains inserted in cases of penetrating chest injury should be reviewed by the specialist to confirm an appropriate time for removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old professional athlete is being evaluated at the Endocrinology Clinic for presenting...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old professional athlete is being evaluated at the Endocrinology Clinic for presenting symptoms of low mood, decreased energy, and difficulty in preserving muscle mass. The patient also reports dry skin and hair loss. As part of the diagnostic process, the doctor requests a glucagon stimulation test.
      What is elevated after the glucagon stimulation test?

      Your Answer: C-peptide, cortisol and growth hormone

      Explanation:

      Glucagon and Hormone Production: Effects on C-peptide, Cortisol, Growth Hormone, and TSH

      Glucagon, a hormone produced by the pancreas, has various effects on hormone production in the body. One of these effects is the stimulation of insulin and C-peptide production. C-peptide is cleaved from proinsulin during insulin production, and its levels can be used to measure insulin secretion. Glucagon also indirectly stimulates cortisol production by causing the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) via the hypothalamus. Additionally, glucagon can stimulate growth hormone production, making it an alternative test for measuring growth hormone levels. However, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion is not affected by glucagon injection. Understanding the effects of glucagon on hormone production can aid in the diagnosis and management of various endocrine disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      76.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him. He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he believes that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him. During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and has a tendency to believe in conspiracies. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder may be appropriate for individuals who exhibit hypersensitivity, hold grudges when insulted, doubt the loyalty of those around them, and are hesitant to confide in others.

      In the given case, the correct diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder as the individual is reacting strongly to being fired by her manager and believes it to be a conspiracy involving her manager and colleagues. This aligns with the classic symptoms of paranoid personality disorder, and the individual’s family has also observed her tendency to be easily offended and paranoid.

      Borderline personality disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by emotional instability, difficulty controlling anger, unstable relationships, and recurrent suicidal thoughts, rather than paranoia.

      Schizoid personality disorder is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is characterized by a preference for solitary activities, lack of interest in socializing, and a lack of close relationships, rather than paranoia.

      Schizophrenia is an incorrect diagnosis as the individual’s mental state examination is broadly normal, whereas schizophrenia typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and disordered thinking.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      106
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A hairy 27-year-old woman visits the medical clinic with concerns about her missing...

    Incorrect

    • A hairy 27-year-old woman visits the medical clinic with concerns about her missing menstrual cycles. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?

      Your Answer: Menorrhagia

      Correct Answer: Oligomenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Although clinical features such as infrequent or absent ovulation and hyperandrogenism can suggest PCOS, NICE CKS recommends using specific diagnostic criteria. To diagnose PCOS, at least 2 out of 3 of the following criteria should be present: infrequent or no ovulation, signs of hyperandrogenism or elevated testosterone levels, and polycystic ovaries or increased ovarian volume on ultrasonography. It is important to note that a high BMI is not part of the diagnostic criteria, but signs of insulin resistance such as acanthosis nigricans may aid in diagnosis.

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from the local psychiatric...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department from the local psychiatric hospital where he is being treated for resistant schizophrenia.

      His medical history is otherwise significant only for depression, asthma and occasional cannabis use.

      He is extremely agitated and confused and unable to deliver a coherent history. Examination is difficult as he is unable to lie on the bed due to extreme muscle rigidity and his limbs are fixed in partial contractures and there is mild tremor. Chest and heart sounds are normal although he is tachycardic at 115 bpm. He is sweating profusely and his temperature is measured at 40.2°C. Blood pressure is 85/42 mmHg.

      Blood tests reveal:

      Haemoglobin 149 g/L (130-180)

      White cells 21.7 ×109/L (4-11)

      Neutrophils 17.4 ×109/L (1.5-7)

      Lymphocytes 3.6 ×109/L (1.5-4)

      Platelets 323 ×109/L (150-400)

      Sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 5.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 145 μmol/L (60-110)

      CRP 45 g/L -

      Bilirubin 14 μmol/L (0-3.4)

      ALP 64 U/L (45-405)

      ALT 38 U/L (5-35)

      Calcium (corrected) 2.93 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      CK 14398 U/L -

      The registered psychiatric nurse who accompanies him tells you he has been worsening over the previous 48 hours and his regular dose of risperidone was increased a few days ago. Other than risperidone 10 mg daily, he is also taking salbutamol four times a day.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute psychotic deterioration

      Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious condition that can occur with the long-term use of certain antipsychotic drugs. It is important to consider NMS as a potential cause of deterioration in patients taking these drugs, especially if there has been a recent increase in dosage. Unfortunately, NMS is often misdiagnosed as it can mimic other conditions, including the underlying psychiatric disorder. NMS is caused by changes in dopamine levels in the brain and the release of calcium from muscle cells. This occurs due to activation of the ryanodine receptor, which causes high metabolic activity in muscles, leading to hyperpyrexia and rhabdomyolysis.

