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Question 1
Incorrect
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A couple in their early 30s come to your clinic seeking advice. The husband has a history of haemophilia B and they are worried about the possibility of passing it on to their children. Can you determine which of their offspring will be affected by the disease?
Your Answer: Half of the daughters and half of the sons will be affected
Correct Answer: All daughters will be carriers; no sons will be affected
Explanation:The inheritance of Haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. Haemophilia A and B are genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while haemophilia B is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX.
On the other hand, haemophilia C, which is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor XI, is primarily inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In X-linked recessive conditions like haemophilia B, males are more likely to be affected than females. This is because males only need one abnormal copy of the gene, which is carried on the X chromosome, to be affected.
Females, on the other hand, can be carriers of the condition if they carry one normal and one abnormal copy of the gene. While carriers can have clotting abnormalities, these are usually milder than those seen in affected individuals. Men cannot pass the condition to their sons, but they will pass on the abnormal X chromosome to all their daughters, who will be carriers.
Female carriers can pass on the condition to around half their sons, and half their daughters will be carriers. Females can only be affected if they are the offspring of an affected male and a carrier female. In summary, the inheritance of haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. It also helps in providing appropriate genetic counseling and management for affected individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What are the defining features of an amino acid?
Your Answer: It contains an amino group, - NH2
Correct Answer: It has the formula H2N - CHR - COOH where R is the variable group
Explanation:The Versatility of Amino Acids and its Applications in Electrophoresis
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are composed of a basic structure of H2N – CHR – COOH, where R represents the variable group that distinguishes one amino acid from another. The simplest amino acid is glycine, where the R group is just H. Amino acids are capable of forming complex and useful molecules due to their dipolar or amphoteric nature, which makes them simultaneously acidic and basic. In solution, they form zwitterions, which can act as either an acid or a base depending on the pH of the solution. This versatility of amino acids is what allows for the process of electrophoresis, which separates proteins based on their charge in a solution. By using solutions of different pH, different proteins can be assessed, making it a useful tool in the diagnosis of bone marrow malignancies like myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which form of vitamin D is the most active in the human body?
Your Answer: Cholecalciferol
Correct Answer: 1, 25 (OH) 2 vitamin D
Explanation:The Process of Vitamin D Production and Activation
Vitamin D comes in two forms, D2 and D3. D3 can be produced in the skin through a reaction that requires UV light, while D2 cannot. Both forms can also be obtained through diet, with some foods now being supplemented with Vitamin D. However, the production of Vitamin D3 in the skin can be affected by various factors such as seasons, latitude, clothing, sun block, and skin tone, making it difficult for individuals to get adequate levels of Vitamin D through sunlight alone, especially in the UK during winter.
Once absorbed into the lymph, Vitamin D2 and D3 circulate in the bloodstream and reach the liver. Here, the liver enzyme 25-hydroxylase adds an OH group to the Vitamin D molecule, resulting in 25(OH) Vitamin D. The compound then travels to the kidney, where the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase adds another OH group, creating the active form of Vitamin D, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. When there is enough of this active form, an inactive metabolite called 24,25 (OH)2Vitamin D is produced instead. this process is important in ensuring adequate Vitamin D levels for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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What is a primary function of vitamin A?
Your Answer: Vision
Explanation:Vitamin A: Forms, Sources, and Functions
Vitamin A is a crucial nutrient that exists in various forms in nature. The primary dietary form of vitamin A is retinol, also known as pre-formed vitamin A, which is stored in animal liver tissue as retinyl esters. The body can also produce its own vitamin A from carotenoids, with beta-carotene being the most common precursor molecule.
The richest sources of vitamin A include liver and fish liver oils, dark green leafy vegetables, carrots, and mangoes. Vitamin A can also be added to certain foods like cereals and margarines.
Vitamin A plays several essential roles in the body, including supporting vision by being a component of rhodopsin, a pigment required by the rod cells of the retina. It also contributes to the growth and development of various types of tissue, regulates gene transcription, and aids in the synthesis of hydrophobic glycoproteins and parts of the protein kinase enzyme pathways.
In summary, the different forms and sources of vitamin A and its vital functions in the body is crucial for maintaining optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the cause of the symptoms of weakness, dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia in pellagra?
