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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman delivers a healthy baby boy at 39+5 weeks. Suddenly, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman delivers a healthy baby boy at 39+5 weeks. Suddenly, a significant amount of blood is observed flowing from her vagina five minutes after delivery, prompting the emergency buzzer to be activated.

      Which synthetic chemical could potentially aid in the treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) can occur when the uterus fails to contract after childbirth. To manage this condition, healthcare providers typically take an ABCDE approach and administer drugs that stimulate uterine contractions. One such drug is a synthetic form of oxytocin called Syntocinon, which can be given intravenously. Ergometrine, another drug that stimulates uterine contractions, is often given alongside Syntocinon. Tranexamic acid, a synthetic lysine analogue that inhibits the fibrinolytic system, may also be administered. If PPH persists, a synthetic prostaglandin like carboprost may be given. Prostacyclin (PGI2) has no effect on uterine contractions and is not used to manage PPH. Dopamine and prolactin, which regulate lactation, are not involved in controlling postpartum haemorrhage.

      Understanding Oxytocin: The Hormone Responsible for Let-Down Reflex and Uterine Contraction

      Oxytocin is a hormone composed of nine amino acids that is produced by the paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate the let-down reflex of lactation by causing the contraction of the myoepithelial cells of the alveoli of the mammary glands. It also promotes uterine contraction, which is essential during childbirth.

      Oxytocin secretion increases during infant suckling and may also increase during orgasm. A synthetic version of oxytocin, called Syntocinon, is commonly administered during the third stage of labor and is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage. However, oxytocin administration can also have adverse effects, such as uterine hyperstimulation, water intoxication, and hyponatremia.

      In summary, oxytocin plays a crucial role in lactation and childbirth. Its secretion is regulated by infant suckling and can also increase during sexual activity. While oxytocin administration can be beneficial in certain situations, it is important to be aware of its potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The Trendelenburg test evaluates the integrity of which muscle? ...

    Correct

    • The Trendelenburg test evaluates the integrity of which muscle?

      Your Answer: Gluteus medius

      Explanation:

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old male has recently begun working in the textile industry and reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has recently begun working in the textile industry and reports handling various materials and chemicals on a daily basis. He has come to you complaining of a burning and itchy rash that appeared on his hands two days ago. Upon examination, his hands appear red and inflamed, and are warm and tender to the touch.

      Which type of immune cell is primarily responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Mast cells

      Correct Answer: T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The patient has contact dermatitis, a delayed hypersensitivity reaction caused by contact with allergens in the workplace. Contact allergens penetrate the skin and are engulfed by Langerhans cells, leading to activation of the innate immune system and T lymphocyte proliferation. This type of hypersensitivity is not antibody mediated and involves different cells than other types of hypersensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to the endocrine clinic by her GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to the endocrine clinic by her GP due to bed wetting episodes. She experiences constant thirst and frequent urination. A dipstick test reveals diluted urine with low osmolality, and her blood tests show hypernatremia with high serum osmolality. Her family has a history of diabetes insipidus. What is the most suitable follow-up examination?

      Your Answer: Bladder ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Water deprivation test

      Explanation:

      A water deprivation test is the most appropriate method for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. This test involves withholding water from the patient for a period of time to stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and monitor changes in serum and urine osmolality. Other methods such as urinary sodium or bladder ultrasound scan are not as effective in diagnosing this condition.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues following...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues following a brief episode of unusual behavior at work, lasting approximately 2 minutes. His colleagues observed him repeatedly smacking his lips during the episode. Afterward, he displayed mild speech difficulties and appeared to have difficulty understanding his colleagues.

      What is the probable site of the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Localising features of a temporal lobe seizure include postictal dysphasia and lip smacking.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to a sore throat. He has a unique immunodeficiency disorder that results in decreased levels of CD4 T cells. This is caused by a deficiency in the molecule responsible for promoting their growth by displaying bacterial antigens.

      What is the most probable deficiency?

