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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with shortness of breath on exercise comes to the clinic some 6 months after the birth of her second child. The recent pregnancy and post-partum period were uneventful. Her general practitioner has diagnosed her with asthma and prescribed a salbutamol inhaler. On examination, she looks unwell and is slightly short of breath at rest. Her blood pressure is 150/80 mmHg and her body mass index (BMI) is 24. There is mild bilateral pitting ankle oedema. Auscultation of the chest reveals no wheeze.
Investigations
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 129 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 190 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Right axis deviation,
incomplete right bundle branch block
Pulmonary artery systolic pressure 33 mmHg
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Primary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Postpartum Dyspnea: A Review
Postpartum dyspnea can be a concerning symptom for new mothers. In this case, the patient presents with dyspnea and fatigue several weeks after giving birth. The following differentials should be considered:
1. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension: This condition can present with right ventricular strain on ECG and elevated pulmonary artery systolic pressure. It is not uncommon for symptoms to develop after childbirth.
2. Dilated Cardiomyopathy: Patients with dilated cardiomyopathy may present with left bundle branch block and right axis deviation. Symptoms can develop weeks to months after giving birth.
3. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: While a possible differential, the absence of pleuritic pain and risk factors such as a raised BMI make this less likely.
4. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy (HOCM): HOCM typically presents with exertional syncope or pre-syncope and ECG changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy or asymmetrical septal hypertrophy.
5. Hypertensive Heart Disease: This condition is characterized by elevated blood pressure during pregnancy, which is not reported in this case. The patient’s symptoms are also not typical of hypertensive heart disease.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation and consideration of these differentials can aid in the diagnosis and management of postpartum dyspnea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of severe central chest pain that has been going on for an hour. He has no significant medical history. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 90 bpm and blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. An electrocardiogram reveals 5 mm of ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads (V2–V4). He was given aspirin (300 mg) and diamorphine (5 mg) in the ambulance. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to save the myocardium. The two main treatment options are primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and fibrinolysis. Primary PCI is the preferred option for patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset and can undergo the procedure within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given.
In addition to PCI or fibrinolysis, patients with acute MI should receive dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and a second anti-platelet drug, such as clopidogrel or ticagrelor, for up to 12 months. Patients undergoing PCI should also receive unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin, such as enoxaparin.
While glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like tirofiban may be used to reduce the risk of immediate vascular occlusion in intermediate- and high-risk patients undergoing PCI, they are not the definitive treatment. Similarly, fibrinolysis with tissue plasminogen activator should only be given if primary PCI cannot be delivered within the recommended timeframe.
Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction to improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with a heart attack. After four days, he experiences another episode of chest pain with non-specific ST-T wave changes on the ECG. Which cardiac enzyme would be the most suitable for determining if this second episode was another heart attack?
Your Answer: LDH
Correct Answer: CK-MB
Explanation:Evaluating Chest Pain after an MI
When a patient experiences chest pain within ten days of a previous myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to evaluate the situation carefully. Troponin T levels remain elevated for ten days following an MI, which can make it difficult to determine if a second episode of chest pain is related to the previous event. To make a diagnosis, doctors will need to evaluate the patient’s creatine kinase (CK)-myoglobin (MB) levels. These markers rise over three days and can help form a diagnostic profile that can help determine if the chest pain is related to a new MI or another condition. By carefully evaluating these markers, doctors can provide the best possible care for patients who are experiencing chest pain after an MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he quickly regained consciousness and became fully alert, his family called an ambulance. The emergency medical team found no abnormalities on the electrocardiogram. Physical examination was unremarkable. However, the patient was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit of the local hospital. During the evening, the patient was noted to have a fast rhythm with a wide complex on his monitor, followed by hypotension and loss of consciousness.
