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Question 1
Correct
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Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. The lump is easily reducible.
The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia, although it is difficult to differentiate between femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias in such a young patient.
Sophie's mother is curious about the cause of her daughter's hernia. What is the pathology of an indirect inguinal hernia?Your Answer: Protrusion through the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress
Explanation:Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress, resulting in a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, it may progress into the scrotum, while in females, it may enter the labia. This type of hernia is located lateral to the epigastric vessels.
On the other hand, direct inguinal hernias are usually caused by weakening in the abdominal musculature, which occurs with age. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is medial to the epigastric vessels. It may exit through the superficial inguinal ring.
The tunica vaginalis is a layer that surrounds the testes and contains a small amount of serous fluid, reducing friction between the scrotum and the testes. Meanwhile, the tunica albuginea is a layer of connective tissue that covers the ovaries, testicles, and corpora cavernosa of the penis.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man complains of dyspepsia and is scheduled for an upper GI endoscopy. The procedure reveals diffuse gastric and duodenal ulcers. Upon conducting a Clo test, Helicobacter pylori infection is confirmed. What is the probable cause of the ulcers?
Your Answer: Decreased gastrin levels
Correct Answer: Increased acid production
Explanation:H-Pylori is capable of causing both gastric and duodenal ulcers, but the mechanism behind this is not fully understood. One theory suggests that the organism induces gastric metaplasia in the duodenum by increasing acid levels. This metaplastic transformation is necessary for H-Pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and cause ulcers. Therefore, only individuals who have undergone this transformation are at risk for duodenal ulcers caused by H-Pylori.
Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient loses 1.6L of fresh blood from their abdominal drain. Which of the following will not decrease?
Your Answer: Renin secretion
Explanation:Renin secretion is likely to increase when there is systemic hypotension leading to a decrease in renal blood flow. While the kidney can regulate its own blood flow within a certain range of systemic blood pressures, a reduction of 1.6 L typically results in an elevation of renin secretion.
Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Correct
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A surgeon is scheduled to perform a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer on a pediatric patient. An upper midline incision will be made. Which structure is most likely to be divided by the incision?
Your Answer: Linea alba
Explanation:When performing upper midline abdominal incisions, the linea alba is typically divided. It is not common to divide muscles in this approach, as it does not typically enhance access and encountering them is not a routine occurrence.
Abdominal Incisions: Types and Techniques
Abdominal incisions are surgical procedures that involve making an opening in the abdominal wall to access the organs inside. The most common approach is the midline incision, which involves dividing the linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. Another type is the paramedian incision, which is parallel to the midline and involves dividing the anterior rectus sheath, rectus, posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. The battle incision is similar to the paramedian but involves displacing the rectus medially.
Other types of abdominal incisions include Kocher’s incision under the right subcostal margin for cholecystectomy, Lanz incision in the right iliac fossa for appendicectomy, gridiron oblique incision centered over McBurney’s point for appendicectomy, Pfannenstiel’s transverse supra-pubic incision primarily used to access pelvic organs, McEvedy’s groin incision for emergency repair of a strangulated femoral hernia, and Rutherford Morrison extraperitoneal approach to the left or right lower quadrants for access to iliac vessels and renal transplantation.
Each type of incision has its own advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of incision depends on the specific surgical procedure and the surgeon’s preference. Proper closure of the incision is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and hernia formation. Overall, abdominal incisions are important techniques in surgical practice that allow for safe and effective access to the abdominal organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gonorrhoeae and prescribed ceftriaxone. She later presents at the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, elevated white blood cell count, and signs of severe colitis. What is the most probable causative organism for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:The correct answer is C. difficile, as it is the causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis that can occur after recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like ceftriaxone. These antibiotics can disrupt the gut flora, allowing C. difficile to thrive. Other antibiotics that can cause C. difficile include PPI, clindamycin, and fluoroquinolones.
Campylobacter, Escherichia coli, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are incorrect answers. Campylobacter infections are typically caused by undercooked chicken, untreated water, or international travel. E. coli infections are usually caused by contact with infected feces, unwashed foods, or unclean water. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted disease that is spread through unprotected sex, not through recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The patient in this case does not have symptoms of gonorrhoeae and there is no indication of unprotected sex after the antibiotic prescription.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man needs a urethral catheter before his splenectomy. At what point will the catheter encounter its first resistance during insertion?
