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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:

      - eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
      - HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
      - Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
      - Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
      - Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
      - Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
      - Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient for a FibroScan (transient elastography)

      Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results

      Explanation:

      It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.

      Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.

      Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).

      According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 62-year-old woman presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. She was diagnosed with irritable...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome as a young adult and currently takes hyoscine butylbromide 10-20 mg QDS PRN and loperamide 2 mg PRN for her symptoms. She also has a history of type 1 diabetes diagnosed at the age of 10.

      She has been experiencing intermittent abdominal pains and bloating, as well as periodic bouts of diarrhea for years. Her latest blood tests, which were done as part of her diabetic annual review, show a modest anemia (hemoglobin 105 g/L). Her liver function tests show a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP, which has been the case for the last six to seven years and has not significantly deteriorated. Her thyroid function, bone profile, and ESR are all within normal limits. Her HbA1c is satisfactory at 50 mmol/mol.

      There has been no significant change in her gastrointestinal symptoms recently. She has never had any rectal bleeding or mucous passed per rectum. Her weight is stable. She reports no acute illness but does feel more tired than usual over the last few months. She follows a 'normal' diet. Clinical examination reveals no focal abnormalities. She denies any obvious source of blood loss with no reported gastro-oesophageal reflux, haematemesis, haemoptysis, or haematuria. Urine dipstick testing shows no blood.

      She has no family history of bowel cancer, but her mother and one of her maternal aunts both suffered from irritable bowel syndrome. Follow-up blood tests show low ferritin and folate levels.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this 62-year-old woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Arrange testing for coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Reassure her that no further investigation or treatment is needed as her symptoms are chronic

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Iron Deficiency Anaemia

      Note the low folate levels and anaemia in a type 1 diabetic with chronic gastrointestinal symptoms and liver function test abnormalities. These features suggest coeliac disease, which is often misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. It is recommended by NICE to routinely test for coeliac disease when diagnosing IBS. Family members with IBS should also be investigated for coeliac disease if the diagnosis is confirmed.

      Patients with untreated coeliac disease often have mild liver function test abnormalities and are at increased risk for osteoporosis and hypothyroidism. The low folate levels suggest malabsorption as a possible cause. NICE CKS recommends screening all people with iron deficiency anaemia for coeliac disease using coeliac serology.

      For iron deficiency anaemia without dyspepsia, consider the possibility of gastrointestinal cancer and urgently refer for further investigations. For women who are not menstruating, with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 10 g/100 mL or below, refer urgently within 2 weeks for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.

      What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old male presents with central abdominal pain that radiates to the back...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male presents with central abdominal pain that radiates to the back and vomiting. His amylase level is 1,245 u/dl. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes attends for diabetic annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes attends for diabetic annual review. He complains of feeling tired all the time stretching back several months.

      Blood tests performed prior to the review appointment show normal renal, liver, and thyroid function; testosterone levels are normal. Full blood count reveals a modest anaemia with:

      Haemoglobin 109 g/L (130-180)
      MCV 79 fL (80-96)
      HbA1c 50 mmol/mol (20-42)

      Urine dipstick testing is normal with no ketones. Review of fingerprick blood sugars shows blood sugars consistently in single figures.

      Clinical examination is unremarkable.

      On further enquiry the patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms. He is opening his bowels regularly with no change in bowel habit. There is no history of PR blood or mucous. His weight is stable. He denies abdominal pain or bloating. He follows a 'normal' diet. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy.

      You request some further blood tests which confirm iron deficiency anaemia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next approach?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a trial of iron tablets three times a day and repeat the full blood count in four weeks to monitor the response

      Correct Answer: Perform serological testing for coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Serological Testing for Coeliac Disease

      Serological testing for coeliac disease should be considered for individuals presenting with certain symptoms such as chronic diarrhoea, unexplained weight loss, and persistent fatigue. Additionally, those with autoimmune thyroid disease, irritable bowel syndrome, and type 1 diabetes should also be offered testing as they are at increased risk for coeliac disease. NICE guidance recommends testing for individuals with unexplained abdominal symptoms, mouth ulcers, and vitamin deficiencies, as well as first-degree relatives of those with coeliac disease. Coeliac disease is associated with a variety of conditions, including depression, epilepsy, and reduced bone mineral density, among others. In the case of a man with type 1 diabetes and iron deficiency anaemia, serological testing for coeliac disease would be the next appropriate step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with deteriorating symptoms. You believe he is experiencing a UC flare-up but doesn't need to be hospitalized based on clinical indications. He is presently taking suboptimal oral mesalazine once a day. He has no IBD care plan in place but has been diagnosed with severe disease.
      What is the best course of action for managing his UC flare-up?

      Your Answer: Start a tapering course of oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Start oral budesonide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis Flares

      Oral or rectal mesalazine (or rectal steroids) are the recommended first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) flares. The dose of oral mesalazine can be increased up to 4.8g daily for the treatment of flares. It is important to review the patient’s response to treatment after 2 weeks, or sooner if deterioration occurs.

      While oral steroids are a potential treatment for UC flare-ups, they are not considered first-line treatments. Alternatives to oral steroids are preferred where possible. Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine may be considered by secondary care.