After electrical cardioversion with 200 watt-seconds of direct current, which one of the following may possible therapy include?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:The patient in the scenario is experiencing a fast rhythm with wide complexes, which is likely ventricular tachycardia (VT). As the patient is unstable, electrical cardioversion was attempted first, as recommended by the Resuscitation Council Guideline. If cardioversion fails and the patient remains unstable, intravenous amiodarone can be used as a loading dose of 300 mg over 10-20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900 mg/24 hours. Amiodarone is a class III anti-arrhythmic agent that prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by blocking potassium efflux. Side-effects associated with amiodarone include deranged thyroid and liver function tests, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, interstitial lung disease, jaundice, and sleep disorders.
Epinephrine is used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It acts on adrenergic receptors, causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. Side-effects associated with epinephrine include palpitations, arrhythmias, headache, tremor, and hypertension.
Intravenous propranolol is a non-selective β-adrenergic receptor blocker that has limited use in treating arrhythmias and thyrotoxic crisis. It is contraindicated in patients with severe hypotension, asthma, COPD, bradycardia, sick sinus rhythm, atrioventricular block, and cardiogenic shock. Side-effects associated with propranolol include insomnia, nightmares, nausea, diarrhea, bronchospasm, exacerbation of Raynaud’s, bradycardia, hypotension, and heart block.
Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside extracted from the plant genus Digitalis, can be used in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias and heart failure. However, it is of no use in this scenario as the patient is experiencing a broad complex tachycardia. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window, and even small changes in dosing can lead to toxicity. Side-effects associated with digoxin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia, dizziness, yellow vision, and eosinophilia.
Diltiazem, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is normally used for hypertension and prophylaxis and treatment of ang
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old with cystic fibrosis was evaluated for cor pulmonale to determine eligibility for a deceased donor double-lung transplant.
What is the surface landmark used to identify right ventricular hypertrophy?Your Answer: Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area
Explanation:Anatomical Landmarks for Cardiac Examination
When examining the heart, it is important to know the anatomical landmarks for locating specific valves and ventricles. Here are some key locations to keep in mind:
1. Fourth intercostal space, left parasternal area: This is the correct location for examining the tricuspid valve and the right ventricle, particularly when detecting a right ventricular heave.
2. Second intercostal space, left parasternal area: The pulmonary valve can be found at this location.
3. Second intercostal space, right parasternal area: The aortic valve is located here.
4. Fourth intercostal space, right parasternal area: In cases of true dextrocardia, the tricuspid valve and a right ventricular heave can be found at this location.
5. Fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line: This is the location of the apex beat, which can be examined for a left ventricular heave and the mitral valve.
Knowing these landmarks can help healthcare professionals accurately assess and diagnose cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A man in his early 40s comes to you with a rash. Upon examination, you notice that he has eruptive xanthoma. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Correct Answer: Familial hypertriglyceridaemia
Explanation:Eruptive Xanthoma and its Association with Hypertriglyceridaemia and Diabetes Mellitus
Eruptive xanthoma is a skin condition that can occur in individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of triglycerides in the blood, which can be caused by a number of factors including genetics, diet, and lifestyle. Eruptive xanthoma is a type of xanthoma that appears as small, yellowish bumps on the skin, often in clusters.
Of the conditions listed, familial hypertriglyceridaemia is the most likely to be associated with eruptive xanthoma. This is a genetic condition that causes high levels of triglycerides in the blood, and can lead to a range of health problems including cardiovascular disease. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, which is characterized by high blood sugar levels, can also be a risk factor for eruptive xanthoma.
It is important for individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia or diabetes mellitus to manage their condition through lifestyle changes and medication, in order to reduce the risk of complications such as eruptive xanthoma. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to prevent the development of this skin condition and other related health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance from a music festival. It is a hot day and she had been standing in the crowd when she suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. She is now fully alert and gives a history of feeling dizzy and nauseated before the collapse. She tells you that she is healthy, plays tennis for her local club and is a keen runner. She has had no previous episodes of losing consciousness. Her father has recently had a heart attack aged 60 years. Her resting electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a corrected QT interval of 400 ms and a slightly prolonged PR interval but is otherwise normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Long QT syndrome
Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Vasovagal Syncope
Vasovagal syncope is a common cause of transient loss of consciousness. The hallmark of this condition is the three Ps – pallor, palpitations, and sweating. In patients with a history of vasovagal syncope, the ECG is typically normal. A prolonged PR interval may be seen in young athletes, but first-degree heart block rarely causes cardiac syncope. Ischemic heart disease is not a significant factor in this condition, and a family history of myocardial infarction is not relevant.
