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  • Question 1 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      538
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels:Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen indexLH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. On examination, palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen elicits pain in the right lower quadrant. What is this sign?

      Your Answer: Rovsing's sign

      Explanation:

      Based on the findings presented, the sign elicited is Rovsing’s sign.Rovsing’s sign:It is a sign suggestive of appendicitis. A positive sign is determined when palpation in the left lower quadrant of a patient’s abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.Other options:- Murphy’s sign is positive in gallbladder inflammation. With the upper border of the examiner’s hand in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen under the rib cage, the patient is asked to inhale. Inhalation causes the gallbladder to descend, which catches on the fingers, causing pain.- Cullen’s sign is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis and describes the bruising around the umbilicus.- Tinel’s sign is positive in those with carpal tunnel syndrome. The examiner’s fingers tap the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum, which causes paraesthesia over the distribution of the median nerve.- Battles’ sign describes bruising behind the ear, suggesting a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a...

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?

      Your Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction

      Explanation:

      A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      606.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the upper arm and the median nerve is transected. Impaired function can be demonstrated in which of the following muscle/s?

      Your Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is a peripheral nerve originating in the cervical roots C5-T1 of the brachial plexus. It supplies motor innervation to the anterior forearm flexors, the thenar muscles, and the two lateral lumbricals as well as sensory innervation to the lateral palm and anterior, lateral three and a half fingers. Motor and sensory deficits depend on whether the lesion is proximal (above the elbow) or distal (below the elbow). While proximal lesions present with the hand of benediction,ť distal lesions present with either the pinch signť (anterior interosseous nerve syndrome) or, in the case of carpal tunnel syndrome, with mildly impaired thumb and index finger motion. Both proximal lesions and carpal tunnel syndrome result in reduced sensation in the area of the thumb, index and middle finger. Anterior interosseus nerve syndrome does not cause any sensory deficits. Chronic injuries to the nerve result in atrophy of median nerve innervated muscles while acute injuries do not have this feature. Treatment is mostly conservative and focuses on rest and immobilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following does not cause painless gastrointestinal bleeding? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not cause painless gastrointestinal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception causes abdominal pain leading to painful lower GI bleeding. Intussusception is a condition in which part of the intestine folds into the section next to it. It most commonly involves the small bowel and rarely the large bowel. Intussusception doesn’t usually require surgical correction. 80% of cases can be both confirmed and reduced using barium, water-soluble or air-contrast enema.However, up to 10% of cases can experience recurrence within 24 hours after reduction, warranting close monitoring during this period.Most children have self-limiting and minor bleeds. However, children with massive bleeds will need emergency care and stabilisation.The various causes of lower GI bleeding in neonates include:- Anal fissures- Milk protein or soy allergy- Intussusception- Volvulus- Coagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-born- Arteriovenous malformations- Necrotising enterocolitis- Hirschsprung enterocolitis- Meckel’s diverticulitis- Drugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)The various causes of lower GI bleeding in children aged between 1 month to 2 years include:- Infection- Anal fissures- Intussusception- Malrotation with volvulus- Milk protein or soy allergy- Polyp- Meckel’s diverticulum- Duplication cyst- Foreign body- AV malformation- Colitis of immune deficiency- Tumour- HaematomaThe causes of lower GI bleeding in children older than 2 years include:- Polyp- Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)- Infectious diarrhoea (caused by Escherichia coli and Shigella)- Intussusception- Haemangiomas- Arteriovenous malformations- Vasculitis- Tumour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding consent to randomisation, which of the given statements is true?

      Your Answer: Should be obtained as part of the overall consent to the study

      Explanation:

      Randomization is one of the ethical protocols for research work, involving unbiased sample selection. Consent is required before undertaking any research and is taken for the complete research work at once. No separate consent is required for the process of randomization. The consent should explain each and every aspect of the study, including details about the process of randomization. Only particular study designs, like Zelen design, permit the avoidance of consent to randomization but these studies have their setbacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Brugada syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common presenting feature of Wilms tumour?

      Your Answer: Abdominal mass

      Explanation:

      The most common manifestation of Wilms tumour is an asymptomatic abdominal mass; an abdominal mass occurs in 80% of children at presentation. Abdominal pain or haematuria occurs in 25%. Urinary tract infection and varicocele are less common findings than these. Hypertension, gross haematuria, and fever are observed in 5-30% of patients. A few patients with haemorrhage into their tumour may present with hypotension, anaemia, and fever. Rarely, patients with advanced disease may present with respiratory symptoms related to lung metastases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he...

    Correct

    • A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Continue Regular Child Care

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?

      Your Answer: Prepubertal boys

      Correct Answer: New-born girls

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1; Verbal response – 3; Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      4462.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been...

    Correct

    • An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been holding onto her both ears and crying out of pain. This has been going on for about a week and there has been no improvement in the pain despite using paracetamol and ibuprofen. On examination, the child is febrile, and her pulse is 130 beats per minute. the tympanic membranes are red and bulging on both sides. What is the most appropriate course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of acute otitis media should begin with adequate analgesia. Antibiotic therapy can be deferred in children two years or older with mild symptoms. Antibiotics should be prescribed immediately if:- Symptoms lasting more than 4 days or not improving- Systemically unwell but not requiring admission- Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease- Younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media- Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canaHigh-dose amoxicillin (80 to 90 mg per kg per day) is the antibiotic of choice for treating acute otitis media in patients who are not allergic to penicillin, otherwise erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Scarring type of alopecia occurs in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Scarring type of alopecia occurs in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Alopecia areata

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus

      Explanation:

      Alopecia is a scalp condition characterized by either overall baldness or patches of hair loss over the head. It can be broadly classified as scarring alopecia and non-scarring alopecia. Non-scarring is the most common type and is seen in various conditions like nutritional deficiencies, alopecia areata, hypothyroidism, tinea capitis, and SLE. Scarring alopecia is commonly seen in cases of discoid lupus erythematosus, which is a common cause of widespread inflammatory and scarring lesions all over the body and scalp.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kallmann's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer: Clomipramine

      Correct Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he sustained a distal humerus fracture at the age of 12. On examination, there was diminished sensation overlying the hypothenar eminence and medial one and half fingers. What is the most likely nerve injured?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely nerve injured in this case is the ulnar nerve.Ulnar Nerve:It arises from the medial cord of brachial plexus (C8, T1).It supplies motor fibres to the following structures:- Medial two lumbricals- Adductor pollicis- Interossei- Hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimiflexor carpi ulnarisIt carries sensation from the palmar and dorsal aspects of the medial 1 1/2 fingers.Patterns of damageIf the nerve is damaged at the wrist, the following features are observed:- Claw hand’: Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits.- Wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)- Wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles- A sensory loss in the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)If the nerve is damaged at the elbow or above the ulnar paradox is observed – the fourth and fifth fingers are simply paralyzed and claw hand is less severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      110.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: The karyotype is 47, XYY

      Correct Answer: Fertility is affected

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A normally developed 4-year-old would be expected to do which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Draw a triangle

      Correct Answer: Copy a cross

      Explanation:

      4-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalEnjoys doing new things Plays MomÅ¥ and DadÅ¥ Is more and more creative with make-believe play Would rather play with other children than by himself Cooperates with other children Often can’t tell what’s real and what’s make-believe Talks about what she likes and what she is interested in Language/CommunicationKnows some basic rules of grammar, such as correctly using heÅ¥ and sheÅ¥ Sings a song or says a poem from memory such as the Itsy Bitsy SpiderÅ¥ or the Wheels on the BusÅ¥ Tells stories Can say first and last nameCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Names some colours and some numbers Understands the idea of counting Starts to understand time Remembers parts of a story Understands the idea of sameÅ¥ and differentÅ¥ Draws a person with 2 to 4 body parts Uses scissors Starts to copy some capital letters Plays board or card games Tells you what he thinks is going to happen next in a book Movement/Physical DevelopmentHops and stands on one foot up to 2 seconds Catches a bounced ball most of the time Pours, cuts with supervision, and mashes own food

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting blood glucose. Her HBA1c was found to be 31 mmol/mol (5.0%). What is the most probable co-existing condition that can lead to these unusual HBA1c levels?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      HbA1c stands for glycated haemoglobin. In patients with haemolytic diseases associated with a shortened RBC survival, HbA1c levels can be unusually low despite controlled diabetes mellitus.These haemolytic diseases can include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and sickle cell anaemia.HbA1c:It is a measure of non-enzymatic glycation which occurs due to haemoglobin’s exposure to plasma glucose. As plasma glucose increases so does HbA1c.The level of HbA1c quantitively assesses the control of diabetes mellitus over the last 120 days (as this is the life span of a red blood cell).Haemoglobin type A is separated on cation exchange chromatographyOther subsections include HbA1O, HbA1a, HbA1b.According to the updated NICE recommendations (2015):The target level of HbA1c in children with T1DM is 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. It is monitored every three months. Better control is associated with fewer long term complications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gestational diabetes

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders?

      Your Answer: Antidepressants improve weight gain and associated psychopathology in patients with anorexia nervosa

      Correct Answer: Evidence-based self-help programme is first line in patients with bulimia

      Explanation:

      Most individuals with eating disorders do not receive treatment. The treatment gap may involve individuals’ attitudes about accessing various types of treatment, as well as perceived barriers to seeking treatment. Therapies to be considered for the psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa include cognitive analytic therapy (CAT), cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT), interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions focused explicitly on eating disorders.The first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. Antidepressants may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.Acute pharmacologic treatment of anorexia nervosa is rarely required. However, vitamin supplementation with calcium should be started in patients, and although oestrogen has no established effect on bone density in patients with anorexia nervosa, oestrogen replacement (i.e., oral contraceptives) has been recommended for the treatment of osteopenia. Note: Oestrogen should not be used in children (due to premature fusion of the bones).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      824.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Genetic point mutation occurs in which of the given genetic abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Genetic point mutation occurs in which of the given genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Point mutations are the type of mutations in which only a single nucleotide of the DNA is either deleted, substituted or a new single nucleotide is inserted into the DNA, causing alterations in the original normal DNA sequencing. The examples of point mutations include hemochromatosis, sickle cell disease, and Tay-Sach’s disease. Huntington’s disease is a trinucleotide repeat disorder. Down’s syndrome is characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21, while Klinefelter syndrome is marked by an extra X chromosome. Fragile X syndrome is also a trinucleotide repeat disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?

      Your Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy is recommended from age 30 years onwards

      Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13-15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      304.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness

      Explanation:

      In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 28 - What form of inheritance does Chediak-Higashi syndrome have? ...

    Incorrect

    • What form of inheritance does Chediak-Higashi syndrome have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Chediak-Higashi syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 29 - A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history of proximal myopathy. He has missed motor milestones and has pseudohypertrophy of the calves. Doctors suspect it might be Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which of the following should you advise the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Girl offspring have a less than 10% chance of inheriting the condition

      Explanation:

      Although initially thought to affect only boys, girls with DMD also have an estimated 10% chance of inheriting the condition. In girls, DMD may present with all or some clinical manifestations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 30 - A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

      Explanation:

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (5/5) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Nephro-urology (2/4) 50%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/2) 0%
Child Development (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/1) 0%
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