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  • Question 1 - A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood test is requested to check PTH levels, serum calcium, phosphate and vitamin D.

      Which of the following levels also need to be specifically checked?

      Your Answer: CRP

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is magnesium, as it is necessary for the secretion and function of parathyroid hormone. Adequate magnesium levels are required for the hormone to have its desired effects. CRP, urea, and platelets are not relevant to this situation and do not need to be tested.

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      9.4
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  • Question 2 - A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns about ambiguous genitalia. After gathering information and conducting various tests, the doctor determines that the cause is congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is linked to a deficiency in which specific enzyme?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone synthase

      Correct Answer: 21-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Insufficient production of cortisol and compensatory adrenal hyperplasia are the consequences of 21-hydroxylase deficiency. This leads to elevated androgen production and ambiguous genitalia. However, enzymes such as 5-a reductase, aromatase, 17B-HSD, and aldosterone synthase are not involved in this disorder. Other enzymes, including 11-beta hydroxylase and 17-hydroxylase, may also be involved.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.

      Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to the endocrine clinic by her GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to the endocrine clinic by her GP due to bed wetting episodes. She experiences constant thirst and frequent urination. A dipstick test reveals diluted urine with low osmolality, and her blood tests show hypernatremia with high serum osmolality. Her family has a history of diabetes insipidus. What is the most suitable follow-up examination?

      Your Answer: Water loading test

      Correct Answer: Water deprivation test

      Explanation:

      A water deprivation test is the most appropriate method for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. This test involves withholding water from the patient for a period of time to stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and monitor changes in serum and urine osmolality. Other methods such as urinary sodium or bladder ultrasound scan are not as effective in diagnosing this condition.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 67 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion

      Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.

      Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

      In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old male visits his GP complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male visits his GP complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia that have persisted for 4 months. He has a medical history of OCD, which was diagnosed 2 years ago. After a series of tests, the patient is diagnosed with primary polydipsia.

      What would be the probable outcome of this patient's water deprivation test?

      Your Answer: Low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but high after desmopressin

      Correct Answer: High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old patient, Gwyneth, is being examined by her physician for recurring dizziness...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient, Gwyneth, is being examined by her physician for recurring dizziness upon standing up, which is interfering with her daily activities. Gwyneth is in good health and does not take any regular medications. The physician diagnoses Gwyneth with orthostatic hypotension and prescribes fludrocortisone as a treatment.

      What is the most probable side effect that Gwyneth may encounter?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulceration

      Correct Answer: Fluid retention

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are a class of medications commonly prescribed for various clinical uses, such as treating allergies, inflammatory conditions, auto-immunity, and endogenous steroid replacement.

      There are different types of corticosteroids, each with varying levels of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Glucocorticoids mimic cortisol, which is involved in carbohydrate metabolism and the stress response, while mineralocorticoids mimic aldosterone, which regulates sodium and water retention in response to low blood pressure.

      The clinical uses and side effects of corticosteroids depend on their level of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity. Fludrocortisone, for example, has minimal glucocorticoid activity and high mineralocorticoid activity.

      Therefore, fluid retention is the most associated side effect with mineralocorticoid activity, while depression, hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, and peptic ulceration are side effects associated with glucocorticoid activity.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is worried that his daughter has not yet had a menstrual period. The girl reports that she has been unable to smell for as long as she can remember but is otherwise in good health. During the examination, the girl is found to have underdeveloped breasts and no pubic hair. Her vital signs and body mass index are within normal limits.

      What is the probable reason for the girl's condition?

      Your Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Correct Answer: Kallman syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this girl is Kallmann syndrome, which is characterized by a combination of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia. This genetic disorder occurs due to a failure in neuron migration, resulting in deficient hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) and a lack of secondary sexual characteristics. Anosmia is a distinguishing feature of Kallmann syndrome compared to other causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Congenital adrenal hypoplasia, which results in insufficient cortisol production due to adrenal cortex enzyme deficiency, can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism but is less likely in this case due to the presence of anosmia. Imperforate hymen, which presents with lower abdominal/pelvic pain without vaginal bleeding, is not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Malnutrition is not indicated as a possible diagnosis.

      Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 8 - A father is concerned about his 14-month-old child who has been having up...

    Correct

    • A father is concerned about his 14-month-old child who has been having up to 10 wet nappies a day. He recalls that his cousin had a kidney condition and wonders if it could be affecting his child. After being referred to a paediatrician, the doctor mentions the possibility of Bartter's syndrome.

      What is the root cause of Bartter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Mutated NKCC2 channel in the ascending loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The cause of Bartter’s syndrome is a faulty NKCC2 channel located in the ascending loop of Henle.

      Polydipsia, polyuria, and dehydration are common symptoms of Bartter’s syndrome, which is an inherited disorder resulting from mutated NKCC2 channels.

      Gitelman syndrome is a related condition caused by a mutated NCl symporter.

      Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus are characterized by mutated ADH receptors and a lack of ADH production, respectively.

      Bartter’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes severe hypokalaemia due to a defect in the absorption of chloride at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. This disorder is usually inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalaemia, such as Conn’s, Cushing’s, and Liddle’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome is associated with normotension. Loop diuretics work by inhibiting NKCC2, which is similar to the effects of Bartter’s syndrome. The symptoms of Bartter’s syndrome usually appear in childhood and include failure to thrive, polyuria, polydipsia, hypokalaemia, normotension, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old woman is experiencing renal colic and is being evaluated for possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman is experiencing renal colic and is being evaluated for possible MEN IIa. What is the most common parathyroid gland abnormality associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Adenoma

      Correct Answer: Hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Medullary thyroid cancer, hypercalcaemia, and phaeochromocytoma are associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIa. The most frequent occurrence in this condition is medullary thyroid cancer, while hyperplasia is the most common lesion in the parathyroid glands. In contrast, parathyroid adenoma is the most common lesion in MEN I.

      Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal dominant disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three main types of MEN, each with its own set of associated features. MEN type I is characterized by the 3 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic tumors such as insulinomas and gastrinomas. MEN type IIa is associated with the 2 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma, as well as medullary thyroid cancer. MEN type IIb is characterized by phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and a marfanoid body habitus.

      The most common presentation of MEN is hypercalcaemia, which is often seen in MEN type I due to parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN type IIa and IIb are both associated with medullary thyroid cancer, which is caused by mutations in the RET oncogene. MEN type I is caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated features is important for early diagnosis and management of this rare but potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of sudden palpitations and occasional...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of sudden palpitations and occasional headaches without any apparent cause. She has no significant medical history and denies any stress in her personal or professional life. During the examination, she appears to be sweating and has a pale conjunctiva. Her heart rate is 120 beats per minute, regularly regular, and her blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. The doctor suspects a phaeochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla.

      Which test is the most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urinary free cortisol

      Correct Answer: Urinary free adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Extra-adrenal tumors are often located near the aortic bifurcation and can be identified through a urinary free adrenaline test, which measures the levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline produced by the adrenal medulla. Meanwhile, a 24-hour urinary free cortisol test is used to diagnose Cushing’s Disease, which is caused by excessive cortisol production from the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. The aldosterone-renin ratio test is used to diagnose Conn’s Disease, which is caused by excessive aldosterone production from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. Androgens are produced by the zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex. Addison’s Disease, a deficiency of cortisol, can be diagnosed through a short synacthen test.

      Adrenal Physiology: Medulla and Cortex

      The adrenal gland is composed of two main parts: the medulla and the cortex. The medulla is responsible for secreting the catecholamines noradrenaline and adrenaline, which are released in response to sympathetic nervous system stimulation. The chromaffin cells of the medulla are innervated by the splanchnic nerves, and the release of these hormones is triggered by the secretion of acetylcholine from preganglionic sympathetic fibers. Phaeochromocytomas, which are tumors derived from chromaffin cells, can cause excessive secretion of both adrenaline and noradrenaline.

      The adrenal cortex is divided into three distinct zones: the zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis. Each zone is responsible for secreting different hormones. The outer zone, zona glomerulosa, secretes aldosterone, which regulates electrolyte balance and blood pressure. The middle zone, zona fasciculata, secretes glucocorticoids, which are involved in the regulation of metabolism, immune function, and stress response. The inner zone, zona reticularis, secretes androgens, which are involved in the development and maintenance of male sex characteristics.