If there are no features suggesting a more serious cause of transient loss of consciousness or a significant personal or family cardiac history, the patient can be discharged from the Emergency Department. However, they should be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any further episodes.
Other conditions that may cause transient loss of consciousness include complete heart block, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, substance misuse, and long QT syndrome. However, in this case, the patient’s history and ECG are not suggestive of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Accident and Emergency department. He is visibly distressed but gives a history of sudden onset central compressive chest pain radiating to his left upper limb. He is also nauseous and very sweaty. He has had previous myocardial infarctions (MI) in the past and claims the pain is identical to those episodes. ECG reveals an anterior ST elevation MI.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to thrombolysis?Your Answer: Brain neoplasm
Explanation:Relative and Absolute Contraindications to Thrombolysis
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for patients with ongoing cardiac ischemia and presentation within 12 hours of onset of pain. However, there are both relative and absolute contraindications to this treatment.
Absolute contraindications include internal or heavy PV bleeding, acute pancreatitis or severe liver disease, esophageal varices, active lung disease with cavitation, recent trauma or surgery within the past 2 weeks, severe hypertension (>200/120 mmHg), suspected aortic dissection, recent hemorrhagic stroke, cerebral neoplasm, and previous allergic reaction.
Relative contraindications include prolonged CPR, history of CVA, bleeding diathesis, anticoagulation, blood pressure of 180/100 mmHg, peptic ulcer, and pregnancy or recent delivery.
It is important to consider these contraindications before administering thrombolysis as they can increase the risk of complications. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention is the preferred treatment option, but if not available, thrombolysis can be a viable alternative. The benefit of thrombolysis decreases over time, and a target time of <30 minutes from admission for commencement of thrombolysis is typically recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient comes to your general practice with deteriorating shortness of breath and ankle swelling. You have been treating them for a few years for their congestive cardiac failure, which has been gradually worsening. Currently, the patient is at ease when resting, but standing up and walking a few steps cause their symptoms to appear. According to the New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification, what stage of heart failure are they in?
Your Answer: III
Explanation:Understanding NYHA Classification for Heart Failure Patients
The NYHA classification system is used to assess the severity of heart failure symptoms in patients. Class I indicates no limitation of physical activity, while class IV indicates severe limitations and symptoms even at rest. This patient falls under class III, with marked limitation of physical activity but no symptoms at rest. It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and use this classification system to properly manage and treat heart failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting and diarrhoea that has lasted for four days. He has been unable to keep down any fluids and is dehydrated, so he is started on an intravenous infusion. Upon investigation, his potassium level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9). What ECG abnormality would you anticipate?
Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves
Correct Answer: S-T segment depression
Explanation:Hypokalaemia and Hyperkalaemia
Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by excess loss of potassium from the gastrointestinal or renal tract, decreased oral intake of potassium, alkalosis, or insulin excess. Additionally, hypokalaemia can be seen if blood is taken from an arm in which IV fluid is being run. The characteristic ECG changes associated with hypokalaemia include S-T segment depression, U-waves, inverted T waves, and prolonged P-R interval.
On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. This can be caused by kidney failure, medications, or other medical conditions. The changes that may be seen with hyperkalaemia include tall, tented T-waves, wide QRS complexes, and small P waves.
It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of both hypokalaemia and hyperkalaemia in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions. Regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECG changes can help in the management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident. Upon examination, there are no visible signs of external bleeding, but his blood pressure is 90/40 mmHg and his heart rate is 120 bpm. He presents with distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds.
What is the most probable echocardiogram finding in this case?Your Answer: Haemothorax
Correct Answer: Pericardial effusion
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Trauma Patient with Beck’s Triad
When a trauma patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds, the clinician should suspect pericardial effusion, also known as cardiac tamponade. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial space, compressing the heart and impairing its function. In the context of chest trauma, pericardial effusion is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment.