Your Answer: Internal sphincter
Correct Answer: Membranous urethra
Explanation:The external sphincter surrounding the membranous urethra causes it to be the least distensible part of the urethra.
Urethral Anatomy: Differences Between Male and Female
The anatomy of the urethra differs between males and females. In females, the urethra is shorter and more angled than in males. It is located outside of the peritoneum and is surrounded by the endopelvic fascia. The neck of the bladder is subject to intra-abdominal pressure, and any weakness in this area can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The female urethra is surrounded by the external urethral sphincter, which is innervated by the pudendal nerve. It is located in front of the vaginal opening.
In males, the urethra is much longer and is divided into four parts. The pre-prostatic urethra is very short and lies between the bladder and prostate gland. The prostatic urethra is wider than the membranous urethra and contains several openings for the transmission of semen. The membranous urethra is the narrowest part of the urethra and is surrounded by the external sphincter. The penile urethra travels through the corpus spongiosum on the underside of the penis and is the longest segment of the urethra. The bulbo-urethral glands open into the spongiose section of the urethra.
The urothelium, which lines the inside of the urethra, is transitional near the bladder and becomes squamous further down the urethra. Understanding the differences in urethral anatomy between males and females is important for diagnosing and treating urological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Correct
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As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching a colonoscopy list. A number of patients who arrive during the morning are individuals with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), who are being screened to detect any early signs of colorectal cancer. What is the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer for individuals with this condition?
Your Answer: 90%
Explanation:Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of fever and complains of a painful mouth. The patient has a history of inflammatory bowel disease and has recently started taking sulphasalazine. There is no history of recent travel or any other relevant medical history.
What urgent investigation should be performed in this case?Your Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Aminosalicylates can cause various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis, which can be detected through FBC testing. In this case, the patient’s recent exposure to sulphasalazine and symptoms of fever and mouth ulcers suggest bone marrow suppression with an infection. While an acute flare of IBD is a possible differential diagnosis, it is not strongly supported by the clinical signs. Amylase testing is not likely to be helpful in this case, as the presentation points more towards agranulocytosis than pancreatitis. CRP testing may be performed to monitor inflammation, but it is not likely to provide a specific diagnosis. Total bilirubin testing is included as a reminder of the potential haematological side-effects of aminosalicylates, such as haemolytic anaemia, but it is not a key investigation in this case. FBC testing is the most clinically urgent investigation to support the diagnosis of agranulocytosis.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents with a six-month history of frequent diarrhoea. He describes up to ten episodes a day of bloody stool. The patient denies any night sweats, fever, or weight loss, explains that he has not changed his diet recently.
On examination he has;
Normal vital signs
No ulcerations in his mouth
Mild lower abdominal tenderness
Pain and blood noted on rectal examination
What is the most probable finding on colonoscopy or biopsy?Your Answer: Skip lesions
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:ASCA, also known as anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies, can be abbreviated as 6.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 10-week history of abdominal pain and tenesmus. He reports experiencing intermittent diarrhea that has been increasing in frequency and has noticed fresh red blood on wiping. During the examination, he exhibits generalized abdominal tenderness, which is most severe when palpating the left iliac fossa. Several tests are ordered.
What is a characteristic finding associated with his underlying condition?Your Answer: Skip lesions
Correct Answer: Mucosal inflammation
Explanation:Patients with UC have a deficient mucous layer and reduced goblet cell production, while those with Crohn’s disease exhibit an increase in goblet cells. Additionally, Crohn’s disease may present with rose-thorn ulcers in the terminal ileum after a barium swallow, which manifest as deep linear ulcers.
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man is stabbed in the groin and the area within the femoral triangle needs to be examined. What forms the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?
Your Answer: Conjoint tendon
Correct Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following anatomical planes separates the prostate from the rectum?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Denonvilliers fascia
Explanation:The rectum is separated from the prostate by the Denonvilliers fascia, while the sacrum is separated from the rectum by Waldeyer’s fascia.
Anatomy of the Prostate Gland
The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.
The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.
The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.
In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man has a nasogastric tube inserted. The nurse takes a small aspirate of the fluid from the stomach and tests the pH of the aspirate. What is the typical intragastric pH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Typically, the pH level in the stomach is 2, but the use of proton pump inhibitors can effectively eliminate acidity.
Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures
A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.
There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.
The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.