      Most of the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex, including glucocorticoids and aldosterone, are bound to plasma proteins in the circulation. Glucocorticoids are inactivated and excreted by the liver. Understanding the physiology of the adrenal gland is important for the diagnosis and treatment of various endocrine disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a typical physiological response to increase calcium levels? In the kidney, where does parathyroid hormone act to enhance calcium reabsorption?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia undergoes his yearly physical examination. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia undergoes his yearly physical examination. He is currently taking risperidone as part of his medication regimen.

      What is the most common issue that can be linked to the use of risperidone in this patient?

      Your Answer: High libido

      Correct Answer: Galactorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, has the potential to increase prolactin levels. This is because it inhibits dopamine, which reduces dopamine-mediated inhibition of prolactin. Although elevated prolactin may not cause any symptoms, it can have adverse effects if persistently elevated. One of the major roles of prolactin is to stimulate milk production in the mammary glands. Therefore, any cause of raised prolactin can result in milk production, which is known as galactorrhoea. This can occur in both males and females due to raised prolactin levels. Galactorrhoea is the most likely side effect caused by risperidone.

      Raised prolactin levels can also lead to reduced libido and infertility in both sexes. However, it is unlikely to result in increased libido. Prolactin can interfere with other hormones, such as oestrogen and progesterone, which can cause irregular periods, but it does not specifically cause painful periods. Elevated levels of prolactin would not result in seizures. Risperidone is more likely to be associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, as it acts on the histamine receptor.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old male patient comes to the follow-up clinic after undergoing surgery to...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient comes to the follow-up clinic after undergoing surgery to remove an endocrine gland. He had been experiencing symptoms such as profuse sweating, headaches, palpitations, and high blood pressure (200/120mmHg) prior to the decision for surgery. What type of cells would be revealed through histological staining of the removed organ?

      Your Answer: Parafollicular C cells

      Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells

      Explanation:

      The man’s initial symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma, a type of neuroendocrine tumor that affects the chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. This condition leads to an overproduction of adrenaline and noradrenaline, resulting in an excessive sympathetic response.

      Calcitonin is secreted by the parafollicular C cells in the thyroid gland.

      The anterior pituitary gland contains gonadotropes, lactotropes, and thyrotropes, which secrete gonadotropins (FSH, LH), prolactin, and TSH, respectively.

      Phaeochromocytoma: A Rare Tumor that Secretes Catecholamines

      Phaeochromocytoma is a type of tumor that secretes catecholamines and is considered rare. It is familial in about 10% of cases and may be associated with certain syndromes such as MEN type II, neurofibromatosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. This tumor can be bilateral in 10% of cases and malignant in 10%. It can also occur outside of the adrenal gland, with the most common site being the organ of Zuckerkandl, which is adjacent to the bifurcation of the aorta.

      The symptoms of phaeochromocytoma are typically episodic and include hypertension (which is present in around 90% of cases and may be sustained), headaches, palpitations, sweating, and anxiety. To diagnose this condition, a 24-hour urinary collection of metanephrines is preferred over a 24-hour urinary collection of catecholamines due to its higher sensitivity (97%).

      Surgery is the definitive management for phaeochromocytoma. However, before surgery, the patient must first be stabilized with medical management, which includes an alpha-blocker (such as phenoxybenzamine) given before a beta-blocker (such as propranolol).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old patient presented to her doctor with a complaint of feeling down...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old patient presented to her doctor with a complaint of feeling down for the past month. She works as a teacher and has had to take time off as she felt she was not able to perform well in her job. She reports feeling fatigued all the time and has no motivation to engage in her usual activities. She has also noticed some weight gain despite a decreased appetite since she last weighed herself and she observed that her face has become more round. During examination, the doctor finds a pulse of 59 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 105/63 mmHg. The doctor also notes that the neck region overlying the thyroid gland is symmetrically enlarged but the patient denies any pain or tenderness when the doctor palpated her neck. What is the most likely pathological feature in this patient?