Other conditions that may cause similar symptoms but have different underlying mechanisms include mitral regurgitation, pneumothorax, haemothorax, and pleural effusion. Mitral regurgitation refers to the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium due to a faulty mitral valve. While it can be detected on an echocardiogram, it is unlikely to cause Beck’s triad as it does not involve fluid accumulation outside the heart.
Pneumothorax is the presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause lung collapse and respiratory distress. A tension pneumothorax, in which air accumulates under pressure and shifts the mediastinum, can also compress the heart and impair its function. However, it would not be visible on an echocardiogram, which focuses on the heart and pericardium.
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural space, usually due to chest trauma or surgery. Like pneumothorax, it can cause respiratory compromise and hypovolemia, but it does not affect the heart directly and would not cause Beck’s triad.
Pleural effusion is a generic term for any fluid accumulation in the pleural space, which can be caused by various conditions such as infection, cancer, or heart failure. While it may cause respiratory symptoms and chest pain, it does not affect the heart’s function and would not cause Beck’s triad or be visible on an echocardiogram.
In summary, a trauma patient with Beck’s triad should be evaluated for pericardial effusion as the most likely cause, but other conditions such as tension pneumothorax or haemothorax should also be considered depending on the clinical context. An echocardiogram can help confirm or rule out pericardial effusion and guide further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia
Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.
According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.
In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Correct
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You are called to see a 62-year-old man who has suddenly deteriorated after pacemaker insertion. He has sudden-onset shortness of breath and is cold and clammy. On examination, his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, pulse 100 bpm and regular. His jugular venous pressure (JVP) is markedly elevated and his heart sounds are muffled. You give him oxygen and plasma volume expanders intravenously (iv).
Which of the following is the next most appropriate intervention?Your Answer: Prepare for pericardiocentesis
Explanation:Management of Cardiac Tamponade
Cardiac tamponade is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. The condition is characterized by a large amount of fluid in the pericardial sac, which can lead to compression of the heart and subsequent haemodynamic instability.
The first step in managing cardiac tamponade is to perform pericardiocentesis, which involves draining the fluid from the pericardial sac. Delaying this procedure can result in cardiac arrest and death.
While echocardiography can aid in diagnosis, it should not delay the initiation of pericardiocentesis. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for management. Swann-Ganz catheter insertion and inotropic support are also not recommended as they do not address the underlying cause of the condition.
In summary, prompt recognition and treatment of cardiac tamponade is crucial for patient survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain and has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0. Upon examination, the only notable finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation (AF). The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Blood tests (thyroid function tests (TFTs), full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests (LFTs), and coagulation screen) are normal, and a chest X-ray (CXR) is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Send home with a 24-hour three-lead ECG tape and review in 1 week
Correct Answer: IV flecainide
Explanation:Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can lead to serious complications such as stroke and heart failure. When a patient presents with acute AF, it is important to determine the underlying cause and choose the appropriate treatment. Here are some treatment options for acute AF:
Treatment options for acute atrial fibrillation
Initial investigation
The patient should be investigated for any reversible causes of AF such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests and a chest X-ray should be performed to rule out any underlying conditions.
Medical cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who have presented within 48 hours of the onset of AF.
Anticoagulation therapy
If the patient remains in persistent AF for more than 48 hours, their CHA2DS2 VASc score should be calculated to determine the risk of emboli. If the score is high, anticoagulation therapy should be started.
Trial of b-blocker
Sotalol is often used in paroxysmal AF as a ‘pill in the pocket’ regimen. However, in acute first-time presentations without significant cardiac risk factors, cardioversion should be attempted first.
Intravenous adenosine
This treatment may transiently block the atrioventricular (AV) node and is commonly used in atrial flutter. However, it is not recommended for use in acute AF presentation in an otherwise well patient.