Your Answer: Deficiency of vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Deficiency of the vitamin niacin
Explanation:Niacin Deficiency and Other Genetic Diseases
Niacin, a vitamin present in two forms – nicotinamide and nicotinic acid, is found in a variety of plant and animal foodstuffs. However, in some cases, the form of the vitamin is not easily absorbed by the human body, leading to deficiency. This deficiency is common in areas where maize is the primary dietary carbohydrate. Additionally, niacin can be produced by the body from the amino acid tryptophan. Diseases that affect the availability of tryptophan, such as Hartnup disease and carcinoid syndrome, can also result in niacin deficiency.
Pellagra is a condition that arises from niacin deficiency. It initially presents with non-specific symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, and reduced appetite, followed by pigmented dermatitis in sun-exposed areas, gastrointestinal disturbance, mood disturbance, and dementia in severe cases.
Apart from niacin deficiency, genetic diseases affecting collagen synthesis, such as Ehlers Danlos, present with symptoms of fragile stretchy skin and joint hypermobility. Genetic diseases affecting haemoglobin, such as sickle cell anaemia, present with symptoms of pain, hepatosplenomegaly, shortness of breath, and anaemia. Deficiencies in B12 and folate can also lead to macrocytic anaemia, paresthesia, and lethargy.
In conclusion, the causes and symptoms of niacin deficiency and other genetic diseases is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. A balanced diet and regular medical check-ups can help prevent and manage these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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What are the vitamins that are soluble in fat?
Your Answer: Vitamins A, D, E and K
Explanation:Absorption of Fat-Soluble Vitamins
Fat-soluble vitamins, namely A, D, E, and K, have a different absorption process compared to water-soluble vitamins. In the gut, these vitamins are combined with other fat-soluble substances such as monoacylglycerols and cholesterol to form micelles. These micelles are then transported to the lymphatic system and eventually enter the bloodstream through the subclavian vein.
However, any issues that affect the absorption of fats will also impact the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. This means that individuals with conditions that affect fat absorption, such as cystic fibrosis or celiac disease, may have difficulty absorbing these vitamins. It is important to ensure adequate intake of fat-soluble vitamins through a balanced diet or supplements to prevent deficiencies and associated health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old patient presents with recurrent skin cancer and is diagnosed with xeroderma pigmentosum. What is the defective biochemical mechanism in this disease?
Your Answer: mRNA splicing
Correct Answer: DNA excision repair
Explanation:Xeroderma Pigmentosum and DNA Repair
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found in the skin cells can absorb ultraviolet (UV) light, which can cause the formation of pyrimidine dimers. These dimers are removed through a process called excision repair, where the damaged DNA is cut out and replaced with new DNA. However, if this process fails, it can lead to mutations in genes that suppress tumors or promote their growth, potentially leading to cancer.
Xeroderma pigmentosum is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the disorder. Generally, disorders that affect metabolism or DNA replication on a cellular or genetic level are inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. On the other hand, genetic disorders that affect larger structural components are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. While there are exceptions to these rules, they can serve as a helpful guide for exam preparation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Correct
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What type of molecule does haemoglobin belong to?
Your Answer: Quaternary protein structure
Explanation:The Structure and Functions of Proteins
Proteins are complex molecules that can vary in structure from single amino acids to large, folded molecules. Amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds to form dipeptides and polypeptides. More complex molecules can also have disulphide bonds and ionic bonds. The primary structure of a protein is a simple amino acid chain, while the secondary structure is a specific shape such as a helix or pleated sheet. The tertiary structure is a more globular shape, arranged by ionic, hydrogen, and disulphide bonds, and hydrophobic interactions. The quaternary structure is a complex protein containing several polypeptide chains held together by interactions.
Proteins have multiple roles within the human body, including as hormones, food substrates, enzymes, receptor molecules, muscles, cell membrane constituents, carrier molecules in blood, and determinants of oncotic/osmotic pressures. However, proteins can be easily damaged by denaturation, which is the loss of the specific three-dimensional shape of a molecule. Denaturation can be caused by heat, salts, heavy metals, solvents, detergents, and extremes of pH.