      Your Answer: Nodular enlargement of the thyroid along with colloid-filled cystic and hypercellular regions

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid gland and the formation of germinal centers

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and history suggest a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which is commonly caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis in developed countries. This autoimmune condition is more prevalent in women and certain populations, such as the elderly and those with HLA-DR3, 4, and 5 polymorphisms. Other thyroid conditions, such as subacute thyroiditis, Riedel’s thyroiditis, multinodular goitres, and papillary carcinoma, have different characteristic features.

      Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with confusion, drowsiness, and nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with confusion, drowsiness, and nausea accompanied by vomiting. His daughter reports that he has been feeling fatigued and unwell with a persistent cough, and he has been smoking 20 cigarettes per day for 45 years. The patient is unable to provide a complete medical history due to his confusion, but he mentions that he sometimes coughs up blood and his urine has been darker than usual. On examination, he appears to be short of breath but euvolaemic. Blood tests reveal low serum sodium, high urinary sodium, low plasma osmolality, and high urinary osmolality. Renal and thyroid function tests are normal. A chest x-ray shows a lung carcinoma, leading you to suspect that this presentation may be caused by a syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.

      What is the underlying mechanism responsible for the hyponatraemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

      Explanation:

      The insertion of aquaporin-2 channels is promoted by antidiuretic hormone, which facilitates water reabsorption. However, in the case of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SiADH), which is caused by small cell lung cancer, the normal negative feedback loop fails, resulting in the continuous production of ADH even when serum osmolality returns to normal. This leads to euvolemic hyponatremia, where the body retains water but continues to lose sodium, resulting in concentrated urine. The underlying mechanism of this condition is the persistent increase in the number of aquaporin-2 channels, which promotes water reabsorption, rather than any effect on sodium transport mechanisms.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 16 - A 47-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of erectile dysfunction...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man comes to your clinic with a complaint of erectile dysfunction for the past 6 weeks. He also mentions that his nipples have been lactating. You inform him that these symptoms could be a result of his body producing too much prolactin hormone and suggest testing his serum prolactin levels. Which part of the body secretes prolactin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland releases prolactin, which can cause hyperprolactinaemia. This condition can lead to impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea in men, and amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea in women. The hypothalamus, parathyroid glands, adrenal gland, and posterior pituitary gland also release hormones that play important roles in maintaining homoeostasis. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused by various factors, including certain medications.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia

      Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.

      Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.

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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man has a laparotomy and repair of incisional hernia. Which hormone...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has a laparotomy and repair of incisional hernia. Which hormone is most unlikely to be released in higher amounts after the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Reduced secretion of insulin and thyroxine is common after surgery, which can make it challenging to manage diabetes in people with insulin resistance due to the additional release of glucocorticoids.

      Surgery triggers a stress response that causes hormonal and metabolic changes in the body. This response is characterized by substrate mobilization, muscle protein loss, sodium and water retention, suppression of anabolic hormone secretion, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, and immunological and haematological changes. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis and the sympathetic nervous systems are activated, and the normal feedback mechanisms of control of hormone secretion fail. The stress response is associated with increased growth hormone, cortisol, renin, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), aldosterone, prolactin, antidiuretic hormone, and glucagon, while insulin, testosterone, oestrogen, thyroid stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle stimulating hormone are decreased or remain unchanged. The metabolic effects of cortisol are enhanced, including skeletal muscle protein breakdown, stimulation of lipolysis, anti-insulin effect, mineralocorticoid effects, and anti-inflammatory effects. The stress response also affects carbohydrate, protein, lipid, salt and water metabolism, and cytokine release. Modifying the response can be achieved through opioids, spinal anaesthesia, nutrition, growth hormone, anabolic steroids, and normothermia.

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  • Question 19 - A 39-year old male visits the GP complaining of nipple discharge. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old male visits the GP complaining of nipple discharge. Upon examination, it is found that his serum prolactin levels are significantly high. Besides prolactin releasing hormone, which other hypothalamic hormone can stimulate the secretion of prolactin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

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  • Question 20 - Mr. Smith is a 54-year-old man who visits your GP clinic for his...