In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for acute AF depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s risk factors. It is important to choose the right treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe crushing pain in his chest and left shoulder that has been ongoing for 2 hours. Despite taking sublingual nitroglycerin, the pain persists, and his electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in multiple leads. Due to preexisting renal impairment, primary percutaneous intervention (PCI) is not an option, and he is started on medical management in the Coronary Care Unit. The following day, his serum cardiac enzymes are found to be four times higher than the upper limit of normal, and his electrocardiographic changes remain.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Transmural infarction
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Myocardial Infarction and Angina
When a patient presents with elevated serum cardiac enzymes and typical myocardial pain, it is likely that a myocardial infarction has occurred. If the ST elevation is limited to a few leads, it is indicative of a transmural infarction caused by the occlusion of a coronary artery. On the other hand, severely hypotensive patients who are hospitalized typically experience a more generalized subendocardial infarction.
Unstable angina, which is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion, does not cause a rise in cardiac enzymes or ST elevation. Similarly, Prinzmetal angina, which is caused by coronary artery spasm, would not result in a marked increase in serum enzymes.
Stable angina, which is chest pain that occurs with exertion and is relieved by rest or medication, is not associated with ST elevation or a rise in cardiac enzymes.
Subendocardial infarction, which affects most ECG leads, usually occurs in the setting of shock. It is important to differentiate between the different types of myocardial infarction and angina in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman patient presents with a subacute history of lethargy and low-grade fever. Among other findings, full clinical examination reveals retinal haemorrhages with pale centres, painful red raised lesions on the hands and feet and subcentimetre, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet.
What is the underlying condition?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythaematosus
Correct Answer: Endocarditis
Explanation:Clinical Signs and Diagnosis of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis
Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is a condition caused by Streptococcus viridans, an oral commensal, and presents with malaise, weakness, and low-grade fever. Diagnosis is often delayed due to non-specific presentation, but it should be suspected in any febrile or unwell patient with a new or changing murmur. The three classic clinical signs of SBE are finger clubbing, Roth spots, and Osler’s nodes, along with Janeway lesions, which are subcentimeter, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet. Confirmation of SBE usually requires three separate sets of blood cultures taken in a 24-hour period, ideally during times the patient is febrile.
While Janeway lesions may be found in systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE), the combination of the three described findings is unique to SBE. Tuberculosis does not present with the above constellation of findings but would be expected to present with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Subacute meningococcal septicaemia typically gives a non-blanching petechial rash in the context of fulminating sepsis and does not present subacutely as described here. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients may have subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules on the extensor surfaces of the limbs, but RA does not give the findings described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 54-year-old man, with a family history of ischaemic heart disease, has been diagnosed with angina. His total cholesterol level is 6.5 mmol/l. He has been prescribed a statin and given dietary advice. What dietary modification is most likely to lower his cholesterol level?
Your Answer: Replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats
Explanation:Lowering Cholesterol Levels: Dietary Changes to Consider
To lower cholesterol levels, it is important to make dietary changes. One effective change is to replace saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats. Saturated fats increase cholesterol levels, while unsaturated fats lower them. It is recommended to reduce the percentage of daily energy intake from fat, with a focus on reducing saturated fats. Increasing intake of foods such as pulses, legumes, root vegetables, and unprocessed cereals can also help lower cholesterol. Using a margarine containing an added stanol ester can increase plant stanol intake, which can also reduce cholesterol. However, reducing intake of dairy products and meat alone may not be as effective as replacing them with beneficial unsaturated fats. It is important to avoid replacing polyunsaturated fats with saturated fats, as this can raise cholesterol levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of the anterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle, leading to valve prolapse. Which structure is most likely responsible for the prolapse?
Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve
Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cusps of the tricuspid valve
Explanation:Cusps and Papillary Muscles of the Heart Valves
The heart valves play a crucial role in regulating blood flow through the heart. The tricuspid and mitral valves are located between the atria and ventricles of the heart. These valves have cusps, which are flaps of tissue that open and close to allow blood to flow in one direction. The papillary muscles, located in the ventricles, attach to the cusps of the valves and help to control their movement.