      Symptoms of NMS include extreme muscle rigidity, parkinsonism, and high fever. Patients may also experience confusion, fluctuations in consciousness, and autonomic instability. Treatment for NMS involves IV fluid rehydration, dantrolene, and bromocriptine. It is important to differentiate NMS from other conditions, such as sepsis or asthma exacerbation, through careful examination and testing. Discontinuation of the offending drug is mandatory, and patients may require prolonged ITU admissions.

      In conclusion, NMS is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with the use of certain antipsychotic drugs. It is important to consider NMS as a potential cause of deterioration in patients taking these drugs and to differentiate it from other conditions through careful examination and testing. Treatment for NMS involves supportive care and discontinuation of the offending drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man is prescribed duloxetine for a major depressive episode after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is prescribed duloxetine for a major depressive episode after having no response to citalopram or fluoxetine.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly added drug?

      Your Answer: Alpha blocker

      Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of duloxetine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a member of the antidepressant class known as serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors. When selecting an antidepressant, patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost are all factors to consider. SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio and comparable efficacy to other antidepressants.

      Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors

      Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.

      Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.

      Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to thrive. His parents complain that he drinks a lot of water and urinates frequently and is not growing very well. The GP does blood and urine tests and diagnoses Fanconi syndrome.
      Which of the following features would you most likely see in Fanconi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fanconi Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Fanconi syndrome is a condition that affects the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) in the kidneys, leading to a general impairment of reabsorption of amino acids, potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, and glucose. This can be caused by various factors, including inherited disorders, acquired tubule damage, or idiopathic reasons. Common symptoms of Fanconi syndrome include polyuria, hypophosphatemia, acidosis, and hypokalemia. It is important to note that patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience oliguria due to the lack of reabsorption of solutes, leading to water loss. Contrary to popular belief, patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience acidosis rather than alkalosis due to the lack of reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT. Additionally, hypophosphatemia, rather than hyperphosphatemia, is seen in patients with Fanconi syndrome, as the impaired reabsorption of phosphate through the proximal tubules is a common feature. Finally, patients with Fanconi syndrome tend to present with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia due to the impaired reabsorption and increased secretion of potassium caused by the disturbance of the PCT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In a primary prevention study of stroke comparing a new antihypertensive with conventional...

    Incorrect

    • In a primary prevention study of stroke comparing a new antihypertensive with conventional antihypertensive therapy, the number of patients who had a stroke over the study period was 200 in group 1 with the new therapy (n = 5200) versus 250 with conventional therapy (n = 4750).

      What is the approximate odds ratio for the new therapy in preventing stroke among patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.72

      Explanation:

      Odds Ratio in Medical Studies

      In medical studies, odds ratio is a measure used to identify factors that may cause harm. It is the ratio of the odds of the outcome in two groups. To calculate the odds ratio, you need to know the number of positive and negative cases in each group. The odds ratio formula is (a/c) / (b/d), where a is the number of positive cases in the first group, b is the number of positive cases in the second group, c is the number of negative cases in the first group, and d is the number of negative cases in the second group.

      The odds ratio is a useful tool in medical research as it helps to determine the likelihood of an event occurring in one group compared to another. A ratio greater than one indicates that the factor being studied is more likely to cause harm in the first group. On the other hand, a ratio less than one suggests that the factor may be protective in the first group.

      odds ratio is important in medical research as it helps to identify risk factors and develop effective interventions to prevent harm. By calculating the odds ratio, researchers can determine the likelihood of an event occurring in different groups and make informed decisions about the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease

      Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

      Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.

      Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.

      Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.

      Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.

      In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man is in a car crash and experiences a flail chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is in a car crash and experiences a flail chest injury. He arrives at the emergency department with hypotension and an elevated jugular venous pulse. Upon examination, his heart sounds are faint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Beck’s Triad is indicative of the presence of a cardiac tamponade and includes hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and an elevated jugular venous pressure.