In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female with a history of sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe epigastric pain that extends to her back. The patient displays clinical signs of jaundice. She reports drinking only one small glass of red wine per week and no other alcohol intake. What is the probable reason for acute pancreatitis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:The leading causes of pancreatitis are gallstones and heavy alcohol use. However, in the case of this patient with sickle cell disease, pigment gallstones are the most probable cause of their acute pancreatitis. Although autoimmune diseases like polyarteritis nodosa can also lead to pancreatitis, it is less common than gallstones. Additionally, the patient’s alcohol consumption is not significant enough to be a likely cause of their condition.
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy complains of pain in the right iliac fossa and there is a suspicion of appendicitis. What is the embryological origin of the appendix?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:Periumbilical pain may be a symptom of early appendicitis due to the fact that the appendix originates from the midgut.
Appendix Anatomy and Location
The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.
McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions
McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis. During surgery, it is found that the appendix is located retrocaecally and is hard to reach. Which anatomical structure should be divided in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral peritoneal attachments of the caecum
Explanation:The most frequent position of the appendix is retrocaecal. Surgeons who have difficulty locating it during surgery can follow the tenia to the caecal pole where the appendix is situated. If it proves challenging to move, cutting the lateral caecal peritoneal attachments (similar to a right hemicolectomy) will enable caecal mobilisation and make the procedure easier.
Appendix Anatomy and Location
The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.
McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions
McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Sarah presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting following a holiday in Greece in which she consumed large amounts of alcohol. On investigation, she has a raised amylase of 500 IU/L and is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. She is treated and makes a full recovery.
Eight weeks later she presents again, complaining of persisting moderately severe abdominal pain and early satiety. An ultrasound of her abdomen shows a fluid filled cavity in the pancreas lined with granulation tissue.
What complication of acute pancreatitis has Sarah developed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst
Explanation:Alcohol intoxication is a common cause of acute pancreatitis, which can present with persistent abdominal pain and a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.
While a pancreatic tumor may also cause acute pancreatitis symptoms and obstructive jaundice, it would not typically show a fluid-filled cavity on ultrasound.
A pancreatic abscess, on the other hand, may present with signs of infection such as fever, rigors, and a tender mass.
Although diabetes can be a late complication of pancreatitis, it does not account for the ongoing abdominal pain or the presence of a fluid-filled cavity.
Complications of Acute Pancreatitis
Local complications of acute pancreatitis include peripancreatic fluid collections, pseudocysts, pancreatic necrosis, pancreatic abscess, and hemorrhage. Peripancreatic fluid collections occur in about 25% of cases and may resolve or develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis may involve both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, and complications are directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses typically occur as a result of an infected pseudocyst. Hemorrhage may occur de novo or as a result of surgical necrosectomy and may be identified by Grey Turner’s sign when retroperitoneal hemorrhage occurs.
Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which is associated with a high mortality rate of around 20%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following does not result in the relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Metoclopramide directly causes contraction of the smooth muscle of the LOS.
Peristalsis: The Movement of Food Through the Digestive System
Peristalsis is the process by which food is moved through the digestive system. Circular smooth muscle contracts behind the food bolus, while longitudinal smooth muscle propels the food through the oesophagus. Primary peristalsis spontaneously moves the food from the oesophagus into the stomach, taking about 9 seconds. Secondary peristalsis occurs when food does not enter the stomach, and stretch receptors are stimulated to cause peristalsis.
In the small intestine, peristalsis waves slow to a few seconds and cause a mixture of chyme. In the colon, three main types of peristaltic activity are recognised. Segmentation contractions are localised contractions in which the bolus is subjected to local forces to maximise mucosal absorption. Antiperistaltic contractions towards the ileum are localised reverse peristaltic waves to slow entry into the colon and maximise absorption. Mass movements are migratory peristaltic waves along the entire colon to empty the organ prior to the next ingestion of a food bolus.
Overall, peristalsis is a crucial process in the digestive system that ensures food is moved efficiently through the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of intermittent upper abdominal pain that worsens after eating. She denies having a fever and reports normal bowel movements. The pain is rated at 6/10 and is only slightly relieved by paracetamol. The GP suspects a blockage in the biliary tree. Which section of the duodenum does this tube open into, considering the location of the blockage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2nd part of the duodenum
Explanation:The second segment of the duodenum is situated behind the peritoneum and contains the major and minor duodenal papillae.