Tricuspid Valve:
The tricuspid valve has three cusps: anterior, posterior, and septal. The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the anterior and posterior papillary muscles, respectively. The septal cusp is attached to the septal papillary muscle.Mitral Valve:
The mitral valve has two cusps: anterior and posterior. These cusps are not attached to papillary muscles directly, but rather to chordae tendineae, which are thin tendons that connect the cusps to the papillary muscles.Understanding the anatomy of the heart valves and their associated papillary muscles is important for diagnosing and treating heart conditions such as valve prolapse or regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.
The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:
Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
End systolic/End diastolic
Superior vena cava 58 -
Inferior vena cava 52 -
Right atrium (mean) 56 10
Right ventricle 55 105/9
Pulmonary artery - 16/8
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
Left atrium 97 -
Left ventricle 84 108/10
Aorta 74 110/80
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy
Explanation:Fallot’s Tetralogy
Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital after collapsing while shopping. During her inpatient investigations, she underwent cardiac catheterisation. The results of the procedure are listed below, including oxygen saturation levels, pressure measurements, and end systolic/end diastolic readings at various anatomical sites.
- Superior vena cava: 75% oxygen saturation, no pressure measurement available
- Right atrium: 73% oxygen saturation, 6 mmHg pressure
- Right ventricle: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/8 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary artery: 74% oxygen saturation, 30/12 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure: 18 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 98% oxygen saturation, 219/18 mmHg pressure (end systolic/end diastolic)
- Aorta: 99% oxygen saturation, 138/80 mmHg pressure
Based on these results, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Aortic Stenosis
There is a significant difference in pressure (81 mmHg) between the left ventricle and the aortic valve, indicating a critical case of aortic stenosis. Although hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) can also cause similar pressure differences, the patient’s age and clinical information suggest that aortic stenosis is more likely.
To determine the severity of aortic stenosis, the valve area and mean gradient are measured. A valve area greater than 1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient less than 25 mmHg indicate mild aortic stenosis. A valve area between 1.0-1.5 cm2 and a mean gradient between 25-50 mmHg indicate moderate aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 1.0 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 50 mmHg indicate severe aortic stenosis. A valve area less than 0.7 cm2 and a mean gradient greater than 80 mmHg indicate critical aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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In a 25-year-old woman undergoing a routine physical examination for a new job, a mid-systolic ejection murmur is discovered in the left upper sternal border. The cardiac examination reveals a significant right ventricular cardiac impulse and wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a right axis deviation, and a chest X-ray shows enlargement of the right ventricle and atrium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary valve stenosis
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities and their Clinical Findings
Atrial Septal Defect:
Atrial septal defect is characterized by a prominent right ventricular cardiac impulse, a systolic ejection murmur heard best in the pulmonic area and along the left sternal border, and fixed splitting of the second heart sound. These findings are due to an abnormal left-to-right shunt through the defect, which creates a volume overload on the right side. Small atrial septal defects are usually asymptomatic.Pulmonary Valve Stenosis:
Pulmonary valve stenosis causes an increased right ventricular pressure which results in right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary artery dilation. A crescendo–decrescendo murmur may be heard if there is a severe stenosis. Right atrial enlargement would not be present.Mitral Regurgitation:
Mitral regurgitation would also present with a systolic murmur; however, left atrial enlargement would be seen before right ventricular enlargement.Mitral Stenosis:
Mitral stenosis would present with an ‘opening snap’ and a diastolic murmur.Aortic Stenosis:
Aortic stenosis is also associated with a systolic ejection murmur. However, the murmur is usually loudest at the right sternal border and radiates upwards to the jugular notch. Aortic stenosis is associated with left ventricular hypertrophy.Clinical Findings of Common Cardiac Abnormalities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Correct
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What are the clinical signs that indicate a child has acute rheumatic fever carditis?
Your Answer: Pericardial rub
Explanation:Acute Rheumatic Fever
Acute rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs after a bacterial infection and is caused by pathogenic antibodies. It is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response that affects the heart, joints, and skin. The condition is triggered by antibodies that cross-react with cardiac tissue, which can lead to pancarditis, arthritis, and intra-dermal inflammation. The diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever is based on a combination of clinical and investigatory findings, which are known as the revised Jones criteria.