      Thoracic Trauma: Common Conditions and Treatment

      Thoracic trauma can result in various conditions that require prompt medical attention. Tension pneumothorax, for instance, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration to the lung parenchyma with a flap. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Symptoms of tension pneumothorax overlap with cardiac tamponade, but hyper-resonant percussion note is more likely. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.

      Pneumothorax is another common condition resulting from lung laceration with air leakage. Traumatic pneumothoraces should have a chest drain, and patients should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothorax, which is most commonly due to laceration of the lung, intercostal vessel, or internal mammary artery, is treated with a large bore chest drain if it is large enough to appear on CXR. Surgical exploration is warranted if more than 1500 ml blood is drained immediately.

      Cardiac tamponade is characterized by elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, and reduced heart sounds. Pulsus paradoxus may also occur with as little as 100 ml blood. Pulmonary contusion is the most common potentially lethal chest injury, and arterial blood gases and pulse oximetry are important. Early intubation within an hour is necessary if significant hypoxia is present. Blunt cardiac injury usually occurs secondary to chest wall injury, and ECG may show features of myocardial infarction. Aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds are other conditions that require prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old carpet layer presents to the clinic for review. He has been complaining of severe anterior knee pain for a few days. On examination, you notice that the left knee is warm and there is swelling on the patella. There is local pain on patellar pressure and pain with knee flexion.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 185 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 12 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Knee aspirate: Gram stain negative for bacteria; fluid contains occasional white cells; culture is negative.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre–patellar bursitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Knee Conditions: A Case-Based Approach

      A patient presents with a red, tender, and inflamed knee. The differential diagnosis includes prepatellar bursitis, osteoarthritis, localised cellulitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout.

      prepatellar bursitis, also known as housemaid’s knee, carpet layer’s knee, or nun’s knee, is often caused by repetitive knee trauma. Treatment involves non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents and local corticosteroid injection. Septic bursitis requires appropriate antibiotic cover and drainage.

      Osteoarthritis is a diagnosis of exclusion and does not typically cause a red, tender, inflamed knee. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Localised cellulitis may result in erythema but is unlikely to cause knee swelling. Knee aspirate in this case would not show white cells.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely to present in men of this age and typically affects small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles.

      Gout can be diagnosed through the presence of negatively birefringent crystals seen on joint microscopy.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to differentiate between these knee conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her General Practitioner, concerned about her family's history of cardiovascular disease and wanting to investigate her own health after learning about healthy eating in school. She was found to have a fasting plasma cholesterol of 15 mmol/l.
      What is the most probable reason for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A deficiency of apo B-100

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol Metabolism: Deficiencies and High Levels of Key Proteins

      Apo B-100 is a protein that binds to LDL receptors, allowing for the uptake of lipoproteins. A deficiency in apo B-100 or LDL receptors can lead to familial hypercholesterolemia and an accumulation of cholesterol.

      Lipoprotein lipase is an enzyme that breaks down chylomicrons and VLDLs. A deficiency in this enzyme can result in the accumulation of both, but with normal or slightly raised cholesterol levels.

      ACAT is an enzyme that catalyzes the re-synthesis of cholesterol esters. A deficiency in ACAT would lead to reduced plasma cholesterol levels.

      High levels of HDL are protective as they increase cholesterol transport from tissues to the liver for conversion to bile acids and excretion in feces. However, high levels of HDL are rare.

      LCAT is an enzyme that converts cholesterol taken up by HDL into a cholesterol ester, which is then transferred to lipoprotein remnants for uptake by the liver. High levels of LCAT can increase reverse cholesterol transport and reduce plasma cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain, and irregular menstrual cycles. The GP conducted some tests and referred her to the hospital. The results of the investigations are as follows:
      - Sodium: 150 mmol/l (normal value: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Fasting blood glucose: 7.7 mmol/l (normal value: <7 mmol/l)
      - 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion: 840 nmol/24 h
      - Plasma ACTH (0900 h): 132 ng/l (normal value: 0-50 ng/l)
      - Dexamethasone suppression test:
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 0.5 mg/6 h orally (po) for two days: 880 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
      - 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 2 mg/6 h PO for two days: 875 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 28-year-old woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndrome Secondary to Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung Causing Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome is a clinical state resulting from chronic glucocorticoid excess and lack of normal feedback mechanisms of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis. While Cushing’s disease, paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung, and adrenocortical tumor are specific conditions resulting in Cushing syndrome, this patient’s symptoms are caused by paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.