      If a patient requires more than 2 courses of steroids in 12 months or is unable to reduce their oral steroid use below 15 mg prednisolone per day, escalation of IBD therapy may be necessary. It is important to inform the patient’s IBD team that a flare has occurred.

      The IBD toolkit developed with the RCGP provides helpful advice on flare management. To ensure effective treatment of UC flares, it is important to follow these guidelines and work closely with the patient’s healthcare team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of 2 days. She had been fasting for religious reasons during this time and has no past medical history of jaundice. The patient is asymptomatic and her abdominal examination is unremarkable. Upon blood testing, her FBC and reticulocyte count are normal, as well as her blood film. She has predominantly unconjugated bilirubin levels of 50 µmol/L (normal range 3 - 17) and otherwise normal LFTs. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      If a person has an increased serum bilirubin concentration with normal liver function tests, it may indicate Gilbert’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by a rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress and may cause mild jaundice during fasting. However, it doesn’t require treatment or monitoring and cannot progress to chronic liver disease. Therefore, reassurance is the most appropriate option, and hospital admission or ultrasound scanning is unnecessary. Additionally, as Gilbert’s syndrome is not associated with upper GI malignancies, a 2-week wait clinic is not required. Repeating liver function tests in 48 hours would not change the management plan for this condition.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - You are evaluating a patient who has come back to see you for...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a patient who has come back to see you for the results of some recent blood tests. Three months ago, she had a liver function test that revealed a bilirubin of 42 µmol/L (normal range 3-20). A repeat liver function test conducted last week has shown the same outcome. The rest of her liver profile is within normal limits.

      She is otherwise healthy and not taking any regular medication. She is not overweight, drinks alcohol only occasionally, and clinical examination is normal with no signs of liver disease. She is asymptomatic. Full blood count, renal function, thyroid function, fasting glucose, and fasting lipids are all within normal limits.

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Request bloods for unconjugated bilirubin measurement

      Correct Answer: No further action needed. Reassure the patient as the result is stable and the other tests are normal.

      Explanation:

      Management of Isolated Slightly Raised Bilirubin Level

      When a patient presents with an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is asymptomatic, the next step is to confirm the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If the unconjugated bilirubin is greater than 70%, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome. However, if the bilirubin level is almost twice the upper limit of normal, confirmed on interval testing, further investigation is necessary.

      If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor the bilirubin level and investigate further if necessary to ensure proper management of the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse and is not on any medications. She has xanthelasmas and her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Pruritus and Xanthelasmas

      The patient’s symptoms of pruritus and xanthelasmas suggest a possible diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a chronic liver disease that primarily affects women between the ages of 30 and 65. Fatigue is often the first symptom, and pruritus is also common. Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and increased lipid and cholesterol levels are typical of PBC. Xanthelasmas may be present in late-stage disease.

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia may also cause xanthelasmas, but pruritus and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels would not be expected. Asteatotic eczema may cause pruritus, but it is more common in elderly patients and would not explain the elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas may cause painless jaundice and pruritus, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas. Paget’s disease of bone may cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas or pruritus.

      Overall, the combination of symptoms suggests PBC as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - You see a 60-year-old man with gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms. He has a previous...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 60-year-old man with gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms. He has a previous diagnosis of Barrett's oesophagus. The old notes show he was previously under regular follow up with the local gastroenterology department but he has not been seen for over three years.

      Over the last four months his gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms have become significantly worse. He experiences daily retrosternal burning after meals which is severe and he has been vomiting at least once a week. His swallow is reportedly normal. There is no history of haematemesis or melaena. You weigh him and he has not lost any significant weight.

      On examination his abdomen is soft, non-tender and with no palpable masses. He takes omeprazole 20 mg once daily which he has done for many years. Since his symptoms have deteriorated he has increased this himself up to 20 mg twice daily. This has not provided any significant symptomatic benefit.

      You refer him urgently for an upper GI endoscopy.

      What advice would you give to the patient while waiting for the endoscopy?

      Your Answer: Stop the omeprazole (and any other acid suppression medication) for a minimum of two weeks prior to the endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Add in domperidone to the current dose of omeprazole to try and improve symptom control whilst further investigation is awaited

      Explanation:

      Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy

      Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions. It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago. By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.

      Spacing:

      Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions.

      It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago.

      By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
      What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet

      Explanation:

      Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:

    Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
    ALP...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:

      Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
      ALP 84 U/L
      ALT 23 U/L
      Albumin 41 g/L

      His medical history reveals recent complaints of coryzal symptoms and a non-productive cough. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.

      He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.

      On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of stomach

      Explanation:

      Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy

      The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.

      However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following statements about coeliac disease is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about coeliac disease is accurate?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease predisposes to GI cancers in untreated individuals

      Correct Answer: All coeliacs are intolerant to oats

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease: Diagnosis and Risks

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, causing damage to the small intestine. Failure to adhere to a gluten-free diet can increase the risk of gastrointestinal cancers and gut lymphoma. However, after three to five years on a gluten-free diet, the risk of cancer decreases to that of a person without coeliac disease. The prevalence of coeliac disease varies in different countries, with rates as low as 1:300 in Italy and Spain to 1:18 in the Sahara. Two types of antibodies are tested for in the patient’s serology: Endomysial antibodies (EMA) and Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGA). A small bowel biopsy is still considered the gold standard for diagnosis, and a referral to a gastroenterologist is necessary for patients with positive antibodies or those with negative antibodies but suspected CD. The suitability of oats for coeliacs is uncertain due to contamination by wheat.