The pancarditis associated with acute rheumatic fever can cause a sustained tachycardia, which is particularly prominent at night. Conduction abnormalities, including prolonged PR interval, are also common. Pericarditis may be detected clinically with a pericardial rub, and patients may exhibit features of congestive cardiac failure, such as cardiomegaly. Several murmurs are recognized in patients with acute rheumatic fever, including aortic regurgitation, mitral regurgitation, and the Carey Coombs murmur.
In summary, acute rheumatic fever is a serious condition that can have significant effects on the heart, joints, and skin. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The revised Jones criteria provide guidance for clinicians in making an accurate diagnosis and initiating appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old, 80 kg woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain that began 5 hours ago. She has no known allergies and is not taking any regular medications. Her electrocardiogram shows T-wave inversion in lateral leads but no ST changes, and her serum troponin level is significantly elevated. What is the appropriate combination of drugs to administer immediately?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, prasugrel 60 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg
Explanation:For patients with different combinations of medications, the appropriate treatment plan may vary. In general, aspirin should be given as soon as possible and other medications may be added depending on the patient’s condition and the likelihood of undergoing certain procedures. For example, if angiography is not planned within 24 hours of admission, a loading dose of aspirin and prasugrel with fondaparinux may be given. If PCI is planned, unfractionated heparin may be considered. The specific dosages and medications may differ based on the patient’s individual needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with ischaemic heart disease presents with sudden onset palpitations. She has no other complaints. On examination, a regular tachycardia is present. Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Chest is clear. ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a QRS width of 80 ms and a rate of 149 beats per min in a sawtooth pattern.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Atrial flutter
Explanation:Common Cardiac Arrhythmias: Types and Characteristics
Cardiac arrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can cause serious health complications. Here are some common types of cardiac arrhythmias and their characteristics:
1. Atrial Flutter: A type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG. It is caused by a premature electrical impulse in the atrium and can degenerate into atrial fibrillation. Treatment involves rate or rhythm control, and electrical cardioversion is more effective than in atrial fibrillation.
2. Fast Atrial Fibrillation: Another type of supraventricular tachycardia that presents as an irregularly irregular tachycardia.
3. Ventricular Tachycardia: A common arrhythmia in cardiopaths that is characterized by a wide-complex tachycardia on ECG.
4. Mobitz Type II: A form of second-degree heart block that is characterized by intermittent non-conducted P waves on ECG without progressive prolongation of the QRS interval.
5. Brugada Syndrome: A rare electrophysiological condition that causes sudden death in young adults. ECG findings usually show ST elevation in leads V1 to V3 with a right bundle branch block.
It is important to identify and treat cardiac arrhythmias promptly to prevent serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A patient presents to the Emergency Department following a fracture dislocation of his ankle after a night out drinking vodka red-bulls. His blood pressure is low at 90/50 mmHg. He insists that it is never normally that low.
Which one of these is a possible cause for this reading?Your Answer: Alcohol and caffeine
Correct Answer: Incorrect cuff size (cuff too large)
Explanation:Common Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
Blood pressure readings can be affected by various factors, including cuff size, alcohol and caffeine consumption, white coat hypertension, pain, and more. It is important to be aware of these factors to ensure accurate readings.
Incorrect Cuff Size:
Using a cuff that is too large can result in an underestimation of blood pressure, while a cuff that is too small can cause a falsely elevated reading.Alcohol and Caffeine:
Both alcohol and caffeine can cause a temporary increase in blood pressure.White Coat Hypertension:
Many patients experience elevated blood pressure in medical settings due to anxiety. To obtain an accurate reading, blood pressure should be measured repeatedly on separate occasions.Pain:
Pain is a common cause of blood pressure increase and should be taken into consideration during medical procedures. A significant rise in blood pressure during a procedure may indicate inadequate anesthesia.Factors Affecting Blood Pressure Readings
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which congenital cardiac defect is correctly matched with its associated syndrome from the following options?