      Your Answer: MHC class II

      Explanation:

      Helper T cells recognize antigens that are presented by MHC class II molecules, which interact with CD4 receptors to initiate a response. A deficiency in MHC class II molecules, as seen in bare lymphocyte syndrome, can lead to a deficiency in T helper cells. On the other hand, MHC class I molecules interact with CD8 receptors to initiate a response from cytotoxic T cells. It is important to note that antibodies do not present antigens, and while cytokines such as interferon and interleukins play a role in the immune response, they are not specific to individual infections.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward and tests positive for...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward and tests positive for influenzae A. He is taking immunosuppressants following a liver transplant he underwent 2 years ago. The doctor prescribes him oseltamivir to try and reduce his viral load, aiding recovery.

      What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?

      Your Answer: Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

      Correct Answer: Inhibits viral neuraminidase

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir prevents replication of influenzae A and B viruses by inhibiting viral neuraminidase, an enzyme that alters the glycoproteins on the surface of an infected cell to enable the release of more viral particles. It is not an antiviral that works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, unlike foscarnet and acyclovir. Interferon-α is used to treat chronic hepatitis B and C by inhibiting mRNA synthesis. Ribavirin interferes with the capping of the viral mRNA by inhibiting specific dehydrogenase enzymes. Amantadine, an antiviral, can be used in Parkinson’s disease as well as influenzae, as it has a secondary action of releasing dopamine from nerve endings, but this action does not reduce viral load.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic for the management of his...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic for the management of his COPD. He has a history of multiple courses of prednisolone, but has recently experienced significant weight gain, facial redness, and elevated blood pressure of 180/96 mmHg. The physician suspects Cushing syndrome due to exogenous steroid use and decides to discontinue the prescription. What is the specific region of the adrenal gland responsible for producing glucocorticoids?

      Your Answer: Zona fasciculata

      Explanation:

      Cortisol: Functions and Regulation

      Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.

      Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and haemoptysis. He also reports dark urine, reduced urine output and generally feels tired.

      On examination, he has crackles on auscultation of the chest and bipedal oedema. His heart rate is 120 beats/min, blood pressure 148/78 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min. He is apyrexial.

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 250 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Which antibodies characteristic of this condition are targeted, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Streptolysin O

      Correct Answer: Collagen type IV

      Explanation:

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by autoantibodies targeting collagen type IV, specifically anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies (anti-GBM). This condition is characterized by symptoms such as cough, haemoptysis, crackles on auscultation, oedema, and impaired renal function.

      In contrast, anti-dsDNA antibodies target double-stranded DNA and are commonly found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which presents with rash, photosensitivity, hair loss, and other systemic signs.

      p-ANCA antibodies typically target myeloperoxidase and are associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), which presents with a history of asthma and/or allergic rhinitis.

      c-ANCA antibodies target proteinase 3 and are associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with sinusitis and other upper airway signs.

      Antibodies against streptolysin O are involved in the immune response against streptococcal infection and are associated with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which is preceded by streptococcal infection and presents with renal impairment but not the other symptoms seen in Goodpasture’s syndrome.

      Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders

      Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.

      Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old patient has discovered a lump in her neck and another one...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient has discovered a lump in her neck and another one in her groin. She has been experiencing feverish symptoms for several months and has had to change her bedclothes twice in the last week. Upon examination, smooth, firm, enlarged lymph nodes are noted at both sites. The patient's GP is concerned about the possibility of an underlying lymphoma and has referred her to secondary care for further investigations. A CT scan has not revealed any other lymph nodes. What is the most appropriate diagnosis and staging for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On biopsy the malignant lymphoid cells would be likely to have many of the characteristics of their parent cells

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas and their Staging

      Malignancies that arise from lymphocytes can spread to different lymph node groups due to their ability to retain adhesion and signalling receptors. Lymphomas can present at various sites, including bone marrow, gut, and spleen, as normal trafficking of lymphoid cells occurs through these places. Interestingly, higher-grade lymphomas are easier to cure than lower grade lymphomas, despite initially being associated with a higher mortality rate. On the other hand, low-grade lymphomas may not require immediate treatment, but the disease progresses over time, leading to a poorer prognosis.