      To summarize, coeliac disease diagnosis involves testing for antibodies and a small bowel biopsy. Adherence to a gluten-free diet is crucial to reduce the risk of cancer. The prevalence of coeliac disease varies globally, and the suitability of oats for coeliacs is uncertain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3-4 h after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break.
      Select from the list the most likely causative organism of this acute attack of vomiting.

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacterial Food Poisoning: Causes and Symptoms

      Bacterial food poisoning is a common problem that can result from consuming contaminated food or water. Among the different types of bacteria that can cause food poisoning, Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Yersinia, Campylobacter, and Salmonella are the most common. Each of these bacteria has its own unique characteristics and symptoms.

      Staphylococcus aureus is known to multiply rapidly in foods that are rich in carbohydrates and salt, such as dairy products, ice cream, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable endotoxin that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 1-6 hours of ingestion.

      Bacillus cereus infection is associated with slow-cooked food and reheated rice. The bacterium produces an emetic toxin that leads to vomiting within 1-5 hours. It can be difficult to distinguish from other short-term bacterial foodborne intoxications such as by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Yersinia infection results in diarrhea some 3-10 days after contact and presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. The organism is acquired usually by insufficiently cooked pork or contaminated water, meat, or milk.

      Campylobacter infection has an incubation period of 2-5 days and results in flu-like symptoms, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. It is the most common bacterium that causes food poisoning in the UK.

      Salmonella infection normally leads to a picture of acute gastroenteritis with fever, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea between 12-36 hours after the ingestion of infected food. Infection occurs from a wide variety of infected foods that usually look and smell normal.

      It is important for registered medical practitioners to notify the “proper officer” at their local council or local health protection team of suspected cases of food poisoning. By understanding the causes and symptoms of bacterial food poisoning, individuals can take steps to prevent infection and seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and lack of energy. His recent blood test showed macrocytosis and a low haemoglobin level, indicating a folic acid deficiency. He requests dietary recommendations from the physician to address this issue.
      What is the most suitable food item to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinach

      Explanation:

      Folate Content in Common Foods

      Folate, also known as vitamin B9, is an essential nutrient that is important for cell growth and development. While it is found naturally in many foods, it is also added to processed foods and supplements in the form of folic acid. Here is a breakdown of the folate content in some common foods:

      Spinach: With 194 μg of folic acid per 100g, spinach is the richest source of folate on this list.

      Egg: While eggs contain 47 μg of folic acid per 100g, they only provide around a quarter of the folate per 100g that is found in spinach.

      Carrot: Carrots contain about 21 μg of folic acid per 100g, less than half the amount of folate found in eggs and only around 11% of the amount provided by spinach.

      Milk: Cow’s milk contains 5-7 μg of folic acid per 100g, making it the second-lowest source of folate in this range of options.

      Apple: Apples provide the lowest source of folate in this range of options, with only about 3 μg of folic acid per 100g.

      It is important to note that women who are pregnant or breastfeeding require more folate and should take a daily supplement of 400 micrograms. While many food manufacturers fortify their products with folic acid, wholegrain products already contain natural folate. Folate deficiency can occur due to poor intake, excessive alcohol consumption, or malnutrition.

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  • Question 18 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull epigastric pain radiating to her back. It is relieved when sitting forwards.
      On examination, her body mass index is normal, but she says that she is losing weight; her clothes have become baggy on her. She explains that she doesn't feel like eating with the pain she is suffering.
      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 102 g/l (normal range: 115–165 g/l) while her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan

      Explanation:

      Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan

      When a patient over 60 years old presents with weight loss and abdominal pain, an urgent direct-access CT scan should be considered to assess for pancreatic cancer. Other symptoms that may indicate pancreatic cancer include diarrhea, back pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and new-onset diabetes. Patients with pancreatic cancer typically report anorexia, malaise, fatigue, mid-epigastric or back pain, and weight loss. The pain may be unrelenting and worse when lying flat.

      The most characteristic sign of pancreatic carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is painless obstructive jaundice. Migratory thrombophlebitis and venous thrombosis also occur with higher frequency in patients with pancreatic cancer and may be the first presentation.

      While the CA 19-9 antigen is elevated in 75-80% of patients with pancreatic carcinoma, it is not recommended for screening. An abdominal ultrasound scan may reveal a pancreatic malignancy, but a CT scan is the preferred imaging that should be carried out urgently.

      Direct-access upper GI endoscopy may be appropriate for patients over 55 years old with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. However, in this case, an urgent CT scan is the most appropriate initial investigation due to the elevated alkaline phosphatase suggesting biliary obstruction. Checking ferritin levels may not be helpful in ruling in or out pancreatic cancer.

      Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan

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  • Question 19 - Rahul, a young adult, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and...

