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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history of painless rectal bleeding. She reports seeing blood on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl after defecation. The blood is not mixed with the stool, and there is no associated weight loss or change in bowel habit. She gave birth to twin boys after an uncomplicated pregnancy and normal vaginal delivery. She has no past medical or family history of note.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fissure-in-ano

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can affect individuals of all ages, but pregnancy is a known risk factor. Contrary to previous beliefs, haemorrhoids are not simply varicose veins, but rather enlarged vascular cushions with a complex anatomy. The main function of these cushions is to help maintain continence, but when they become enlarged or prolapsed, they can cause a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptom of haemorrhoids is rectal bleeding, which may be visible on toilet paper or in the toilet bowl. Other symptoms may include mucous discharge, pruritus, and soiling episodes due to incomplete closure of the anal sphincter. However, pain is not a typical feature of first-degree haemorrhoids, unless they become thrombosed.

      To confirm the diagnosis of haemorrhoids, a thorough examination is necessary, including an abdominal assessment and proctoscopy. It is important to rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as fissure-in-ano, perianal haematoma, anorectal abscess, or colorectal carcinoma (especially in older patients).

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of haemorrhoids can help healthcare providers provide appropriate management and improve patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colonic carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults

      Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.

      Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright red blood during bowel movements. The patient experiences severe pain each time they open their bowels, which has been ongoing for the past two weeks. The patient is now very anxious and avoids opening their bowels whenever possible, but this seems to worsen the pain symptoms. Rectal examination is not possible due to the patient's inability to tolerate the procedure because of pain.
      What is the recommended treatment for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Nitroglycerin ointment

      Explanation:

      Anal Fissure: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      An anal fissure is a common condition that can occur at any age, but is most common in individuals aged 15-40. It can be primary, without underlying cause, or secondary, associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease or constipation. Symptoms include severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, bleeding, and itching.

      Treatment options include managing pain with simple analgesia and topical anesthetics, regular sitz baths, increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake, and stool softeners. Topical glyceryl trinitrate ointment may also be used to promote relaxation of the anal sphincter and aid healing. If the fissure remains unhealed after 6-8 weeks, surgical management options such as local Botox injection or sphincterotomy may be considered.

      Antibiotic therapy does not have a role in the management of anal fissures, and band ligation is a secondary care option for the treatment of hemorrhoids, not anal fissures. Incision and drainage would only be indicated if the patient presented with a perianal abscess. Simple analgesia can be offered to manage pain symptoms, but opioid-containing preparations should be avoided to prevent further constipation and worsening of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort and bloating. She also reports having episodes of diarrhea with mucous in her stool, but no blood. The pain tends to worsen after meals and improve after having a bowel movement. Despite her symptoms, she has not experienced any weight loss and maintains a healthy appetite. She has undergone surgery for osteoarthritis in her hip, but has no other significant medical history.
      Upon investigation, the patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease. What is the most likely complication this patient may develop?

      Your Answer: Colovesical fistulae

      Explanation:

      Complications and Associations of Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a condition that can lead to various complications. One of the most common complications is the formation of fistulae, which are abnormal connections between different organs. The most frequent type of fistula associated with diverticular disease is the colovesical fistula, which connects the colon and the bladder. Other types of fistulae include colovaginal, colouterine, and coloenteric. Colocutaneous fistulae, which connect the colon and the skin, are less common.

      Diverticular disease does not increase the risk of developing colorectal carcinoma, a type of cancer that affects the bowel. However, it can cause other symptoms such as haemorrhoids, which are not directly related to the condition. Anal fissure, another medical condition that affects the anus, is not associated with diverticular disease either. Instead, it is linked to other conditions such as HIV, tuberculosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and syphilis.

      In summary, diverticular disease can lead to various complications and associations, but it is not a pre-malignant condition and does not directly cause haemorrhoids or anal fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 6-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 6-month history of rectal bleeding, altered bowel habit and weight loss. Given his strong family history of colorectal cancer, the physician wants to investigate and rule out this diagnosis.