      To diagnose lymphoma, a biopsy of the affected area, such as a lymph node or bone marrow, is necessary. The Ann Arbor staging system is used to stage lymphomas, with Stage I indicating disease in a single lymph node group and Stage IV indicating extra-nodal involvement other than the spleen. The addition of a ‘B’ signifies the presence of ‘B’ symptoms, which are associated with a poorer prognosis for each disease stage.

      From the examination findings, it is evident that the disease is present on both sides of the diaphragm, indicating at least Stage III lymphoma. the staging of lymphomas is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan and predicting the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old patient presents to the neurology clinic with recurrent episodes of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents to the neurology clinic with recurrent episodes of vision loss, one instance of urinary incontinence, and left arm tingling. The neurologist suspects a demyelinating disease. Which specific cell is responsible for myelinating axons in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Explanation:

      The CNS relies on oligodendrocytes to produce myelin, while Schwann cells are responsible for myelin production in the PNS. Oligodendrocytes can myelinate up to 50 axons each, and are often mistaken for Schwann cells. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that affects oligodendrocytes in the CNS. Microglia are specialized phagocytes in the CNS, while astrocytes provide structural support and remove excess potassium ions from the extracellular space.

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
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  • Question 12 - The foramen indicating the end of the adductor canal is situated in which...

    Incorrect

    • The foramen indicating the end of the adductor canal is situated in which of the subsequent options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adductor magnus

      Explanation:

      The adductor canal’s distal boundary is demarcated by a foramen located within the adductor magnus. The vessel traverses this area to reach the popliteal fossa.

      The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents

      The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.

      The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.

      In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old male is scheduled for hernia repair surgery where the mesh will...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is scheduled for hernia repair surgery where the mesh will be sutured to the inguinal ligament. What is the origin of the inguinal ligament?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the inguinal ligament, which extends from the pubic tubercle to the anterior superior iliac spine.

      Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall

      The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.

      The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.

      During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic complaining of ongoing nighttime cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic complaining of ongoing nighttime cough and difficulty breathing, despite trying various inhalers and oral medications. To alleviate bronchoconstriction, her consultant prescribes a drug that hinders the activity of the enzyme responsible for converting arachidonic acid into hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid (HPETEs).

      Which enzyme does this medication inhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipoxygenase

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is lipoxygenase, which is responsible for converting arachidonic acid to HPETEs. This process is important in the formation of leukotrienes, which can cause bronchoconstriction in asthma. Zileuton is a medication that inhibits lipoxygenase and is used in the US for asthma treatment. In the UK, montelukast is used as an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist to block the action of leukotrienes in the lungs.

      Cyclo-oxygenase-1 and cyclo-oxygenase-2 are incorrect answers. These enzymes are responsible for converting arachidonic acid to prostaglandins and thromboxanes, not HPETEs and leukotrienes. NSAIDs are a group of medications that block cyclo-oxygenase enzymes and are commonly used for pain relief. However, they can cause gastric irritation and ulceration, which can be reduced by co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor. NSAIDs also reduce platelet aggregation and increase bleeding, so they should be avoided in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Hydrolase is also an incorrect answer. This enzyme is involved in the conversion of leukotriene A4 to leukotriene B4, which occurs later in the pathway than the conversion of arachidonic acid to HPETEs by lipoxygenase.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has no visible wounds or head trauma, but he is experiencing left lower limb pain and is unable to walk. Upon examination, he displays a high stepping gait and there is swelling and deformity below the knee. An X-ray confirms a fractured neck of the fibula.

      Which function is most likely impacted in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsiflexion of foot

      Explanation:

      A fibular neck fracture can result in foot drop due to common peroneal nerve injury. The nerve is often injured because it winds around the neck of the fibula. The common peroneal nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, and an injury to this nerve can cause foot drop, which is characterized by a high stepping gait. In foot drop, the foot appears floppy, and the toes point downward, scraping the ground while walking. The patient tends to lift their foot very high to avoid dragging it on the ground. Eversion of the foot is not the correct answer, as it is controlled by the superficial peroneal nerve. Flexion of toes is also an incorrect answer, as it is controlled by the medial plantar nerve.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteal lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is undergoing his annual diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is undergoing his annual diabetic examination. He reports feeling more fatigued than usual and has missed his previous three annual check-ups. His blood glucose control has been inadequate, and he has not been adhering to his medications. His blood pressure measures 170/90 mmHg, and a urinalysis reveals microalbuminuria. A blood test shows that his glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 27mL/min per 1.73m².