    Incorrect

    • Rahul, a young adult, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and seeks advice from his doctor regarding dietary changes that could alleviate his bloating and constipation. What diet would be beneficial for young adults dealing with irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low FODMAP diet

      Explanation:

      Monash University in Australia has recently introduced a low-FODMAP diet for managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrates that are poorly absorbed in the small intestine, leading to water intake and diarrhea or fermentation by bacteria causing bloating in the large bowel. A low-FODMAP diet has been found to reduce IBS symptoms such as bloating, abdominal pain, and irregular bowel habits. However, it is a challenging diet to follow as it excludes many foods containing Oligo-, Di-, Mono-saccharides and Polyols, including wheat, dairy, pulses, excess fructose, and some vegetables. Therefore, it is recommended to seek the advice of a dietician.

      The LOFFLEX diet, which stands for low fat/fibre exclusion diet, has been developed for individuals with Crohn’s disease. It is often used after the elemental diet to maintain remission by avoiding high-fiber and high-fat foods that can trigger Crohn’s. The ketogenic diet has been shown to improve seizure control in people with epilepsy, particularly in children who are under the supervision of a pediatric dietician and have drug-resistant epilepsy. The specific carbohydrate and paleo diets are popular new diet trends that GPs may encounter, both of which significantly limit carbohydrate intake in the diet.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. His medical history includes a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. His medical history includes a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in his early adulthood. He currently takes mebeverine 135 mg TDS and loperamide 2 mg PRN for symptom relief. He reports intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and periodic bouts of diarrhea. His latest blood tests, done as part of his diabetic annual review, show a mild microcytic anemia and a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP. He has no new symptoms and follows a normal diet. On examination, there are no focal abnormalities. He is interested in trying a gluten-free diet as his mother found it helpful for her IBS. What advice should be given regarding testing for coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serological testing can be carried out appropriately at any time regardless of a person's dietary intake of gluten

      Explanation:

      Testing for Coeliac Disease

      Accuracy of testing for coeliac disease is dependent on the person following a gluten-containing diet. For at least six weeks prior to testing, a person should follow a normal diet containing gluten in more than one meal a day. This is the case for both serological and histological testing. If a diagnosis of coeliac disease is suspected and the person is reluctant to include or reintroduce gluten in their diet prior to any testing, then they should be referred to a gastrointestinal specialist.

      Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to indicate whether further investigation is needed. A positive test should prompt referral to a gastrointestinal specialist for intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. When serology is requested, the preferred first choice test is currently IgA transglutaminase (tTGA). If the result is equivocal, IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) testing can be used.

      IgA deficiency can lead to false negative results, so IgA deficiency should be ruled out if serology is negative. IgG tTGA and/or IgG EMA serology can be used in those with confirmed IgA deficiency. Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) DQ2/DQ8 testing may be considered by gastrointestinal specialists in specific clinical situations; however, it doesn’t have a role in the initial testing for coeliac disease.

      It should be borne in mind that if serological testing is negative but there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease, then referral to a gastrointestinal specialist should be offered as serological tests are not 100% accurate. A clinical response to gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease. For example, some patients with irritable bowel syndrome may be gluten sensitive but not have coeliac disease. Implications of a positive test should be discussed prior to serological testing being performed, including the nature of the further investigations needed and the implications for other family members should the test be positive.

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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with complaints of 'heartburn'. She has a medical history of angina and type 2 diabetes. Her current medications include clopidogrel 75 mg OD, bisoprolol 5 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, and metformin 500 mg TDS. She quit smoking five years ago when her angina was diagnosed and doesn't consume alcohol.

      The patient reports experiencing retrosternal burning that worsens after meals and occasionally causes a 'sickly' feeling in the back of her mouth. She has been experiencing symptoms predominantly during the day but occasionally at night as well. She denies any dysphagia or odynophagia and her weight is stable. She has not experienced any vomiting and her bowel habits are normal with no rectal bleeding or black stools.

      The patient reports having similar symptoms on and off for many years and saw a colleague about three to four months ago with the same symptoms. She tried an over-the-counter alginate antacid PRN, which provided slight relief. She has been using the alginate preparation once or twice a day on average. Over the last three to four months, she has experienced symptoms every day. Her colleague had conducted some investigations, which showed a normal full blood count and negative Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing.

      Given her history of angina, the differential diagnosis includes this condition, but the patient's anginal pains are clearly different. The most likely diagnosis is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). General and abdominal examination today are normal.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently under the 2 week wait referral system

      Explanation:

      Treatment of GORD with PPIs and Antacids

      When managing GORD patients, mild symptoms occurring less than once a week can be treated with antacids as needed. However, for patients with more frequent symptoms, especially those experiencing daily discomfort, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Referral for endoscopy is usually unnecessary unless there are alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, or signs of anemia.

      Initial treatment for GORD involves a high dose PPI for eight weeks (for endoscopically proven oesophagitis) or four weeks for uninvestigated reflux. The PPI should be taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. Lansoprazole is an example of a suitable PPI that doesn’t interact with other medications. If there is a partial response, the dose can be increased to twice daily, and the timing of the dose can be adjusted if nocturnal symptoms are troublesome.

      If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsideration of the diagnosis and specialist referral may be necessary. An H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients who have a partial response to PPI treatment. It is important to note that there have been concerns about an interaction between clopidogrel and some PPIs (such as omeprazole) due to a shared metabolic pathway. However, the BNF doesn’t suggest any issue with patients taking Lansoprasole with clopidogrel.