      What would be the most suitable investigation to perform in a patient with suspected colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tools for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent malignancy in the western world, with symptoms varying depending on the location of the cancer within the intestinal tract. Colonoscopy is currently the preferred diagnostic tool for young, otherwise healthy patients. Management decisions are made after multidisciplinary team discussions, with surgical removal of the tumor being a common approach. Preoperative radiotherapy may be used to shrink tumors, and post-operative adjuvant chemotherapy can improve survival rates. Other diagnostic tools include endorectal ultrasound for staging rectal cancers, pelvic MRI for detailed staging and operative planning, and CT colonography as a sensitive diagnostic test when colonoscopy is high risk or incomplete. However, CT colonography cannot take biopsies or remove polyps. While raised CEA levels may indicate colorectal cancer, they can also be elevated for other reasons, and normal levels do not rule out the possibility of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: If untreated, it is unlikely to become life threatening

      Correct Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)

      Explanation:

      Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      69.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of a portion of his bowel. At the clinico-pathological conference, the histological findings of the operative sample are discussed.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of Crohn’s disease?

      Your Answer: Transmural inflammation

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis: Histopathological Features

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a term used to describe two conditions: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. While both conditions share some similarities, they have distinct differences that can be identified through histopathological examination of surgical specimens.

      Transmural inflammation, which affects all layers of the intestinal wall, is a hallmark feature of Crohn’s disease. This type of inflammation is not typically seen in ulcerative colitis. Additionally, Crohn’s disease often presents as skip lesions, meaning that affected areas are separated by healthy tissue. In contrast, ulcerative colitis typically presents as continuous disease limited to the large bowel.

      Crypt abscesses, which are collections of inflammatory cells within the crypts of the intestinal lining, are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis. Mucosal inflammation, which affects only the surface layer of the intestinal lining, is more typical of ulcerative colitis as well.

      Other histopathological features that can help distinguish between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis include the presence of rose thorn ulcers (deep ulcers with a characteristic appearance) in Crohn’s disease and lymphoid aggregates in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis.

      In summary, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis share some similarities, histopathological examination of surgical specimens can help differentiate between the two conditions based on the presence or absence of certain features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy

      Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly and he has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the past six hours. Despite his discomfort, his physical examination does not reveal any significant findings. The patient has a notable medical history, having previously suffered a myocardial infarction that necessitated the placement of a pacemaker.
      What test is most likely to confirm a diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

      Correct Answer: Abdominal computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Mesenteric Ischaemia

      Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a lack of blood flow to the intestines, which can lead to serious complications. There are several diagnostic imaging techniques that can be used to identify mesenteric ischaemia, including abdominal computed tomography (CT), abdominal ultrasound, abdominal X-ray, colonoscopy, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA).

      Abdominal CT is often the first-line investigation used to rule out other causes and can identify signs of mesenteric ischaemia, such as gas in the intestinal wall and portal vein. Abdominal ultrasound is not useful in assessing bowel lesions but may indicate perforation and free fluid in the abdomen. Abdominal X-ray findings are non-specific and may not be helpful in narrowing down the differential. Colonoscopy can be helpful in looking at mucosal lesions of the bowel but carries a risk of perforation. MRA can be useful in assessing vascular pathology but is not recommended for patients with pacemakers.

      In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic imaging techniques may be necessary to accurately diagnose mesenteric ischaemia and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and distension. He reports not having a bowel movement in 4 days and is now experiencing vomiting. An abdominal X-ray reveals enlarged loops of the large intestine. The patient has no history of surgery and a physical examination shows a soft, tender abdomen without palpable masses. A rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. What is the probable cause of the obstruction?

      Your Answer: Adhesions

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of Large Bowel Obstruction: Differential Diagnosis

      Large bowel obstruction can be caused by various conditions, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate management. The following are some possible causes of large bowel obstruction and their distinguishing features:

      1. Sigmoid Carcinoma: Colorectal cancer is a common cause of large bowel obstruction, with the sigmoid colon being the most commonly affected site. Patients may present with abdominal pain, distension, and constipation. Treatment usually involves emergency surgery.

      2. Sigmoid Volvulus: This occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on itself, leading to obstruction. The classic coffee bean sign may be seen on abdominal X-ray. Treatment involves endoscopic or surgical decompression.