In summary, proteins are essential molecules with a diverse range of structures and functions within the human body. their structure and potential for denaturation is crucial for maintaining their proper function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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As part of your general practice placement, you have been tasked with conducting an audit on the duration of solid food introduction in the practice population. You review the data for the last six infants born within the practice:
6 months, 7 months, 8 months, 9 months, 10 months, 11 months.
What is the variance value for the duration of solid food introduction in the practice population?Your Answer: 15
Correct Answer: 74.9
Explanation:Variance and Standard Deviation in Breast Feeding Duration
Variance is a statistical measure that indicates how spread out a set of data is. In the case of breast feeding duration, variance can help us understand how much the duration varies from the mean. The formula for variance involves squaring the difference between each data point and the mean, then dividing the sum by n-1, where n is the total number of data points. In a sample population, n-1 is a better estimate of variance than n because it accounts for the variability within the sample.
For example, if the variance of breast feeding duration is 74.9 months, this indicates that the duration is widely distributed from the mean of 17.6 months. A smaller variance, such as 4.5 months, would indicate that the duration varies less and is closer to the mean. The standard deviation, which is the square root of the variance, is also important in the spread of data. In a normal distribution, 95% of observations will fall within two standard deviations of the mean.
In the case of breast feeding duration, the mean is 17.6 months, indicating that babies are breast fed for an average of 15 and a half months. The median, which is the middle number in the data set, is 15 months, meaning that half of the babies were breast fed for 15 months. variance and standard deviation can help us better understand the distribution of breast feeding duration and other medical measurements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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At what stage of eukaryotic mitosis do the centromeres of chromosomes separate?
Your Answer: Prophase
Correct Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:Chromosome Division during Anaphase
Chromosomes are joined together in an X shape at the centromere. During anaphase, the centromeres break down and the chromosomes divide into two identical pairs called sister chromatids. These sister chromatids then move to opposite sides of the cell along a network of spindle fibres. When the cell divides during telophase, each daughter cell receives one sister chromatid from the parent cell. This ensures the accurate copying and propagation of genes. The process of chromosome division during anaphase is crucial for the proper distribution of genetic material in cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What function does vitamin E serve in the body?
Your Answer: Enhances blood clotting (pro-coagulant)
Correct Answer: Antioxidant
Explanation:Vitamin E and its Functions
Several substances are classified as vitamin E, with alpha-tocopherol being the most common, accounting for 90% of human vitamin E. Alpha-tocopherol is composed of two carbon rings and a long saturated hydrocarbon chain, making it hydrophobic. It has an aromatic ring with an OH- group attached to it. Other substances with vitamin E activity include other tocopherols and tocotrienols, all of which act as antioxidants. Alpha-tocopherol is particularly important in cell membranes, preventing the peroxidation of unsaturated fatty acids by free radicals. It also has other functions, such as regulating gene transcription, inhibiting clotting formation, reducing proliferation of vascular smooth muscle, and playing a role in immunity.
Despite claims that taking vitamin E can reduce the risk of heart disease, cancer, and enhance sexual performance, there is currently no strong evidence to support these claims.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being considered. What tests should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: MRI of the leg veins
Correct Answer: Dopplers of the leg veins
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Deep Vein Thrombosis
When it comes to diagnosing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), there are several methods available. The most common ones are Doppler studies and venography. Doppler studies use B mode ultrasonography to examine the venous system, while venography involves injecting a contrast dye into the veins and taking X-rays. CT scans are not typically used for DVT diagnosis because they require contrast and expose the patient to radiation. D-Dimer concentrations can help rule out DVT if they are negative, but they cannot diagnose it. MRI scans are useful for examining soft tissues and bones, but they are not the best option for visualizing the vasculature. Finally, oxygen saturation of the limbs is not a reliable diagnostic method because tissue perfusion can be the same even if there is arterial disease. Overall, Doppler studies and venography are the most effective methods for diagnosing DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the most common method of assessing nutritional status in adults?
Your Answer: Body mass index
Explanation:The Body Mass Index as a Measure of Nutritional Status
The measurement and assessment of nutritional status can be challenging, and there is no single test that can provide a complete picture. However, the body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used measurement in clinical practice. The BMI is calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. This measure is used to assess adiposity and nutritional status, and it is simple and quick to calculate and interpret.