      Assuming a renal biopsy is conducted on this patient, what are the anticipated findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is suffering from T2DM that is poorly controlled, resulting in diabetic nephropathy. The histological examination reveals the presence of Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis, which are caused by nonenzymatic glycosylation.

      Amyloidosis is characterized by apple-green birefringence under polarised light.

      Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is identified by enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli.

      Rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis is characterized by crescent moon-shaped glomeruli.

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (often due to SLE) is identified by wire looping of capillaries in the glomeruli.

      Understanding Diabetic Nephropathy: The Common Cause of End-Stage Renal Disease

      Diabetic nephropathy is the leading cause of end-stage renal disease in the western world. It affects approximately 33% of patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus by the age of 40 years, and around 5-10% of patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus develop end-stage renal disease. The pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy is not fully understood, but changes to the haemodynamics of the glomerulus, such as increased glomerular capillary pressure, and non-enzymatic glycosylation of the basement membrane are thought to play a key role. Histological changes include basement membrane thickening, capillary obliteration, mesangial widening, and the development of nodular hyaline areas in the glomeruli, known as Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules.

      There are both modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors for developing diabetic nephropathy. Modifiable risk factors include hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, smoking, poor glycaemic control, and raised dietary protein. On the other hand, non-modifiable risk factors include male sex, duration of diabetes, and genetic predisposition, such as ACE gene polymorphisms. Understanding these risk factors and the pathophysiology of diabetic nephropathy is crucial in the prevention and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old female comes to her doctor with symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female comes to her doctor with symptoms of urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. She reports her urine as having a musky and cloudy appearance. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has no other health concerns. Upon testing her urine with a dipstick, high levels of leukocytes and nitrites are detected.

      What treatment should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - At what stage of eukaryotic mitosis do the centromeres of chromosomes separate? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of eukaryotic mitosis do the centromeres of chromosomes separate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Chromosome Division during Anaphase

      Chromosomes are joined together in an X shape at the centromere. During anaphase, the centromeres break down and the chromosomes divide into two identical pairs called sister chromatids. These sister chromatids then move to opposite sides of the cell along a network of spindle fibres. When the cell divides during telophase, each daughter cell receives one sister chromatid from the parent cell. This ensures the accurate copying and propagation of genes. The process of chromosome division during anaphase is crucial for the proper distribution of genetic material in cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations. Upon examination, her ECG reveals tall tented T waves. What causes the distinctive shape of the T wave, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with vomiting and diarrhoea after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with vomiting and diarrhoea after consuming undercooked meat at a family gathering. She has no significant medical history and is typically healthy.

      Her ABG results are as follows:

      Reference Range
      pH 7.48 7.35-7.45
      pCO2 6.1kPa 4.5-6.0kPa
      pO2 10.2kPa 10-13kPa
      Cl 100mmol/L 95-105mmol/L
      Na 142mmol/L 135-145mmol/L
      K 3.2mmol/L 3.5-5 mmol/L
      HCO3 30mEq/L 22-26mEq/L

      What is the probable cause of her ABG findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is vomiting, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis through the loss of stomach acids. This is supported by the ABG showing an alkalosis with high HCO3 and low potassium, likely due to bacterial gastroenteritis from undercooked meat. Acute kidney injury, diarrhoea, and laxative abuse are incorrect as they would cause metabolic acidosis, and the ABG shows an alkalosis.

      Understanding Metabolic Alkalosis and Its Causes

      Metabolic alkalosis is a condition that occurs when there is a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate in the body. This condition is mainly caused by problems in the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Some of the common causes of metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, diuretics, liquorice, carbenoxolone, primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing’s syndrome, and Bartter’s syndrome.