      3. Incarcerated Inguinal Hernia: This occurs when a portion of the intestine protrudes through the inguinal canal and becomes trapped. Patients may present with a palpable mass in the groin, which is not described in the case history above. Treatment involves surgical repair.

      4. Adhesions: Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form after abdominal surgery. They can cause bowel obstruction by kinking or compressing the intestine. Adhesions usually affect the small bowel, but they can also involve the large bowel. Treatment involves surgery.

      5. Constipation: Chronic constipation can cause pseudo-obstruction, which mimics mechanical obstruction. However, the finding of an empty rectum on digital rectal examination makes constipation unlikely as the sole cause of large bowel obstruction.

      In conclusion, large bowel obstruction can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      91.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal occult blood. Upon further questioning, he disclosed that his bowel movements have altered in the past few months. During physical examination, he appeared pale and breathless, but otherwise his examination was normal. Laboratory tests indicated that he had anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
      What would be the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis in this individual?

      Your Answer: Barium swallow

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for Iron Deficiency Anaemia in a Man

      Iron deficiency anaemia in a man is often caused by chronic blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract. In this case, the patient’s altered bowel habits and lack of other symptoms suggest a colonic pathology, most likely a cancer. Therefore, a colonoscopy is the best investigation to identify the source of the bleeding.

      A barium swallow is not appropriate in this case as it only examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal angiography is an invasive and expensive test that is typically reserved for patients with massive blood loss or mesenteric ischaemia. While abdominal radiographs are useful, a colonoscopy is a more appropriate investigation in this case.

      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unlikely to reveal the cause of the patient’s symptoms as it primarily examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, it may be useful in cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeds causing melaena.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal cancer. His father passed away from the disease at the age of 35, and the patient is worried about his own risk. He has no knowledge of any other cancer in his family.
      What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Importance of Colonoscopy in Patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

      Explanation:
      It is crucial to consider familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) in patients with a family history of colorectal cancer at a young age. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, leading to the development of numerous polyps in the colon. If left untreated, patients with FAP develop colorectal cancer by the age of 35-40.

      In this scenario, the patient’s father likely had FAP, and the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and developing the disease. Therefore, regardless of the patient’s symptoms or blood results, a colonoscopy is necessary to review the colon and identify any polyps. Treatment for FAP involves a total colectomy at around the age of 20.

      Reassurance would be inappropriate in this scenario, and a digital rectal examination alone is not sufficient. It is essential to arrange a colonoscopy for patients with a family history of FAP to detect and treat the condition early. Additionally, it is recommended to review the patient with a view to colonoscopy at the age of 30 to monitor for any polyp development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back...

    Correct

    • A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back at school when he gets a sharp pain in the right inguinal region and notices a bulge just above his groin on the right. His GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the teenager's appendicectomy?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage during Appendicectomy: Understanding the Ilioinguinal, T10, Femoral, Genitofemoral, and Obturator Nerves

      During an appendicectomy, it is possible for nerves to be damaged if the surgeon performs overzealous sharp dissection of the musculature within the incision. One of the nerves that can be affected is the ilioinguinal nerve, which is a branch from the first lumbar nerve. This nerve passes between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles, supplying these muscles that form the roof of the inguinal canal in the groin region. Damage to the ilioinguinal nerve can lead to the development of an indirect inguinal hernia.

      It is important to note that the T10 nerve, which originates from below the thoracic vertebra 10, is too high to be damaged during an appendicectomy. The femoral nerve, which supplies the thigh and arises from the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves, is also unlikely to be damaged during the procedure. The genitofemoral nerve and obturator nerve are also not typically affected during an appendicectomy.

      In summary, understanding the potential nerve damage that can occur during an appendicectomy is important for both patients and surgeons. By being aware of the nerves that are at risk, surgeons can take appropriate precautions to minimize the risk of complications and ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student....

    Incorrect

    • You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student. The consultant asks you what structures form the roof of the inguinal canal.

      What forms the roof of the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: The aponeurosis of the medial oblique

      Correct Answer: The arched fibres of internal oblique and transversus abdominis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Inguinal Canal: Structures and Functions

      The inguinal canal is a passage located in the abdominal wall that extends from the abdominal inguinal ring to the subcutaneous inguinal ring. It is about 4 cm long, slanting downwards and medially, and is situated just above the medial part of the inguinal ligament. The canal contains important structures such as the spermatic cord and the ilioinguinal nerve in males, and the round ligament of the uterus and the ilioinguinal nerve in females.