Your Answer: Turner syndrome and coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Common Cardiovascular Abnormalities Associated with Genetic Syndromes
Various genetic syndromes are associated with cardiovascular abnormalities. Turner syndrome is linked with coarctation of the aorta, aortic stenosis, bicuspid aortic valve, aortic dilation, and dissection. Marfan syndrome is associated with aortic root dilation, mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, and aortic dissection. Kartagener syndrome can lead to bicuspid aortic valve, dextrocardia, bronchiectasis, and infertility. However, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not associated with congenital cardiac conditions. Finally, congenital rubella syndrome is linked with patent ductus arteriosus, atrial septal defect, and pulmonary stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with exertional chest pain. He reports that this has only begun in the past few days, particularly when climbing hills. The pain is not present when he is at rest.
What is the gold standard test that you will request for this patient from the following tests?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiogram
Explanation:Investigating Cardiac Chest Pain: Recommended Tests
When a patient presents with cardiac chest pain, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to determine the underlying cause. The following tests are recommended:
Computed Tomography (CT) Coronary Angiogram: This non-invasive test uses CT scanning to detect any evidence of coronary artery disease and determine its extent. It is considered the gold standard test for investigating cardiac chest pain.
Angiogram: Before undergoing an angiogram, the patient should first have an exercise tolerance test (ETT) to assess real-time cardiac function during exertion. If the patient experiences ischaemic changes and reduced exercise tolerance, an angiogram may be necessary.
Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray is not a priority investigation for cardiac chest pain, as it does not aid in diagnosis unless there is evidence of associated heart failure or pleural effusions.
Full Blood Count: While anaemia could contribute to angina, a full blood count is not a first-line investigation for cardiac chest pain.
Troponin: Troponin levels may be raised in cases of myocardial damage, but are not necessary for managing angina. The recurring pain and relief with rest indicate angina, rather than a myocardial infarction (MI), which would present with crushing chest pain and dyspnoea that is not alleviated by rest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?Your Answer: Patchy shadowing bilaterally in the lower zones
Correct Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing
Explanation:Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure
Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:
– Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
– Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
– Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
– Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
– Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure. She expresses interest in learning about medications that can potentially decrease mortality in heart failure. Which drug has been proven to have this effect?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Common Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Limitations
Heart failure is a chronic condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for heart failure, medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of heart failure, along with their benefits and limitations.
Spironolactone: Recent trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality in severe heart failure. This drug works by antagonizing the deleterious effects of aldosterone on cardiac remodeling, rather than its diuretic effect.
Simvastatin: While statins are effective in reducing morbidity and mortality in patients with coronary artery disease, their beneficial effects in heart failure remain inconclusive.
Atenolol: Atenolol has not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in heart failure and is not used as part of the condition’s management. However, certain beta-blockers like carvedilol, metoprolol, or bisoprolol are recommended in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE-I) therapy.
Furosemide: Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, particularly for relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (CCF).
Digoxin: Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACE-I, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic. Some studies suggest a decreased rate in CHF-related hospital admissions.
In conclusion, while these medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life in heart failure patients, their limitations should also be considered. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Correct
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A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is instructed to listen to the patient's heart. The student places the stethoscope over the patient's fourth left intercostal space just lateral to the sternum.
What heart valve's normal sounds would be best detected with the stethoscope positioned as described?Your Answer: Tricuspid
Explanation:Auscultation of Heart Valves: Locations and Sounds
The human heart has four valves that regulate blood flow. These valves can be heard through auscultation, a medical technique that involves listening to the sounds produced by the heart using a stethoscope. Here are the locations and sounds of each valve:
Tricuspid Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard at the left sternal border in the fourth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.
Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard over the right sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.
Pulmonary Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard over the left sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.
Thebesian Valve: The Thebesian valve is located in the coronary sinus and its closure cannot be auscultated.
Mitral Valve: This valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard by listening at the apex, in the left mid-clavicular line in the fifth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.
In summary, auscultation of heart valves is an important diagnostic tool that can help healthcare professionals identify potential heart problems. By knowing the locations and sounds of each valve, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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