      The mechanism of metabolic alkalosis is primarily due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system. This system is responsible for the reabsorption of sodium ions in exchange for hydrogen ions in the distal convoluted tubule. When there is a loss of sodium and chloride ions due to vomiting or diuretics, the RAA system is activated, leading to an increase in aldosterone levels.

      In cases of hypokalaemia, where there is a shift of potassium ions from cells to the extracellular fluid, alkalosis occurs due to the shift of hydrogen ions into cells to maintain neutrality. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of metabolic alkalosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 21 - Which one of the following does not cause a normal anion gap acidosis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following does not cause a normal anion gap acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Normal Gap Acidosis can be remembered using the acronym HARDUP, which stands for Hyperalimentation/hyperventilation, Acetazolamide, and R (which is currently blank).

      Disorders of Acid-Base Balance

      The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old fitness enthusiast visits his doctor to inquire about the effectiveness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old fitness enthusiast visits his doctor to inquire about the effectiveness of arachidonic acid supplements in promoting muscle growth. He is a gym trainer and participates in national bodybuilding competitions. He has been researching the benefits of arachidonic acid supplementation in increasing lean body mass, strength, and endurance. He asks his doctor to provide more information about arachidonic acid and whether there is enough scientific evidence to support its use.

      The doctor explains that arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid that is produced from phospholipase. Can you identify the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of phospholipase to arachidonic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phospholipase A2

      Explanation:

      Phospholipase A2 is responsible for the transformation of phospholipids into arachidonic acid.

      The conversion of lecithin to lysolecithin is facilitated by Phospholipase A1.

      Leukotrienes are produced from arachidonic acid through the action of Lipoxygenase.

      Protein kinase is an enzyme that adds phosphate groups to other proteins through a chemical process known as phosphorylation.

      Phospholipase plays a crucial role in the production of phosphatidic acid.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 23 - A young athlete preparing for the Olympics decides to train at high altitude....

    Incorrect

    • A young athlete preparing for the Olympics decides to train at high altitude. What are the physiological adaptations that occur during altitude training?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction of pulmonary arterioles

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes during Exercise at Altitude

      Exercising at high altitudes can lead to a number of physiological changes in the body. One of the most significant changes is the vasoconstriction of pulmonary arterioles, which occurs in response to the decrease in PaO2. This can result in an increase in pulmonary artery pressure, leading to pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular hypertrophy if prolonged. Additionally, exercising at altitude can cause an increase in cerebral blood flow, as well as an initial fall in blood volume, which triggers the production of renin and aldosterone.

      Another notable change is the increase in the rate and depth of respiration, which is necessary to compensate for the lower oxygen levels at high altitudes. This increase in respiration also causes the oxygen dissociation curve to shift to the left, resulting in increased oxygen saturation at any given PaO2 value. Furthermore, the kidneys respond to the lower oxygen levels by producing more erythropoietin, which leads to an increase in red blood cell mass.

      Finally, exercising at altitude can cause an increase in arterial pH due to the high respiratory rate, which causes an increase in the excretion of CO2. This results in a respiratory alkalosis, which the kidneys compensate for by retaining H+ ions. Overall, these physiological changes are necessary for the body to adapt to the lower oxygen levels at high altitudes and maintain proper functioning during exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 24 - What is the term used to describe the recurring thoughts of harming one's...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the recurring thoughts of harming one's own family, even though the person does not want to act on them?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessional thoughts

      Explanation:

      Possession of Thought

      Possession of thought can be understood through the concepts of ego-syntonicity and ego-dystonicity. Ego-syntonic experiences are consistent with an individual’s self-image, while ego-dystonic experiences are not. Obsessional thoughts are unwanted and distressing thoughts, ideas, or images that are recognized as the individual’s own, making them ego-dystonic.

      Thought broadcast is a passivity experience where the individual believes their thoughts are taken away from their head and widely broadcast. On the other hand, thought insertion is a phenomenon where the individual believes that their thoughts have been placed inside their head from outside. Both thought broadcasting and insertion are thought alienation experiences and are first rank symptoms of schizophrenia.