      The roof of the inguinal canal is formed by the arched fibres of the internal oblique muscle and transversus abdominis, along with the transversalis fascia. The floor of the canal is formed by the union of the transversalis fascia with the inguinal ligament, along with the lacunar ligament at the medial third. The medial third of the floor is also formed by the lacunar ligament, while the posterior wall is formed by the reflected inguinal ligament, also known as the conjoint tendon, and the transversalis fascia.

      Understanding the anatomy of the inguinal canal is important for medical professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions such as hernias and nerve entrapment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 days. The bleeding worsens after passing stools. He has recently increased his fibre intake, but he still finds it very difficult to pass stools. Defecation causes him severe pain that lasts for hours. During the examination, you try to perform a DRE, but the patient experiences severe pain, making it impossible to complete the procedure. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Common Anal Conditions and Their Differentiating Features

      Anal conditions can cause discomfort and pain, but each has its own unique symptoms and characteristics. Anal fissures, for example, are caused by a tear in the sensitive skin-lined lower anal canal and cause acute pain on defecation. Treatment involves analgesia or topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) or diltiazem to relax the sphincter. Rectal prolapse, on the other hand, causes a mass protruding through the anus and may also result in constipation and/or faecal incontinence. Fistula in ano is an abnormal connection between the anal canal and perianal skin, while anal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that presents with rectal bleeding, unexplained weight loss, persistent change in bowel habit, iron deficiency anaemia, and abdominal or rectal mass. Finally, haemorrhoids are vascular cushions in the anal canal that usually cause painless PR bleeding, but rarely cause discomfort. Understanding the differentiating features of these common anal conditions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman with Crohn's disease presents with severe abdominal pain. Upon investigation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with Crohn's disease presents with severe abdominal pain. Upon investigation, a small intestinal obstruction is discovered, and during surgery, a large stricture is found in the terminal ileum. As a result, approximately 90 cm of the terminal ileum had to be resected. What is the most common complication in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Complications of Terminal Ileum Resection

      When the terminal ileum is lost due to resection, there can be various complications depending on the length of the resection. One such complication is D-lactic acidosis, which occurs after the intake of refined carbohydrates. Gallstones may also form due to interruption in the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids. Patients with a short bowel are encouraged to eat more to replenish the different vitamins and minerals. They may also be at risk of developing calcium oxalate kidney stones. However, they are not at increased risk of uric acid stones unless they have coexisting conditions such as gout. It is important to note that iron deficiency may not be affected by ileal pathology, while vitamin K and D deficiencies are not common complications of terminal ileum resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      44.1
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man is admitted to the Surgical Unit with colicky central abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is admitted to the Surgical Unit with colicky central abdominal pain. He has been vomiting for 6 hours and has not passed any stools for over 24 hours. On examination, he is in obvious discomfort; his abdomen is distended, and his pulse is 90 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute and blood pressure 90/55 mmHg. A supine radiograph film confirms small bowel obstruction.
      What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction in the United Kingdom (UK)?

      Your Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      Causes and Management of Small Bowel Obstruction

      Small bowel obstruction is a common surgical condition that can be caused by various factors. The most common cause in the UK is adhesions, accounting for 50-70% of cases. Other causes include volvulus, hernia, malignancy, and foreign bodies. The obstruction can be classified based on its location, whether it is intraluminal, intramural, or extramural.

      The typical presentation of small bowel obstruction includes pain, vomiting, and failure to pass stool or gas. Abdominal distension and tinkling bowel sounds may also be observed, along with tachycardia and hypotension. Diagnosis is made through plain abdominal X-ray, which may show distended bowel loops in the center.

      Management of small bowel obstruction involves fluid resuscitation and prompt correction of the underlying cause. Conservative treatment, such as intravenous fluids and regular aspiration through a nasogastric tube, may be used initially. However, operative intervention is necessary for suspected strangulation, irreducible hernias, and cases that do not resolve with conservative management.