Although the BMI is a convenient measure, it has limitations for assessing obesity in individual patients. It is best used to track trends in an individual patient’s BMI over time. In some cases, the BMI may overestimate fat mass in patients who are very tall or have a high proportion of lean tissue due to an active lifestyle. Additionally, the BMI may not be accurate for athletes and children.
Other measurements, such as skin fold thickness and weight, can also be useful, but the BMI is generally considered the better option. The ponderal index is used specifically for children. It is important to note that albumin is not a reliable marker of nutritional status, as it can also be affected by inflammation.
Overall, the BMI is a widely used measure of nutritional status and is recommended by the World Health Organization. However, it is important to consider its limitations and use it in conjunction with other measurements to obtain a more complete picture of a patient’s nutritional status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chédiak-Higashi syndrome?
Your Answer: They make poor targets for anti-cancer drugs
Correct Answer: They are arranged in a 9+2 formation in cilia
Explanation:Microtubules and Chédiak-Higashi Syndrome
Microtubules are made up of alpha and beta tubulin dimers that are arranged in a helix and can be added or removed to change the length. They are found in structures such as flagella, mitotic spindles, and cilia, where they have a 9+2 arrangement. These structures are important for cell movement and division. Chemotherapy agents, such as taxanes, target microtubules and are used in breast cancer treatment.
Chédiak-Higashi syndrome is a rare inherited immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutations in the LYST gene. This condition is characterized by neutrophil inclusions, albinism, recurrent infections, and peripheral neuropathy. The neutrophil inclusions are thought to be caused by abnormal microtubule function, which affects the immune system’s ability to fight infections. While there is no cure for Chédiak-Higashi syndrome, treatment focuses on managing symptoms and preventing infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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During which phase of aerobic respiration is FADH2 generated?
Your Answer: Oxidative phosphorylation
Correct Answer: Krebs cycle
Explanation:The Krebs Cycle and the Role of FADH2
The Krebs cycle is a crucial part of aerobic respiration in cells. It involves a series of reactions that convert acetate, derived from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, into carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP. Additionally, the Krebs cycle produces precursors for some amino acids and reducing agents like NADH and FADH2 that are involved in other metabolic pathways.
FAD is a redox cofactor that plays a vital role in the Krebs cycle. It receives two electrons from the sixth reaction of the cycle, where succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into fumarate by removing two hydrogen atoms and attaching them onto FAD. This process results in FAD gaining two electrons and reducing into FADH2.
FADH2 then donates the electrons to the electron transport chain, which is another part of cellular respiration. This mechanism helps compensate for the relatively low amount of ATP produced by the Krebs cycle (2.5 molecules of ATP per turn) compared to the electron transport chain (26-28 molecules of ATP). Overall, the Krebs cycle and the role of FADH2 are essential for generating energy in cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is the composition of enzymes found in lysosomes?
Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenases
Correct Answer: Acid hydrolases
Explanation:Lysosomes: The Digestive System of the Cell
Lysosomes are organelles that come from the Golgi apparatus and are enclosed by a membrane. They are responsible for breaking down various biological macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. Lysosomes contain acid hydrolases, which are enzymes that cleave chemical bonds by adding water and function at an acidic pH of around 5. They are involved in digesting foreign agents that are internalized by the cell and breaking down other cellular organelles like mitochondria, allowing for their components to be recycled.
The acidic pH within lysosomes is maintained by a proton pump in the lysosomal membrane, which imports protons from the cytosol coupled to ATP hydrolysis. This acidic environment is necessary for the activity of the acid hydrolases. D-amino acid oxidases and peroxidases are not found in lysosomes but in peroxisomes. Alcohol dehydrogenases and ATPases are not involved in digestion but in other cellular functions. Alcohol dehydrogenases catalyze the interconversion between alcohols and aldehydes or ketones with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, while ATPases catalyze the breakdown of ATP into ADP and a phosphate ion, releasing energy for the cell’s functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Correct
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In which part of the cell are the electron transport chain carriers situated?
Your Answer: Mitochondrial cristae
Explanation:The Electron Transport Chain in Mitochondria
The electron transport chain (ETC) is a crucial process in cellular aerobic respiration that occurs in the mitochondrial cristae. These are folded membranes inside the organelle. During respiration, NADH and FADH produced from other parts of the process, such as glycolysis, transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors through redox reactions. This electron transfer is coupled with proton transfer across the mitochondrial membrane, creating an electrochemical proton gradient. This gradient induces the production of ATP, which is used as an energy currency by the cell.