      In the case of thought alienation experiences, the division between ego-syntonicity and ego-dystonicity is less clear. Although initially ego-syntonic, as the individual recovers from psychosis, they may recognize thought alienation experiences as more distressing and therefore more ego-dystonic in nature.

      Compulsions are obsessional motor acts that the patient recognizes as unnecessary but cannot resist performing. possession of thought and its various experiences can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders.

      Overall, possession of thought is a complex phenomenon that can have significant impacts on an individual’s mental health and well-being. By the different experiences and their relationship to ego-syntonicity and ego-dystonicity, mental health professionals can provide more effective treatment and support to those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old man is about to undergo a surgical procedure and is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is about to undergo a surgical procedure and is being catheterised. What changes will occur as the catheter enters his prostatic urethra?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resistance will decrease

      Explanation:

      The membranous urethra is narrower than the prostatic urethra, resulting in increased resistance. The prostatic urethra is angled vertically.

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.

      The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.

      The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.

      In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old female with a history of sickle cell disease arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female with a history of sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe epigastric pain that extends to her back. The patient displays clinical signs of jaundice. She reports drinking only one small glass of red wine per week and no other alcohol intake. What is the probable reason for acute pancreatitis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      The leading causes of pancreatitis are gallstones and heavy alcohol use. However, in the case of this patient with sickle cell disease, pigment gallstones are the most probable cause of their acute pancreatitis. Although autoimmune diseases like polyarteritis nodosa can also lead to pancreatitis, it is less common than gallstones. Additionally, the patient’s alcohol consumption is not significant enough to be a likely cause of their condition.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the chest about 10cm below the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the chest about 10cm below the left nipple. Upon arrival at the emergency department, an abdominal ultrasound scan reveals a significant amount of intraperitoneal bleeding. Which of the following statements regarding the probable location of the injury is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The quadrate lobe is contained within the functional right lobe.

      Explanation:

      The most probable location of injury in the liver is the right lobe. Hence, option B is the correct answer as the quadrate lobe is considered as a functional part of the left lobe. The liver is mostly covered by peritoneum, except for the bare area at the back. The right lobe of the liver has the largest bare area and is also bigger than the left lobe.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old woman comes to see her GP with persistent tinnitus and hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to see her GP with persistent tinnitus and hearing loss in both ears. This is her first time experiencing these symptoms, but she mentions that her older sister has had similar issues. During the examination, the doctor notices a pinkish hue to her eardrums. Audiometry tests confirm that she has conductive deafness. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting often accompany migraines, which are characterized by severe headaches that can last for hours or even days. Other symptoms may include sensitivity to light and sound, as well as visual disturbances such as flashing lights or blind spots. Migraines can be triggered by a variety of factors, including stress, certain foods, hormonal changes, and changes in sleep patterns. Treatment options may include medication, lifestyle changes, and alternative therapies.

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old male presents with myoclonus and confusion. His blood test shows an...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents with myoclonus and confusion. His blood test shows an elevated level of ammonium. He has a familial history of a urea cycle disorder. What specific enzyme deficiency is present in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

      Explanation:

      Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of the urea cycle, which is a series of six enzymatic and two transport steps required to metabolize and eliminate nitrogen produced by the breakdown of amino acids in proteins and other nitrogen-containing molecules. If there is a deficiency of this enzyme, it can result in high levels of ammonium, leading to encephalopathy.

      Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that limits the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.

      The rate of glycolysis is limited by the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 30 - A woman in her 30s has recently delivered a baby boy without any...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 30s has recently delivered a baby boy without any complications despite having systemic lupus erythematosus. What immunoglobulins could potentially be decreased in her breast milk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      IgA is present in secretions like saliva, tears, and mucous. However, individuals with autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and coeliac disease may have a deficiency of IgA. IgA is also present in breast milk, providing a temporary boost to the infant’s immune system during the early stages of life. On the other hand, IgD, IgE, and IgG are not present in breast milk. IgG, however, can cross the placenta, allowing the transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus during pregnancy.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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