      In summary, small bowel obstruction can have various causes and presentations, but early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial for successful outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      364.3
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  • Question 18 - A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and lower colicky abdominal pain. He has experienced these symptoms for two years and during this time has lost over a stone in weight. Recently he has noticed a strange red rash on his shins. Past medical history includes a diagnosis of a fissure-in-ano three years ago.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Crohn’s Disease: Clinical Picture and Differential Diagnosis

      The clinical presentation of a patient with weight loss and a red rash on the shins suggests a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. This condition typically affects individuals between the ages of 15-30 and is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss.

      A history of fissure-in-ano further supports the possibility of Crohn’s disease, as this condition is commonly associated with perianal disease. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count and colonoscopy with biopsy are necessary. Crohn’s disease is transmural and can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, leading to the formation of skip lesions between inflamed and unaffected bowel.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include infective colitis, ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, and appendicitis. However, infective colitis typically has a shorter duration of symptoms, while ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhea and mucous discharge. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and a 2-year history effectively rules out appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      10.6
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  • Question 19 - What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify it during an open repair of a perforated gastric ulcer by the operating surgeon, as observed by a medical student?

      Your Answer: It provides a route of access to the lesser sac

      Explanation:

      The Greater Omentum: An Integral Structure with Surgical Importance

      The greater omentum, also known as the gastrocolic omentum, is a double sheet of peritoneum that hangs down like an apron overlying loops of intestine. It is made up of four layers, two of which descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and are continuous with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the stomach. The other two layers run between the anterior layers and the transverse colon, loosely blending with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the colon and the transverse mesocolon above it.

      Contrary to the belief that it has no surgical importance, the greater omentum is of paramount surgical importance. Surgeons use it to buttress an intestinal anastomosis or in the closure of a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer. It also attempts to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections, earning it the nickname great policeman of the abdomen. The greater omentum is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries, and its blood supply may be cut off if it undergoes torsion.

      Furthermore, the greater omentum is often found plugging the neck of a hernial sac, preventing the entry of coils of the small intestine and strangulation of the bowel. In an acutely inflamed appendix, the omentum adheres to the appendix and wraps itself around the infected organ, localizing the infection to a small area of the peritoneal cavity. However, in the first two years of life, the greater omentum is poorly developed and less protective in young children.

      In conclusion, the greater omentum is an integral structure with significant surgical importance, providing access to the lesser sac and attempting to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 20 - A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. His medical history shows that he has had previous abdominal surgery. During the examination, you notice that his abdomen is distended, and upon auscultation, you hear 'tinkling' bowel sounds. An abdominal radiograph reveals multiple loops of dilated bowel centrally, with valvulae conniventes present. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      Causes of Bowel Obstruction: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Bowel obstruction is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In young patients, adhesions secondary to previous surgery are the most common cause of bowel obstruction, particularly in the small intestine. The four classical features of bowel obstruction are abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distension, and absolute constipation. It is important to differentiate between small bowel and large bowel obstruction, with age being a helpful factor in determining the latter.

      While colorectal carcinoma is a significant cause of large bowel obstruction, it only accounts for about 5% of cases in the UK. Hernias are the second most common cause of small bowel obstruction, but adhesions are more likely in patients with a history of abdominal surgery. Crohn’s disease typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, while diverticulitis is more common in older patients and is unlikely to cause the symptoms described.

      In conclusion, understanding the various causes of bowel obstruction and their associated symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change in bowel habit and bleeding per rectum. He reports no further symptoms, and an abdominal and digital rectal examination are unremarkable. However, colonoscopy shows a high rectal tumour, encompassing approximately two-thirds of the diameter of the colon. He is booked to have an operation.
      Which of the following is he most likely to be listed for?

      Your Answer: Pan-colectomy

      Correct Answer: Anterior resection

      Explanation:

      Types of Colorectal Resection Surgeries

      Colorectal resection surgeries are performed to remove cancerous or non-cancerous tumors in the colon or rectum. Here are the different types of colorectal resection surgeries:

      1. Anterior Resection: This surgery is recommended for non-obstructed tumors in the distal sigmoid colon, middle or upper rectum.

      2. abdominoperineal Resection: This surgery is used for operable low rectal and anorectal tumors. It involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and sigmoid colon, and the formation of an end-colostomy.