ATP is produced through a mechanism called chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is essential for this process to occur. The cristae provide a large surface area for the ETC to take place, and the mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to protons, allowing for the creation of the proton gradient. The inner membrane also contains ATP synthase, the enzyme responsible for producing ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation.
In summary, the electron transport chain in mitochondria is a complex process that involves the transfer of electrons and protons across the mitochondrial membrane to create a proton gradient. This gradient is then used to produce ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is crucial for this process to occur efficiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle?
Your Answer: Acetyl-CoA
Explanation:The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrion and involves the conversion of acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate. This cycle produces six NADH, two FADH, and two ATP for each molecule of glucose. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle, and water and carbon dioxide are end products. Acetic acid itself has no role in the cycle, but its acetyl group is used to form acetyl-CoA. Some anaerobic bacteria can convert sugars to acetic acid directly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A premature baby is born and the anaesthetists are struggling to ventilate the lungs because of insufficient surfactant. How does Laplace's law explain the force pushing inwards on the walls of the alveolus caused by surface tension between two static fluids, such as air and water in the alveolus?
Your Answer: Proportional to the square root of the radius of the alveolus
Correct Answer: Inversely proportional to the radius of the alveolus
Explanation:The Relationship between Alveolar Size and Surface Tension in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, the alveolus is often represented as a perfect sphere to apply Laplace’s law. According to this law, there is an inverse relationship between the size of the alveolus and the surface tension. This means that smaller alveoli experience greater force than larger alveoli for a given surface tension, and they will collapse first. This phenomenon explains why, when two balloons are attached together by their ends, the smaller balloon will empty into the bigger balloon.
In the lungs, this same principle applies to lung units, causing atelectasis and collapse when surfactant is not present. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension, making it easier to expand the alveoli and preventing smaller alveoli from collapsing. Therefore, surfactant plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the lungs and preventing respiratory distress. the relationship between alveolar size and surface tension is essential in respiratory physiology and can help in the development of treatments for lung diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the main role of the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells?
Your Answer: Synthesises proteins
Correct Answer: Process of proteins
Explanation:The Golgi Apparatus, Cell Division, and Homeostasis
The Golgi apparatus is a structure found in eukaryotic cells that consists of flattened membrane stacks. Its primary function is to modify proteins that have been synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, preparing them for secretion or transport within the cell. However, the Golgi apparatus is not directly involved in cell division, which is controlled by the nucleus.
Cell homeostasis, on the other hand, is primarily maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump. This mechanism ensures that the cell’s internal environment remains stable. The sodium-potassium pump is an active transport mechanism that involves the binding of three intracellular sodium ions to the protein. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) donates a phosphate group to the protein, which causes it to change shape and release the sodium ions out of the cell.
The protein then accepts two extracellular potassium ions, and the donated phosphate group detaches, causing the protein to revert to its original shape. This allows the potassium ions to enter the cell, increasing the intracellular potassium concentration and decreasing the intracellular sodium concentration. This process is in contrast to the extracellular conditions.
In summary, the Golgi apparatus modifies proteins for secretion or transport, while cell division is controlled by the nucleus. Cell homeostasis is maintained by membrane-embedded channels or proteins such as the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports ions to stabilize the cell’s internal environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A couple in their late 30s come to the clinic seeking information about the risk of their three children inheriting Huntington's disease. The husband has recently been diagnosed with the disease, while the wife is not affected. What is the likelihood, expressed as a percentage, that their children will inherit the disease?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically appears later in life and is characterized by symptoms such as chorea, cognitive decline, and personality changes. It is an autosomal dominant disease, meaning that there is a 50% chance of passing it on to offspring. If the gene is inherited from an unaffected parent, the child will not be affected. This is different from autosomal recessive inheritance, where both parents must pass on the gene for it to affect their children.