    Incorrect

    • Mr. Smith is a 54-year-old man who visits your GP clinic for his annual review of his type 2 diabetes. He informs you that he has been managing it through diet for a few years, but lately, he has gained some weight. His latest HbA1C reading is 9.8% (normal range 3.7-5.0%). You suggest continuous dietary advice and prescribe metformin to regulate his blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements about metformin is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      While some diabetic treatments such as insulin and sulfonylureas can lead to weight gain, metformin is not associated with this side effect. Metformin functions by enhancing insulin sensitivity and reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis, without directly impacting insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells, thus it does not cause significant hypoglycemia. Ghrelin, a hormone that controls appetite, is not influenced by any diabetic medications.

      Understanding Diabetes Mellitus: A Basic Overview

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition characterized by abnormally raised levels of blood glucose. It is one of the most common conditions encountered in clinical practice and represents a significant burden on the health systems of the developed world. The management of diabetes mellitus is crucial as untreated type 1 diabetes would usually result in death. Poorly treated type 1 diabetes mellitus can still result in significant morbidity and mortality. The main focus of diabetes management now is reducing the incidence of macrovascular and microvascular complications.

      There are different types of diabetes mellitus, including type 1 diabetes mellitus, type 2 diabetes mellitus, prediabetes, gestational diabetes, maturity onset diabetes of the young, latent autoimmune diabetes of adults, and other types. The presentation of diabetes mellitus depends on the type, with type 1 diabetes mellitus often presenting with weight loss, polydipsia, polyuria, and diabetic ketoacidosis. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes mellitus is often picked up incidentally on routine blood tests and presents with polydipsia and polyuria.

      There are four main ways to check blood glucose, including a finger-prick bedside glucose monitor, a one-off blood glucose, a HbA1c, and a glucose tolerance test. The diagnostic criteria are determined by WHO, with a fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l and random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l being diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Management of diabetes mellitus involves drug therapy to normalize blood glucose levels, monitoring for and treating any complications related to diabetes, and modifying any other risk factors for other conditions such as cardiovascular disease. The first-line drug for the vast majority of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is metformin, with second-line drugs including sulfonylureas, gliptins, and pioglitazone. Insulin is used if oral medication is not controlling the blood glucose to a sufficient degree.

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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old male comes to see you with worries about his weight. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male comes to see you with worries about his weight. He has a BMI of 32 and you suspect he may have metabolic syndrome. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dyslipidaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic syndrome is a group of risk factors for cardiovascular disease that are closely related to insulin resistance and central obesity.

      The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome vary widely, but the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) and American Heart Association (AHA) have established their own criteria, which are commonly used. A diagnosis is made if three or more of the following criteria are present: increased waist circumference (depending on ethnicity) or a BMI greater than 30, dyslipidemia with elevated triglycerides greater than 150 mg/dL or reduced HDL-cholesterol, hypertension, and impaired glucose tolerance.

      The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin

      Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.

      Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.

      In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.

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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated by her diabetic nurse. Despite taking metformin for the past 6 months, her glycaemic control remains poor. To improve management, the decision is made to add sitagliptin (a dipeptidyl-peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitor) to her current metformin regimen.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased levels of glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)

      Explanation:

      DPP-4 inhibitors, like sitagliptin, work by inhibiting the breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP. This leads to higher levels of insulin being released, as incretins increase insulin release. These inhibitors are often weight-neutral, but can occasionally cause weight loss.

      The answer Increases cell sensitivity to insulin is incorrect, as this is the mechanism of action of metformin, not DPP-4 inhibitors. Metformin increases cell sensitivity to insulin, but the exact mechanism is not fully understood.

      Similarly, Inhibition of sodium-glucose co-transporter (SGLT2) is incorrect, as this is the mechanism of action of SGLT2 inhibitors, not DPP-4 inhibitors. SGLT2 inhibitors prevent glucose absorption in the kidneys, leading to higher levels of glucose in the urine and an increased risk of urinary tract infections.

      Lastly, Increases adipogenesis is incorrect, as this is the mechanism of action of thiazolidinediones, not DPP-4 inhibitors. Thiazolidinediones stimulate adipogenesis, causing cells to become more dependent on glucose for energy.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry, she reports experiencing polyphagia and polydipsia as well. Her blood test reveals hyperglycaemia and low C-peptide levels.