      3. Sigmoid Colectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the sigmoid colon.

      4. Left Hemicolectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the descending colon.

      5. Pan-colectomy: This surgery involves the removal of the entire colon and is typically performed in cases of ulcerative colitis. It requires the formation of a permanent ileostomy or the construction of an ileal-anal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On examination, he appears uncomfortable, with a heart rate of 105 bpm, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, oxygen saturations on room air of 95%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a temperature of 37.4 °C. His cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable, except for a previous median sternotomy scar. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness throughout the abdomen, which is significantly worse on the left with guarding. Urgent blood tests are taken, and chest and abdominal X-rays are performed. The chest X-ray is normal, except for an increased cardiothoracic ratio, but the abdominal X-ray shows thumbprinting in the left colon but an otherwise normal gas pattern.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Angiodysplasia

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic colitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain: A Guide

      When a patient presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide prompt and appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to consider when differentiating between potential causes:

      Ischaemic colitis: This can occur as a result of atherosclerosis in the mesenteric arteries, leading to tissue death and subsequent inflammation. It is a surgical emergency that requires urgent investigation and treatment.

      Angiodysplasia: This is a small vascular malformation that typically presents with melaena, unexplained PR bleeding, or anaemia. It is unlikely to cause an acute abdomen.

      Infectious colitis: While infectious colitis can cause abdominal pain and diarrhoea, it typically does not come on as rapidly as other causes. Clostridium difficile colitis is a subtype that can be particularly severe and difficult to manage.

      Ulcerative colitis: This is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that usually presents with abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, and other symptoms. It is unlikely to be a first presentation in a 69-year-old patient.

      Diverticulitis: This is a common cause of left-sided abdominal pain, especially in older patients. It occurs when diverticula become infected or inflamed, but can be treated with antibiotics. Complications such as perforation or PR bleeding may require urgent intervention.

      By considering these potential causes and their associated symptoms, healthcare providers can more effectively diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
      To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics

      Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.

      Direct Inguinal Hernia

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.

      Aponeurosis of External Oblique

      In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.

      Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique

      A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.

      Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis

      Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.

      Superficial Inguinal Ring

      An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.

      Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on defecation, which has lasted over two months despite increasing fluid intake and stool softeners. He has had anal fissures in the past, as well as a previous perianal abscess. On examination, the anal area is inflamed, with evidence of a deep anal fissure with an associated large sentinel tag.
      The doctor explains that this is a symptom of active perianal disease secondary to this patient’s chronic bowel condition.
      With which of the following conditions is perianal disease most commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Diverticular disease

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Perianal Manifestations in Inflammatory Bowel Disease: A Comparison

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition that affects the digestive tract. Two main types of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Both conditions can cause perianal manifestations, but the prevalence and severity differ.

      Crohn’s disease is commonly complicated by perianal abscesses, fistula-in-ano, anal fissures, and skin tags. Up to 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease may suffer from perianal disease, which can significantly impair their quality of life. In contrast, perianal disease is far less common in patients with ulcerative colitis.

      Coeliac disease, another digestive disorder, is not associated with perianal disease. However, it is linked to an increased risk of other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease.

      Diverticular disease, which causes abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, and diarrhea, is also not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a functional disorder that causes symptoms such as bloating, cramping, abdominal pain, and constipation or diarrhea. Unlike IBD, IBS is not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      In summary, perianal manifestations are more commonly seen in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis or other digestive disorders. A multidisciplinary approach may be required to manage severe cases of perianal Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
      What is the most effective treatment option?

      Your Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment

      When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 26 - You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an anterior resection for sigmoid cancer. His operation was uncomplicated, and he is now three days post operation. He has hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension, but was otherwise fit before diagnosis. You find that the man is in atrial fibrillation. Nursing staff report that he is increasingly confused and appears to be in pain despite postoperative pain relief. They also report decreased urine output and tachycardia when they last took observations.
      What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hospital acquired pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Anastomotic leak

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Signs of Sepsis Post-Abdominal Surgery

      When a patient presents with signs of sepsis post-abdominal surgery, it is important to consider the possible causes. While anastomotic leak is a common complication, hospital-acquired pneumonia, consequences of surgery, pulmonary embolus, and pre-existing cardiac conditions can also be potential factors. However, it is crucial to note that each condition presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and investigation are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 27 - At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist...