The disease is caused by an increase in the length of a repeating trinucleotide sequence (CAG) in the Huntington protein. This sequence can change in length through generations, and longer sequences are associated with earlier onset of symptoms (genetic anticipation). Since Huntington’s disease usually presents itself after people have already started their families, there are many issues associated with genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Correct
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Which statement regarding microtubules is accurate in relation to Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Your Answer: They are arranged in a 9+2 formation in cilia
Explanation:Microtubules and Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
Microtubules are structures composed of alpha and beta tubulin dimers that are arranged in a helix and can be added or removed to vary the length. They are found in flagella, mitotic spindles, and cilia, where they have a 9+2 arrangement. Chemotherapy agents, such as taxanes, target microtubules in breast cancer treatment.
Chediak-Higashi syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that presents with albinism, bleeding and bruising due to platelet dysfunction, and susceptibility to infections due to abnormal neutrophils. The LYST gene is responsible for lysosomal trafficking proteins and is affected in this syndrome.
In summary, microtubules are important structures in various cellular processes and are targeted in cancer treatment. Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that affects lysosomal trafficking proteins and presents with various symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What could be a potential cause of metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Correct Answer: Poorly controlled diabetes
Explanation:Acid-Base Imbalances in Different Medical Conditions
Poorly controlled diabetes can cause the breakdown of fatty acids, leading to the production of ketones as an alternative energy source. However, an excess of ketones can result in metabolic acidosis due to their acidic nature. On the other hand, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and suffocation can cause the retention of carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. In COPD, there may be a compensatory metabolic alkalosis. Voluntary hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the reduction of carbon dioxide. Vomiting can also lead to metabolic alkalosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of type 1 diabetes that results in high blood sugar levels, ketone production, and acidosis.
In summary, different medical conditions can cause acid-base imbalances in the body. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the imbalance to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the primary reason for malnutrition?
Your Answer: Inadequate intake of multiple vitamins
Correct Answer: Inadequate intake of calories in any form
Explanation:Malnutrition
Malnutrition refers to a state where the dietary intake is insufficient to maintain a healthy state and stable weight. It can be caused by over- or under-nutrition, but it is commonly used to describe under-nutrition. Malnutrition can be defined as a state of nutrition where a deficiency, excess, or imbalance of energy, protein, and other nutrients causes measurable adverse effects on tissue, function, and clinical outcome. Protein malnutrition is the most severe form of malnutrition, causing significant mortality and clinical effects such as kwashiorkor. Carbohydrate malnutrition is less common as carbohydrate sources are widely grown and cheap. Fat malnutrition rarely results in problems if there is adequate dietary protein and carbohydrate. Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins can result in various clinical effects. Body size can give some indication of nutritional status, but many obese patients may have nutritional deficiencies due to their faddy diets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Correct
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What is the primary role of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
Your Answer: To regulate gene transcription and translation
Explanation:The Nucleus: Control Centre of the Cell
The nucleus is the control centre of the cell, responsible for regulating gene transcription from DNA into mRNA and from mRNA into peptide/protein synthesis. Eukaryotic cells have a membrane-enclosed organised nucleus, while prokaryotic cells lack this structure. The nuclear structure consists of an outer and inner nuclear membrane that form the nuclear envelope, which has nuclear pores allowing the movement of water-soluble molecules. Inside the nucleus is the nucleoplasm containing the nuclear lamina, a dense fibrillar network that acts as a skeleton and regulates DNA replication and cell division. The nucleus also contains nucleoli, structures involved in the formation of ribosomes responsible for mRNA translation.
Although the incorrect answer options above describe processes in which the nucleus is involved, none of them constitutes its main function within the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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What significance do leucine, lysine, and phenylalanine hold?
Your Answer: They are essential amino acids
Explanation:Essential Amino Acids and their Importance in the Diet
There are approximately 20 essential amino acids that are crucial for human health. These amino acids are considered essential because the body cannot produce them on its own and they must be obtained through the diet. While some of these essential amino acids can be used to create other non-essential amino acids, they are still necessary for overall health and wellbeing.
Some examples of essential amino acids include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. However, the amount of these essential amino acids can vary depending on the type of dietary protein consumed. Additionally, cooking or preserving proteins can alter the amino acid composition, making them less effective for the body.