      Overall, the treatment of GORD involves a stepwise approach, starting with antacids and progressing to PPIs and other medications as needed. Regular monitoring and adjustment of treatment can help manage symptoms and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2

      Explanation:

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

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  • Question 23 - You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have revealed widespread disease affecting his entire colon. He reports passing approximately 5 bloody stools per day for the past 3 days.

      Upon examination, his heart rate is 82 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/62 mmHg, and temperature is 36.9ºC. His abdomen is soft and non-tender.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine and oral sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to add oral aminosalicylates to rectal aminosalicylates. This is because enemas can only reach a certain point and the addition of an oral medication ensures proper treatment. In this case, the patient’s colonoscopy showed extensive disease, making the use of an oral aminosalicylate necessary. Therefore, this is the correct option and using rectal mesalazine alone is not sufficient.

      Using oral steroids like prednisolone and dexamethasone as a first-line treatment is not recommended.

      Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial infections, but there is no indication of such an infection in this case.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, intermittent pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, intermittent pain in his right flank. Upon urine dipstick examination, you find blood and suspect ureteric colic. Hospitalization is not necessary at this time, so you prescribe oral naproxen and schedule a non-contrast CT scan. What type of medication could also be helpful in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic blocker

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blockers may be utilized to assist in the natural passage of the stone.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteral obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intracorporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

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  • Question 25 - An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of 6 kg over the past three months, without any significant pain. During the examination, she appears drawn and emaciated, with deep yellow sclera. She has experienced jaundice twice before, once in her teens, and her sister has also had it. She typically enjoys a glass or two of wine on weekends and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infective hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Jaundice and their Characteristics

      Jaundice can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique characteristics. Cancer of the pancreas, particularly in the head, can cause painless jaundice. On the other hand, cancer in the body or tail of the pancreas can present with dull, unremitting central abdominal pain or back pain. Smoking is a known risk factor for pancreatic cancer.

      Gilbert’s syndrome, a familial condition, can also cause jaundice. However, the jaundice in this case is pale yellow and the patient typically feels well. While Gilbert’s syndrome is not uncommon, it is important to consider other potential causes of jaundice, especially if the patient has significant weight loss. As a wise surgeon once said, People with IBS get Ca bowel too – never forget that.

      Hepatitis A is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. Primary biliary cirrhosis, on the other hand, has its peak incidence in the fifth decade of life and often presents with generalized pruritus or asymptomatic hepatomegaly. Understanding the characteristics of different causes of jaundice can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping abdominal pain of several months’ duration. She underwent a hysterectomy and radiotherapy 2 years ago for endometrial carcinoma.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic radiation enteropathy

      Explanation:

      Chronic Radiation Enteropathy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Chronic radiation enteropathy is a progressive disease that can occur months or even years after radiation therapy. It is characterized by transmural bowel damage, obliterative endarteritis, and altered intestinal transit, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be blood-stained), malabsorption, and dysmotility. Patients with a history of pelvic or abdominal radiation therapy are at risk for developing chronic radiation enteropathy, which can lead to intestinal obstruction, fistula formation, or perforation. Corrective surgery is associated with high morbidity and mortality, and long-term symptoms are common.

      Diagnosis of chronic radiation enteropathy is based on the persistence of symptoms for three or more months following irradiation. Differential diagnosis includes irritable bowel syndrome, lymphoma, pseudomembranous colitis, and ulcerative colitis. However, the history of pelvic radiation is a key factor in distinguishing chronic radiation enteropathy from other conditions. While irritable bowel syndrome may cause diarrhea, blood in the stool is not a typical symptom. Lymphoma and ulcerative colitis may also present with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, but the history of radiation therapy makes chronic radiation enteropathy more likely. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by infection with Clostridium difficile and is not typically associated with bloody stools.

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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman presents with jaundice and itching.
    Which of the following results would...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with jaundice and itching.
      Which of the following results would most strongly support the diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antimitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Biliary Cholangitis: Diagnostic Tests and Markers

      Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disease that affects the biliary system, causing intrahepatic cholestasis and leading to cell damage, fibrosis, and cirrhosis. While there is no single definitive test for this condition, several markers can help diagnose and monitor it.

      Antimitochondrial antibodies are present in 90-95% of individuals with primary biliary cholangitis, but are only found in 0.5% of normal controls. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are also nonspecific, as they can be positive in connective tissue disease and chronic infections. Similarly, around 35% of patients with primary biliary cholangitis have positive antinuclear antibodies, but this is not specific to the condition.

      Elevated levels of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are common in primary biliary cholangitis, but significant elevations of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) are usually more prominent. Additionally, a polyclonal increase in IgM (sometimes associated with elevated IgG) is typical but not specific to this condition.

      Overall, a combination of these diagnostic tests and markers can help identify and monitor primary biliary cholangitis.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis

      Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.

      Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis

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  • Question 29 - You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.

      Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine

      Explanation:

      To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.

      Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.

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  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
      What is the most important test to perform at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:

      1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.

      2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.

      3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.

      4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.

      5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.

      Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.