      What is the underlying mechanism causing her hyperglycaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased GLUT-4 expression

      Explanation:

      The movement of glucose into cells requires insulin. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from type 1 diabetes mellitus or latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA) with low c-peptide levels, indicating a complete lack of insulin. As a result, insulin is unable to stimulate the expression of GLUT-4, which significantly reduces the uptake of glucose into skeletal and adipose cells.

      The patient’s low GLUT-1 expression is unlikely to be the cause of hyperglycemia. GLUT-1 is primarily expressed in fetal tissues and has a higher affinity for oxygen, allowing fetal cells to survive even in hypoglycemic conditions.

      GLUT-2 expression is mainly found in hepatocytes and beta-cells of the pancreas. It allows for the bi-directional movement of glucose, equalizing glucose concentrations inside and outside the cell membrane, and enabling glucose-sensitive cells to measure serum glucose levels and respond accordingly.

      GLUT-3 expression is mainly found in neuronal cells and has a high affinity, similar to GLUT-1. This allows for the survival of brain cells in hypoglycemic conditions.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

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  • Question 24 - At their yearly diabetic check-up, a 65-year-old individual is discovered to have insufficient...

    Incorrect

    • At their yearly diabetic check-up, a 65-year-old individual is discovered to have insufficient glycaemic management despite being treated with metformin and pioglitazone. As a result, it is determined to initiate an SGLT-2 inhibitor alongside their current medication.

      What is the site of action for this newly prescribed drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal proximal convoluted tubules

      Explanation:

      SGLT-2 inhibitors work by reversibly blocking the activity of sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) in the renal proximal convoluted tubule. This is the correct answer.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 25 - A 57-year-old woman presents for her routine check-up. She has recently been prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents for her routine check-up. She has recently been prescribed insulin for management of her type 2 diabetes. While discussing her medical history, she reports experiencing numbness in her entire right foot. Upon examination, an ulcer is observed on the webbing between her fourth and fifth toes.

      What would be the most appropriate next course of action to investigate this woman's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full neurovascular examination of the lower limbs

      Explanation:

      The two main factors that contribute to diabetic foot disease are loss of sensation and peripheral arterial disease. When reviewing a diabetic patient who presents with a complication, it is crucial to recognize that those with a loss of protective sensation are at a high risk of developing diabetic foot disease. Therefore, any ulcers must be promptly managed to prevent severe infection.

      Out of the given options, the most appropriate next step in managing this patient is to conduct a full neurovascular examination of their lower limbs. While checking the HbA1C levels is important, it is not the immediate concern for this patient. Similarly, examining foot sensation using a 10g monofilament is a crucial step, but it is only a part of a comprehensive neurovascular examination. Measuring C-peptide is not relevant to the current situation.

      Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which can cause macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene.

      All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, and the presence of calluses or neuropathy. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.

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  • Question 26 - A 67-year-old man has visited the doctor with concerns about his blood glucose...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has visited the doctor with concerns about his blood glucose levels. He has type 1 diabetes and also suffers from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Following a recent bout of pneumonia, he has been experiencing difficulty in managing his blood sugars. You suspect that one of his newly prescribed medications may be contributing to this issue. Which medication could be causing acute problems with diabetic control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The use of corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, can have a negative impact on diabetic control due to their anti-insulin effects. This can cause an increase in glucagon levels, leading to elevated blood sugar levels. While this effect is usually temporary and should resolve on its own, higher doses of insulin may be necessary during treatment. Prednisolone is often prescribed to manage exacerbations of COPD.

      Amoxicillin, a penicillin antibiotic, can be prescribed alongside prednisolone to treat infective asthma exacerbations. Its bactericidal effects are unlikely to affect diabetes control.

      Carbocisteine is a mucolytic medication commonly used for long-term management of COPD and bronchiectasis. It helps to thin sputum in the lungs, making it easier to cough up and preventing colonization. It is not known to worsen diabetes control.

      Doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is commonly used to treat COPD exacerbations. However, it does not typically affect blood sugar control and is unlikely to be a contributing factor in this case.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old Caucasian male visits his doctor complaining of numbness in his extremities...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old Caucasian male visits his doctor complaining of numbness in his extremities and tingling sensations around his mouth and lips. He has undergone a thyroidectomy in the past. During a complete cranial nerve examination, the physician observes facial muscle twitching upon tapping the patient's face.

      What is the reason for the facial muscle twitching observed during the examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased irritability of peripheral nerves due to hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Chvostek’s sign is a facial twitch that occurs when the distribution of the facial nerve in front of the tragus is tapped. This sign is caused by increased irritability of peripheral nerves, which is often seen in cases of hypocalcemia. In fact, Chvostek’s sign is considered the most reliable test for hypocalcemia.

      Calcium homeostasis is the process of regulating the concentration of calcium ions in the extracellular fluid. This is important because calcium ions help stabilize voltage-gated ion channels. When calcium levels are too low, these ion channels become more easily activated, leading to hyperactivity in nerve and muscle cells. This can result in hypocalcemic tetany, which is characterized by involuntary muscle spasms. On the other hand, when calcium levels are too high, voltage-gated ion channels become less responsive, leading to depressed nervous system function.

      Understanding Hypoparathyroidism

      Hypoparathyroidism is a medical condition that occurs when there is a decrease in the secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH). This can be caused by primary hypoparathyroidism, which is often a result of thyroid surgery, leading to low calcium and high phosphate levels. Treatment for this type of hypoparathyroidism involves the use of alfacalcidol. The main symptoms of hypoparathyroidism are due to hypocalcaemia and include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. Other symptoms include Trousseau’s sign, which is carpal spasm when the brachial artery is occluded, and Chvostek’s sign, which is facial muscle twitching when the parotid is tapped. Chronic hypoparathyroidism can lead to depression and cataracts, and ECG may show a prolonged QT interval.

      Pseudohypoparathyroidism is another type of hypoparathyroidism that occurs when the target cells are insensitive to PTH due to an abnormality in a G protein. This condition is associated with low IQ, short stature, and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals. The diagnosis is made by measuring urinary cAMP and phosphate levels following an infusion of PTH. In hypoparathyroidism, this will cause an increase in both cAMP and phosphate levels. In pseudohypoparathyroidism type I, neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are increased, while in pseudohypoparathyroidism type II, only cAMP rises. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism is a similar condition to pseudohypoparathyroidism, but with normal biochemistry.

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  • Question 28 - A 39-year-old male presents to an endocrine clinic with acromegaly caused by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male presents to an endocrine clinic with acromegaly caused by a growth hormone-secreting tumor. The patient is prescribed Octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, to suppress growth hormone release.

      What additional hormonal effects can be attributed to somatostatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreases secretion of glucagon

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on the secretion of glucagon, but it does not affect the secretion of estrogen. It also decreases the secretion of insulin, and overproduction of somatostatin can lead to diabetes mellitus. Additionally, somatostatin reduces the secretion of gastrin, which in turn decreases the production of gastric acid by parietal cells. It also decreases the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), resulting in a decrease in the production of thyroxine in the thyroid.

      Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone

      Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.

      The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.

      In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.

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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old man who has been morbidly obese for the past six years...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man who has been morbidly obese for the past six years is being evaluated at the surgical bariatric clinic. Which hormone release would lead to an increase in appetite in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ghrelin

      Explanation:

      Leptin is a hormone that reduces appetite, while ghrelin is a hormone that stimulates appetite. Although thyroxine can increase appetite, it is not consistent with the symptoms being described.

      The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin

      Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.

      Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.

      In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.

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  • Question 30 - As a medical student on a gastrointestinal ward, you come across a patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student on a gastrointestinal ward, you come across a patient suffering from long-standing reflux. During the ward round, you notice that the patient, who is in his late 40s, is being treated with metoclopramide, a pro-kinetic drug that blocks the action of dopamine and speeds up gastrointestinal motility. However, the patient is now experiencing gynaecomastia and erectile dysfunction. Which hormone is most likely being overproduced in this patient, leading to his current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

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