Based on the symptoms described, the woman is likely experiencing biliary colic, which is characterized by intermittent pain that worsens after consuming fatty meals. Blockages in the biliary tree, typically caused by stones, can occur at any point, but in this case, it is likely in the cystic duct, as there is no mention of jaundice and the stool is normal.
The cystic duct joins with the right and left hepatic ducts to form the common bile duct, which then merges with the pancreatic duct to create the common hepatopancreatic duct. The major papilla, located in the second segment of the duodenum, is where these ducts empty into the duodenum. This segment is also situated behind the peritoneum.
Peptic ulcers affecting the duodenum are most commonly found in the first segment.
The third segment of the duodenum can be compressed by the superior mesenteric artery, leading to superior mesenteric artery syndrome, particularly in individuals with low body fat.
The fourth segment of the duodenum runs close to the abdominal aorta and can be compressed by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
The ligament of Treitz attaches the duodenojejunal flexure to the diaphragm and is not associated with any particular pathology.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female undergoes an emergency caesarean section due to failed induction of labor and a macrosomic baby. After delivery, she is transferred to the postnatal ward. However, prior to discharge, she complains of abdominal pain, has a fever of 39ºC, and a tachycardia of 106 bpm. A CT scan reveals the presence of fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space. What is the probable cause of these CT findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureteral injury during caesarean section
Explanation:If the ureters are damaged during a caesarean section, it can cause fluid to accumulate in the retroperitoneal area. This can lead to pain and inflammation, which may present as fever and a rapid heartbeat. Ovarian thrombus is a rare complication that can occur after a caesarean section. CT scans can show filling defects and an increased diameter in the affected vein. The pyloric antrum is located near the bottom of the stomach, close to the pyloric sphincter. Since the stomach is an intraperitoneal organ in the left upper quadrant, it is unlikely to be lacerated during a caesarean section. Any damage to the stomach would not result in retroperitoneal fluid accumulation.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old soldier sustains a gunshot wound to the abdomen resulting in severe damage to the abdominal aorta. The surgeons opt to place a vascular clamp just below the diaphragm to control the bleeding. What is the potential risk of injury to one of the vessels during this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries
Explanation:The inferior phrenic arteries, which are the first branches of the abdominal aorta, are most vulnerable. On the other hand, the superior phrenic arteries are located in the thorax. The area around the diaphragmatic hiatus could be a valuable location for aortic occlusion, but keeping the clamp on for more than 10-15 minutes typically results in unfavorable results.
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and haematemesis. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have a peptic ulcer. During his treatment, he reveals that he has been taking ibuprofen for several years. His physician informs him that this may have caused the bleeding and recommends taking omeprazole, a gastroprotective medication, in addition to his ibuprofen to lower his chances of recurrence. What is the mechanism of action of omeprazole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric parietal cell H+/K+-ATPase inhibition
Explanation:The irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase is caused by PPIs.
Parietal cells contain H+/K+-ATPase, which is inhibited by omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor. Therefore, any answer indicating chief cells or H+/K+-ATPase stimulation is incorrect and potentially harmful.
Ranitidine is an example of a different class of gastroprotective drugs that inhibits H2 receptors.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.
Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.
It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 52-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin that becomes more prominent when she coughs. The lump is not painful, but the doctor notes that it is located inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle during the examination. This leads to a diagnosis of a femoral hernia, where a portion of the bowel has entered the femoral canal and caused a bulge in the femoral triangle, an area in the upper thigh.
What are the contents of this anatomical region from lateral to medial?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:To remember the contents of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial, use the acronym NAVEL: femoral NERVE, femoral ARTERY, femoral VEIN, EMPTY space, and LYMPHATICS. The femoral triangle is located in the anterior thigh and is bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the medial border of the sartorius muscle laterally, and the medial border of the adductor longus muscle medially. A femoral hernia occurs when bowel enters the femoral ring and canal, which are located beneath the inguinal ligament, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral nerve is located more laterally than the femoral artery and vein, while the femoral artery is more lateral than the femoral vein.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain that is slightly relieved by eating. Despite taking ibuprofen, she has not experienced any relief. The doctor suspects a duodenal peptic ulcer and schedules an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). Based on the location of the ulcer, which organ is derived from the same embryological region of the gut?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The major papilla located in the 2nd part of the duodenum marks the division between the foregut and the midgut, with the foregut encompassing structures from the mouth to the 2nd part of the duodenum where peptic ulcers are commonly found. It should be noted that the kidneys are not derived from gut embryology, but rather from the ureteric bud.