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  • Question 31 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing indigestion for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing indigestion for the past two months. She is in good health, has never had a similar episode before, and is not taking any regular medication. Notably, she has not experienced any recent weight loss or vomiting, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice + one month course of a full-dose proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      As per the revised NICE guidelines of 2015, there is no need for an immediate endoscopy referral for her. However, if she fails to respond to treatment, a non-urgent referral would be advisable.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

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  • Question 32 - A 29-year-old woman who initially complained of abdominal discomfort and irregular bowel movements...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who initially complained of abdominal discomfort and irregular bowel movements is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. What dietary advice should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the intake of fibre such as bran and wholemeal bread

      Explanation:

      IBS patients should steer clear of insoluble sources of fiber like bran and wholemeal.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 33 - You receive a positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT) result following investigation of an...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT) result following investigation of an elderly patient's unexplained abdominal pain.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway

      Explanation:

      Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer

      Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who show symptoms that may suggest colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. If the test result is positive, patients should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway. However, a positive result may also indicate other conditions such as colorectal polyps or inflammatory bowel disease.

      It is important to note that there is no need to repeat the FIT or order further investigations before referral. This test is a simple and effective way to detect early signs of colorectal cancer and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 34 - A 40-year-old patient with epilepsy that is currently managed with phenytoin presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient with epilepsy that is currently managed with phenytoin presents to his General Practitioner. He has recently been taking oral flucloxacillin for a leg injury that was precipitated by a recent fit. The patient occasionally drinks alcohol and has been taking paracetamol for pain relief after his leg injury. Clinical examination reveals jaundice; however, his abdomen is non-tender. Liver function tests are shown below.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 280 μmol/l 1–22 μmol/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 440 U/l 45–105 U/l
      Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) 320 U/l 11–50 U/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 46 U/l < 35 U/l
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Causes of Jaundice: Identifying the Culprit in a Clinical Case

      In this clinical case, a patient presents with jaundice and abnormal liver function tests. The following potential causes are considered:

      Flucloxacillin: The patient’s presentation is consistent with cholestatic jaundice, which can be caused by flucloxacillin. Other drugs that can cause a similar picture include chlorpromazine, azathioprine, captopril, ciclosporin, penicillamine, erythromycin, and the combined oral contraceptive.

      Ethanol: Although the patient reports occasional alcohol use, ethanol is an unlikely cause of cholestatic jaundice. Ethanol more commonly causes a hepatitic picture with elevated transaminase levels.

      Gallstones: Cholecystitis typically doesn’t cause jaundice. If gallstones were the cause, right upper quadrant pain and tenderness would be expected.

      Paracetamol: The patient is taking paracetamol, but there is no information about excessive use. Paracetamol overdose typically causes a hepatitic picture rather than cholestatic jaundice.

      Phenytoin: Phenytoin typically causes a hepatitic picture with larger elevations in transaminase levels and a smaller rise in ALP levels.

      In conclusion, flucloxacillin is the most likely cause of this patient’s cholestatic jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?

      Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.

      In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.

      In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the clinic with severe abdominal pain. He appears pale, sweaty, and reports that the pain is radiating to his back. He also mentions that he has lost sensation in his feet. Upon examination, he has a tachycardia and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg while lying down.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain and Shock with Neurological Symptoms

      Abdominal pain and shock with neurological symptoms can be indicative of several medical conditions. One possible diagnosis is a ruptured aortic aneurysm, which may cause a pulsatile mass in the abdomen and involve the spinal arteries. Acute pancreatitis may also cause abdominal pain and shock, but it would not typically produce neurological symptoms. Biliary colic, on the other hand, may cause pain in the epigastrium or right upper quadrant that radiates to the back, but it usually resolves within 24 hours. Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is another emergency presentation that may produce abdominal pain and shock, but it would also involve chest or jaw pain/heaviness and ECG changes. Finally, a perforated duodenal ulcer may cause abdominal pain and shock, but it would also involve marked tenderness and rigidity. Therefore, a ruptured aortic aneurysm is the most likely diagnosis in this case.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 37 - A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic after a three month trial of omeprazole 20 mg. Further investigations have revealed that he has a hiatus hernia. The decision is made to continue his omeprazole treatment and he is advised to lose weight as his BMI is 32.

      Despite losing 5 kg over the past six months, he has visited the clinic twice for antibiotics due to lower respiratory tract infections. He has also been experiencing a nocturnal cough and possible asthma symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase his omeprazole to 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Indications for Surgical Repair of Hiatus Hernia

      Indications for surgical repair of hiatus hernia include recurrent respiratory tract infection due to reflux. It is also considered in patients who have a para-oesophageal hernia because of the risk of strangulation.

      Given this patient’s young age and the fact that he has attended twice in six months with symptoms of respiratory tract infection, surgical referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is advised. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms of reflux and prevent further respiratory tract infections. It is important to consider surgical intervention in cases where conservative management has failed or when there is a risk of complications such as strangulation. Proper evaluation and management of hiatus hernia can improve the quality of life for patients and prevent potential complications.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 38 - An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia

      The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.

      To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.

      Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive morning sickness during her third month of pregnancy. Her routine blood tests show an ALT level of 64 IU (normal range: < 40 IU/l) and a bilirubin of 55 µmol/l (normal range: < 21 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs during pregnancy and can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, ketosis, and weight loss. It often affects the liver, with abnormal ALT levels in about half of patients. Jaundice may also occur in severe cases. While HG typically resolves by the end of the third trimester, it can persist throughout pregnancy in some cases.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP) is a rare condition that occurs in about 5 out of 100,000 pregnancies. It often presents in the third trimester with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, headache, and pruritus. Jaundice may also occur and can become severe. AFLP is typically managed by prompt delivery and supportive care, but it is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a patient in the first trimester.

      HELLP syndrome is a condition that can occur in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, with symptoms including abnormal pain and elevated AST levels. It is most likely to occur close to delivery, but it can occur as early as 20 weeks. However, this patient is only 13 weeks pregnant, making HELLP syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) is a common condition that should be considered in cases of abnormal liver function tests in the second trimester. It is characterized by itching, and severe cases may lead to jaundice. Affected pregnancies are at an increased risk of prematurity and stillbirth, so early delivery may be necessary.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. It may also cause peripheral edema, abdominal pain, headache, and visual problems. Treatment involves delivery.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old woman visited her doctor with complaints of intense pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visited her doctor with complaints of intense pain in the anal area. She reported that the pain began after she strained to have a bowel movement. She had been experiencing constipation for the past 4 days and had been using over-the-counter laxatives. During the examination, the doctor observed a painful, firm, bluish-black lump at the edge of the anus.

      What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoid

      Explanation:

      Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 41 - A 65-year-old man presents with persistent reflux, nausea and retrosternal burning pain after...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with persistent reflux, nausea and retrosternal burning pain after eating over the last six weeks. There has been no change in bowel habit and has not noticed any melaena but he has lost a little weight.

      On examination there is no abnormality in the abdomen. His weight is 76 kg.

      He has a ten year history of dyspepsia which he has been treating with over-the-counter antacids. He had triple therapy nine years ago having had positive serology to Helicobacter pylori. He drinks around 16-20 units of alcohol per week and is an ex-smoker.

      He was seen at the out of hours centre five weeks ago and prescribed prochlorperazine, but this has made no difference to his symptoms.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a daily H2 receptor antagonist (for example, ranitidine) for four weeks then review

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD) with Alarm Symptoms

      When managing someone with symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is crucial to look for alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, and signs of anaemia. Patients may report weight loss, which should be recorded periodically for comparisons. In the presence of alarm symptoms, it is important to refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy, especially for patients aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. According to NICE guidelines, the referral should be made under the two-week wait. The positive serology to Helicobacter pylori nine years ago would not alter the management given the current presentation.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents for follow up after being prescribed trimethoprim for a suspected urinary tract infection by an out-of-hours doctor two weeks ago. She reports experiencing lower abdominal pains and bloating for the past six months, which have become increasingly severe and often wake her from sleep. She denies vomiting or diarrhea but notes increased frequency of urination. She has a poor appetite and has lost no weight. On examination, there is no clinical evidence of anemia or jaundice, and PR examination is normal. Which investigation is most likely to reveal the cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Ovarian Cancer: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Tumour Markers

      Patients with ovarian cancer often present with vague abdominal symptoms that may have been wrongly attributed to other conditions such as urinary tract infection or irritable bowel syndrome. The key to establishing a diagnosis is to first think of ovarian cancer as a possibility and then, as always, to obtain a thorough history.

      It helps to think of risk factors as well, because we know that certain factors are associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. These include obesity, late menopause, nulliparity, diabetes, and endometriosis. In terms of symptoms, patients may experience vague abdominal pains, early satiety, and urinary frequency/urgency.

      Tumour markers can be a useful tool in certain clinical contexts. CA125 is a tumour marker associated with ovarian cancer and is a valuable test in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer with regard to initial primary care investigations. NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer that occur more than 12 times a month or for more than a month are offered CA125 testing.

      In summary, a high index of suspicion is needed when considering ovarian cancer as a possibility. It is important to take into account risk factors and symptoms, and to consider the use of tumour markers such as CA125 in certain clinical contexts. By being aware of these factors, healthcare professionals can help to ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of ovarian cancer.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 43 - A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing

      Explanation:

      Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 44 - A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and itching. His viral hepatitis serology shows active hepatitis E infection.
      Select from the list the single true statement concerning hepatitis E.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis doesn't occur in immunocompetent patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis E and D: A Comparison

      Hepatitis E is a self-limiting illness that follows a similar course to hepatitis A. However, fulminant disease can occur in a small percentage of cases. This type of hepatitis is most commonly found in developing countries and is transmitted through contaminated drinking water. While person-to-person contact transmission is rare, maternal-neonatal transmission can occur, with pregnant women being at the highest risk of developing fulminant hepatitis. Management of hepatitis E is supportive, and there are no chronic cases except in immunocompromised individuals.