    Correct

    • At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist for a colectomy. The referral letter mentions that the patient has been screened for a genetic abnormality and that a mutation was found in a gene on chromosome 5q21.
      What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

      Explanation:

      Inherited Conditions Predisposing to Colorectal Carcinoma

      There are several inherited conditions that increase an individual’s risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. These conditions can be divided into two groups: polyposis syndromes and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.

      The polyposis syndromes can be further divided into adenomatous polyposis and hamartomatous polyposis. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common and important of the polyposis syndromes. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the development of over 100 polyps in the large bowel by the mid-teens. Patients with FAP typically undergo prophylactic colectomy before the age of 30.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is one of the hamartomatous polyposis conditions and is characterized by the presence of pigmented lesions on the lips. Patients with this syndrome are predisposed to cancers of the small and large bowel, testis, stomach, pancreas, and breast.

      Familial juvenile polyposis is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that occurs in children and teenagers.

      Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is the most common inherited condition leading to colorectal cancer. It is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes and carries a 70% lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer.

      Cowden’s disease is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that causes macrocephaly, hamartomatous polypoid disease, and benign skin tumors.

      In summary, understanding these inherited conditions and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention of colorectal carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood specimens. He has had no significant symptoms, apart from mild fatigue over the past few months.
      On examination, he has pale conjunctiva, but there are no other specific findings.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 79 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 275 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 11 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 46 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Flexible colonoscopy: abnormal vessels visualised on the right side of the colon
      Which of the following is the initial therapy of choice?

      Your Answer: 2 units of blood transfusion

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels

      Explanation:

      Management of Angiodysplasia of the Colon

      Angiodysplasia of the colon is a condition that commonly affects individuals over the age of 60 and presents with chronic hypochromic microcytic anemia or massive bleeding with hemodynamic instability in 15% of patients. The treatment of choice for this condition is endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels. Surgery may be considered for those who do not respond to ablation therapy. A review colonoscopy in 6 months would not be appropriate as management is required for the observed angiodysplasia. Blood transfusion is not indicated unless there are signs of acute large-volume blood loss. Iron sulfate supplementation may not be necessary if the underlying condition is treated, as the iron deficiency should correct itself with adequate dietary intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 29 - A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery....

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery. When examining this patient after her surgery, you notice she has an end colostomy.
      What feature in particular will suggest that this patient has had a Hartmann’s procedure and not an abdominoperineal (AP) resection?

      Your Answer: Presence of rectum

      Explanation:

      The patient has a presence of rectum, indicating that they have undergone a Hartmann’s procedure, which is commonly performed for perforated diverticulitis or to palliate rectal carcinoma. This involves resecting the sigmoid colon and leaving the rectal stump, which is oversewn. An end colostomy is created in the left iliac fossa, which can be reversed later to restore intestinal continuity. The midline scar observed is not exclusive to a Hartmann’s procedure, as AP resections and other abdominal surgeries can also be carried out via a midline incision. The presence of an end colostomy confirms that a Hartmann’s procedure has been performed. The Rutherford-Morison scar, a transverse scar used for colonic procedures and kidney transplants, is not unique to either an AP resection or a Hartmann’s procedure. The presence of solid faeces in the stoma bag is expected for a colostomy, while ileostomies typically contain liquid faeces and are usually located in the right lower quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 30 - A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate for an extended left hemicolectomy. The tumour is located in the descending colon and the surgery will involve ligating the blood vessel that supplies it. What is the name of the artery that provides the primary blood supply to the descending colon?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Abdomen: Supplying the Digestive System

      The digestive system is supplied by several arteries in the abdomen. The inferior mesenteric artery provides blood to the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum. On the other hand, the superior mesenteric artery branches into several arteries, including the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, and right and middle colic arteries. It supplies up to the splenic flexure. The cystic artery, as its name suggests, supplies the gallbladder. Lastly, the ileocolic artery supplies the caecum, ileum, and appendix, while the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon up to the splenic flexure. These arteries play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Colorectal (15/30) 50%
Passmed