      In some cases of small cell carcinoma of the lung, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production occurs, leading to elevated plasma ACTH and cortisol levels. The mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol results in sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to glucose intolerance and hyperglycemia. The differentiation between Cushing’s disease and ectopic ACTH secretion is made by carrying out low- and high-dose dexamethasone suppression tests. In cases of ectopic ACTH secretion, there is usually no response to dexamethasone, as pituitary ACTH secretion is already maximally suppressed by high plasma cortisol levels.

      The absence of response to dexamethasone suggests an ectopic source of ACTH production, rather than Cushing’s disease. Other differential diagnoses for Cushing syndrome include adrenal neoplasia, Conn’s syndrome, and premature menopause. However, in this case, the blood test results suggest ectopic production of ACTH, indicating paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell lung carcinoma as the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practice for a routine check-up of his type 2 diabetes. He was diagnosed with diabetes eight months ago and has been taking metformin 1 g twice daily. His BMI is 30 kg/m2. The results of his laboratory tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      HbA1C 62 mmol/mol < 53 mmol/mol (<7.0%)
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 92 ml/min > 90 ml/min
      What would be the most appropriate choice for managing this patient's diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Comparing Anti-Diabetic Medications: Choosing the Best Option for a Patient with High BMI

      When selecting an anti-diabetic medication for a patient with a high BMI, it is important to consider the potential for weight gain and hypoglycaemia. Here, we compare four options:

      1. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4) inhibitor: This medication sustains the release of insulin and lowers blood sugar levels without causing weight gain.

      2. Sulfonylurea: This medication stimulates the release of insulin and is often used as a second-line agent, but can cause weight gain.

      3. Acarbose: This medication does not significantly improve glucose control and can exacerbate gastrointestinal side-effects when used with metformin.

      4. Insulin basal bolus regimen and pre-mixed insulin 70:30: These options provide optimal glucose control but carry the risk of hypoglycaemia and weight gain.

      For this patient, a DPP4 inhibitor is the best option as it provides additional glucose control without causing weight gain. Sulfonylurea may also be considered, but the risk of weight gain should be monitored. Insulin regimens are not necessary at this time, but may be considered in the future if oral medications do not provide adequate control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a mass on his tongue....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a mass on his tongue. He has a history of HIV that is not well-controlled, and he does not follow his medication regimen. During the examination, the doctor observes shaggy, poorly-defined, hardened, slightly raised, and rough plaques on the side of the tongue. The plaques cannot be removed with a tongue blade. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral hairy leukoplakia

      Explanation:

      Oral Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics

      Oral lesions can present in a variety of forms and have different characteristics. In this case, a patient with a history of immunosuppression presents with a white mass on the lateral aspect of the tongue that cannot be scraped off with a tongue blade. This is most consistent with oral hairy leukoplakia, a non-premalignant Epstein-Barr virus-mediated mucocutaneous manifestation that often presents in immunosuppressed patients. Treatment involves antivirals.

      Other possible oral lesions include oral discoid lupus erythematosus, which is the oral manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus and typically presents as punched-out lesions with surrounding erythema. Aphthous ulcers are round or oval-shaped lesions with surrounding erythema that typically occur on the inside of the mouth and can be treated with topical steroids. Oral candidiasis can be scraped off with a tongue blade, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. Oral lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory condition that can present as white, lacy patches or erosions on the gingival margin.

      In summary, a thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat oral lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old female smoker comes to your clinic with a complaint of difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female smoker comes to your clinic with a complaint of difficulty sleeping for the past 6 months. She often stays awake for hours worrying before finally falling asleep, which is affecting her work concentration. You observe that she seems restless and fidgety during the consultation. Upon reviewing her medical records, you discover that she has recently experienced abdominal pain and palpitations. What is the crucial condition to exclude before diagnosing her with generalized anxiety disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      When diagnosing anxiety, it is important to rule out thyroid disease as the symptoms of anxiety and hyperthyroidism can be similar. Hyperthyroidism can both cause and worsen anxiety. While phaeochromocytoma and Wilson’s disease are possible alternative diagnoses, they are not typically considered before diagnosing anxiety. It is worth noting that insomnia is a symptom of anxiety rather than a separate diagnosis.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Passmed