      On the other hand, hepatitis D requires co-infection with hepatitis B to cause inflammation. Co-infection with hepatitis D increases the likelihood of hepatitis B progressing to chronic disease and cirrhosis. Hepatitis D is most commonly found in Mediterranean countries, parts of Eastern Europe, the Middle East, Africa, and South America.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 45 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she has been experiencing for several years. She frequently experiences itchiness and pain. She has a daily bowel movement with soft stool. Upon examination, there is no indication of a rash or fissure. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Haemorrhoids: Options and Considerations

      Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can cause discomfort and itching. Topical treatments are often used to alleviate symptoms, and there are several options available. However, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Here are some considerations for different topical treatments:

      – Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment: This preparation contains a local anaesthetic and corticosteroid, which can provide short-term relief. It is suitable for occasional use.
      – Hydrocortisone 1%, miconazole nitrate 2% cream: This cream contains an anti-candida agent and is appropriate for intertrigo. However, if the patient doesn’t have a rash or signs of fungal infection, this may not be the best option.
      – Clobetasol propionate cream: This potent topical steroid is used for vulval and anal lichen sclerosus. It is not recommended if the patient doesn’t have a rash.
      – Glyceryl trinitrate ointment: This unlicensed preparation is used for anal fissure, which is characterized by painful bowel movements and rectal bleeding. If the patient doesn’t have these symptoms, this treatment is not appropriate.
      – Lactulose solution: Constipation can contribute to haemorrhoids, and lactulose can help manage this. However, if the patient doesn’t have constipation, this treatment may not be necessary.

      In summary, choosing the right topical treatment for haemorrhoids requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended to determine the best course of action.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 46 - A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a consultation. She recently underwent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner for a consultation. She recently underwent bowel cancer screening and had to have a colonoscopy, which revealed the presence of four small benign polyps (< 10mm) that were completely removed. Her discharge letter mentions that she will be seen again, and she is curious if she will require another colonoscopy. What is the most suitable level of routine surveillance for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy at 3 years

      Explanation:

      Stratification of Colorectal Cancer Risk Based on Adenoma Findings

      Colorectal cancer risk can be categorized based on the findings of adenomas at baseline and subsequent surveillance examinations. Low risk individuals have one or two adenomas less than 10mm and require no follow-up or a colonoscopy every five years until one is negative. Intermediate risk individuals have three or four adenomas, or one or two adenomas with one larger than 10mm, and require a colonoscopy every three years until two consecutive colonoscopies are negative. High risk individuals have five or more adenomas, or three or four adenomas with one larger than 10mm, and require a colonoscopy at 12 months before returning to three-yearly surveillance.

      It is widely accepted that most colorectal cancers arise from adenomas, which have a prevalence of 30-40% at 60 years. However, the lifetime cumulative incidence of colorectal cancer is only 5.5%, indicating that many adenomas do not progress. The risk of malignancy increases with adenoma size, with flat or depressed adenomas progressing more rapidly than polypoid adenomas. While there is no direct evidence, observational studies suggest that polypectomy can reduce cancer mortality. However, there is no evidence that further colonoscopies provide greater benefit than the initial clearance.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 47 - A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last two to three months he is opening his bowels four to five times a day and the consistency of his stools has become very loose. He has noticed small amounts of blood in his faeces but put this down to 'piles'.

      Previously, he used to open his bowels on average once a day and has no personal history of any gastrointestinal problems. There is no family history of bowel problems, he has not lost any weight and he denies any rectal blood loss. Stool mc&s is normal as are his recent blood tests which show that he is not anaemic. Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.

      He tells you that he is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about two months ago he submitted his bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that his screening tests were negative. What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a specialist for investigation of his lower gastrointestinal tract

      Explanation:

      Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms

      Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to mention that they are not worried as they have done their bowel screening and it was negative.

      In the case of a 66-year-old man with persistent changes in bowel habit towards looser stools with some rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary. It is important to note that relying on recent bowel screening results may falsely reassure patients and delay necessary medical attention.

      Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient’s current symptoms and promptly refer them for further evaluation, regardless of their previous screening results. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients with bowel symptoms.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 48 - A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of altered bowel habits. He reports experiencing constipation for the past 3 months, followed by occasional episodes of loose stools. He denies any associated pain, rectal bleeding, or unexplained weight loss. The patient is in good health, has a regular diet, and takes no medications. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal immunochemical testing (FIT)

      Explanation:

      For patients who show new symptoms of colorectal cancer but do not meet the 2-week referral criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In this case, as the patient is under 60 years old, an urgent referral is not necessary. However, if the change in bowel habit persists, it is important to consider a referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist. It is not appropriate to request a faecal calprotectin test as it is mainly used for suspected IBD cases. A full blood count is necessary, but it should not be the only test performed. The most crucial step in management is to request a FIT test, which can trigger a 2-week wait if the result is positive. While providing reassurance to the patient is important, it should not be done without any investigation as it may lead to missing a potential colorectal cancer.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 49 - A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, and weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, and weight loss. He reports feeling fatigued and experiencing itching on his back. A recent abdominal x-ray showed no abnormalities. What would be considered the gold standard for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms

      An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for individuals aged 60 and above who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound, unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia.

      While a gastroenterology opinion may be necessary, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s symptoms are considered red flags and require a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not warranted. This approach ensures timely and appropriate management for elderly patients with potential pancreatic cancer.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 50 - What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paraesthesia and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin C Deficiency and Scurvy

      Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. A deficiency of ascorbic acid can lead to scurvy, a condition characterized by inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and other symptoms. Cutaneous findings of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.

      It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be associated with thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon in the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. Measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell can confirm the diagnosis of scurvy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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