The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply
The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.
The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife due to concerns of his 'skin and eyes looking yellow' and has worsened since it started 3 months ago. On systematic examination, you noticed jaundice and cachexia but it is otherwise unremarkable. On further questioning the man himself reports that his urine has been getting darker as well as stools becoming paler. You order an urgent CT scan which showed a mass lesion at the head of the pancreas. What is the direct explanation for the change in color of his stools?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in stercobilin
Explanation:The presentation of symptoms related to the conjugation of bilirubin varies depending on where the process is disrupted, such as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic. In this case, a mass in the pancreatic head has caused an obstruction of the common bile duct, which is post-hepatic. This obstruction results in less conjugated bilirubin reaching the intestinal tract and more being absorbed into the systemic circulation. As a result, there is a decrease in stercobilin production, leading to paler stools.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female with a history of iron deficiency anemia presents to the hospital with pain in the right upper quadrant. After diagnosis, she is found to have acute cholecystitis. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of gallstones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:The following factors increase the likelihood of developing gallstones and can be remembered as the ‘5 F’s’:
– Being overweight (having a body mass index greater than 30 kg/m2)
– Being female
– Being of reproductive age
– Being of fair complexion (Caucasian)
– Being 40 years of age or olderGallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A woman in her 40s is undergoing investigation for bowel cancer. During a colonoscopy, numerous small growths are found throughout her bowel, indicating the presence of an autosomal dominant familial condition that the clinician had suspected.
Which gene mutation is commonly associated with this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: APC
Explanation:While a majority of human cancers are linked to p53 malfunction, it should be noted that the APC gene is specifically associated with FAP and not p53.
Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in his stools. The blood is bright red and occurs during defecation, but it is not painful. He has been feeling more tired lately, but he has not experienced night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite, or changes in bowel habits.
The patient has a history of liver cirrhosis and underwent an oesophageal endoscopy two years ago, but he cannot recall the results. He is a known alcoholic and attends AA.
Upon examination, the patient appears pale with conjunctival pallor, and ascites is present.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Haemorrhoids in Portal Hypertension
A likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of portal hypertension, ascites, endoscopy, and cirrhotic liver is haemorrhoids. Portal hypertension causes pressure to be passed on to the middle and inferior rectal veins, leading to their dilation and the development of haemorrhoids. While haemorrhoids are common in the general population, significant blood loss is rare. However, in patients with established cirrhosis, large amounts of blood can be lost through these varices.
An anal fissure is unlikely in this case, as there is no history of straining or a low-fibre diet, and they are typically painful. While colorectal carcinoma is an important diagnosis to consider, painless bright fresh blood is more likely to be caused by haemorrhoids in patients with a strong history of portal hypertension. In malignancy, fresh blood is less common, and a change in bowel habit is often a prominent feature.
A perianal haematoma is a thrombosed haemorrhoid that typically presents with severe pain, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. The patient’s presentation of painless bleeding further supports the diagnosis of haemorrhoids in the context of portal hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During a liver resection, what structure will be located posterior to the epiploic foramen at this level when a surgeon performs a pringles manoeuvre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:To manage bleeding caused by liver injury or a challenging cholecystectomy, a vascular clamp can be utilized at the epiploic foramen. This opening is defined by the following borders: the bile duct on the right, the portal vein at the back, and the hepatic artery on the left, all of which are located in the free edge of the lesser omentum.
Structure and Relations of the Liver
The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.
The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.
The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with fever, vomiting, and abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, the right lower quadrant is tender upon palpation of the left lower quadrant. What is the term for this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rovsing's sign
Explanation:Rovsing’s sign is a sign that may indicate the presence of appendicitis. It is considered positive when pressure applied to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.
Murphy’s sign is a sign that may indicate inflammation of the gallbladder. It is considered positive when pressure applied to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, just below the rib cage, causes pain when the patient inhales.
Cullen’s sign is a sign that may indicate ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis. It is characterized by bruising around the belly button.
Tinel’s sign is a sign that may indicate carpal tunnel syndrome. It is considered positive when tapping the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum causes tingling or numbness in the distribution of the median nerve.
Battles sign is a sign that may indicate a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa. It is characterized by bruising behind the ear.
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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