In summary, essential amino acids play a vital role in maintaining human health and must be obtained through the diet. the importance of these amino acids and their sources can help individuals make informed decisions about their dietary choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The diabetes prevention program has been running for the last 5 years. At baseline, a well conducted study with a sample size of 500 showed that the prevalence of diabetes among adults aged 40 and above was 15%.
Five years later another survey (of 400 responders) showed that the prevalence of diabetes was 10%.
In the above example, which definition of prevalence is correct?Your Answer: Prevalence is the numbers of new and old smokers at baseline and at 10 years
Correct Answer: Prevalence is the number of new and old smokers in a year
Explanation:Prevalence and Incidence in Smoking
Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in the smoking habits of a population. Prevalence refers to the number of people who smoke at a particular time point, such as at the beginning or end of a study period. This is calculated by dividing the number of smokers by the total population.
On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of smoking at a particular time point. For example, this could be at the beginning of a study period for the whole year or at the 10th year. This is calculated by dividing the number of new smokers by the number of smoke-free individuals who are potentially at risk of taking up smoking.
prevalence and incidence is important in evaluating the effectiveness of smoking cessation programs and policies. By tracking changes in prevalence and incidence over time, researchers and policymakers can determine whether their efforts are making a difference in reducing smoking rates. Additionally, these concepts can help identify populations that are at higher risk of taking up smoking, allowing for targeted interventions to prevent smoking initiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What are the clinical effects that can occur due to acute or chronic over-administration of multivitamins leading to Vitamin A toxicity?
Your Answer: Bone overgrowth with deformity
Correct Answer: Nausea, vomiting and headaches
Explanation:The Importance and Risks of Vitamin A
Vitamin A is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions such as growth and development, vision, enzyme signalling pathways, and the maintenance of epithelial membranes. However, excessive intake of vitamin A can lead to toxicity, which can cause several adverse effects. These include raised intracranial pressure resulting in headaches, nausea, vomiting, and visual loss, increased bone resorption leading to osteoporosis and hypercalcaemia, liver damage, hair loss, and skin changes. Moreover, there is a possible increased risk of malignancy, particularly among smokers. Pregnant women are also advised to avoid foods rich in vitamin A, such as liver and fish oils, due to the teratogenicity of vitamin A-derived drugs. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a balanced intake of vitamin A to avoid the risks associated with its toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During which stage of the cell cycle does the replication of DNA occur?
Your Answer: M phase
Correct Answer: S phase
Explanation:The Five Phases of the Cell Cycle
The cell cycle is a complex process that is divided into five main phases, each with its unique cellular events. The first phase is the G0 phase, which is a resting phase where the cell has stopped dividing and is out of the cell cycle. The second phase is the G1 phase, also known as interphase Gap 1, where cells increase in size, and a checkpoint control mechanism prepares the cell for DNA synthesis.
The third phase is the S phase, where DNA replication occurs. The fourth phase is the G2 phase, also known as Gap 2, which is a gap between DNA synthesis and the onset of mitosis. During this phase, the cell continues to grow until it is ready to enter mitosis. Finally, the fifth phase is the M phase, also known as mitosis, where cell growth stops, and the cell focuses its energy to divide into two daughter cells.
A checkpoint in the middle of mitosis, known as the metaphase checkpoint, ensures that the cell is prepared to complete division. the five phases of the cell cycle is crucial in how cells divide and grow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the primary means of transportation for vitamin D in the human body?
Your Answer: In lymph, bound to albumin
Correct Answer: In blood, bound to the group specific component
Explanation:The Role of UV Light and Vitamin D in Calcium and Phosphate Regulation
In order for the body to produce Vitamin D3, UV light at a specific wavelength is required to convert cholesterol in the skin. Vitamin D2 and D3 are then transported in the bloodstream bound to the Vitamin-D Binding Protein and undergo further modifications in the liver and kidney to become the active form, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. This active form plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate concentrations in the body.
1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D increases calcium absorption in the duodenum and inhibits the secretion and synthesis of PTH, which helps to maintain calcium concentrations. It also increases phosphate absorption in the jejunum and ileum, which is important for maintaining phosphate concentrations. Additionally, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D promotes bone turnover by stimulating both osteoblast and osteoclast activity.
Overall, the production and activation of Vitamin D through UV light and dietary sources is essential for proper calcium and phosphate regulation in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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