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  • Question 1 - You are asked to review an infant with a postnatal diagnosis of congenital...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review an infant with a postnatal diagnosis of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. They are currently stable after receiving initial medical management. The parents have conducted some research on the condition and have some inquiries for you. What is a true statement about congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

      Your Answer: A significant consequence of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is systemic hypertension.

      Correct Answer: The presence of the liver in the thoracic cavity is a poor prognostic factor for CDH

      Explanation:

      CDH poses a greater risk of pulmonary hypertension as opposed to systemic hypertension. The risk is further heightened in cases where a sibling has a history of the condition.

      Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.

      The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.

      Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A family planning clinic is consulted by a couple who are hoping to...

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    • A family planning clinic is consulted by a couple who are hoping to have another child. They previously lost their first child to Tay Sachs disease. Upon genetic testing, it is discovered that both parents are carriers of the condition. What is the likelihood that their next child will also be a carrier?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      There are two possible scenarios for inheriting the TSD gene. In the first scenario, known as CC, both parents pass on the TSD gene to their child. In the second scenario, known as Cc, only one parent passes on the TSD gene while the other does not. Regardless of which scenario occurs, the patient will be a carrier and heterozygous. The likelihood of either scenario occurring is 25%.

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a cold....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a cold. She has been experiencing a fever, runny nose, headache, and a dry cough for a few days. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature has not gone down, which worries her mother. The patient is alert, comfortable, and well-hydrated. During the examination, her temperature is 38.9ºC, heart rate is 110 bpm, blood pressure is 90/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute. Her chest is clear, throat is slightly red, and there are no signs of tonsillitis. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, and her ears are non-tender. There are no rashes, photophobia, or neck stiffness. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give the patient another dose of paracetamol and ibuprofen and review in an hour to assess for improvement

      Correct Answer: Initiate sepsis six protocol

      Explanation:

      Children over the age of 12 have vital signs similar to adults. However, if a child presents with symptoms of sepsis, such as a high temperature, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure, and increased respiratory rate, it is important to initiate the sepsis six protocol and conduct further investigations to determine the source of infection. In such cases, it is not appropriate to send the child home or administer additional doses of antipyretics. Aspirin should not be given to children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics should be administered if there is a suspected bacterial infection causing sepsis.

      Age-appropriate Vital Signs for Children

      Paediatric vital signs vary depending on the age of the child. The table below provides age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. For children under one year old, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute is considered normal. For children between the ages of one and two, a heart rate of 100-150 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-35 breaths per minute is normal. Children between the ages of two and five should have a heart rate of 90-140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-30 breaths per minute. For children between the ages of five and twelve, a heart rate of 80-120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20-25 breaths per minute is normal. Finally, for children over the age of twelve, a heart rate of 60-100 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 15-20 breaths per minute is considered normal. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these age-appropriate vital sign ranges in order to properly assess the health of children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl, Lily, is taken to the pediatrician by her father. He is concerned about an umbilical hernia that Lily has had since birth. He was told that it would likely go away on its own, but it has not yet resolved. The pediatrician conducts an examination and finds a 1.5 cm umbilical hernia that is easily reducible. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this, according to the guidelines?

      Your Answer: Referral for elective outpatient surgical repair

      Correct Answer: Delaying referral for elective outpatient surgical repair until 5 years of age, if still unresolved

      Explanation:

      According to medical guidelines, umbilical hernias in children usually close on their own by the age of 4-5. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or is large and causing symptoms, surgical repair is recommended. In the case of a small hernia in a 3-year-old child, observation is appropriate until the age of 5. If the hernia becomes incarcerated, it should be manually reduced and surgically repaired within 24 hours. The use of compression therapy after surgery is not recommended. Waiting for the hernia to self-resolve after the age of 5 is not advised as it is unlikely to happen and could lead to incarceration. These recommendations are based on BMJ Best Practice guidelines.

      Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment

      Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.

      Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.

      In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A premature neonate is born at 32 weeks’ gestation and is noted to...

    Correct

    • A premature neonate is born at 32 weeks’ gestation and is noted to have low Apgar scores following birth. During a comprehensive review by the neonatology team, an echocardiogram demonstrates very poor right ventricular function. The mother has a history of hypertension and bipolar disease requiring lithium therapy.
      Which one of the following maternal medical complications may have contributed to the infant’s condition?

      Your Answer: Long-standing bipolar disorder therapy

      Explanation:

      Potential Risks and Management of Medical Conditions and Medications During Pregnancy

      Ebstein’s Anomaly and Lithium Use:
      Ebstein’s anomaly, a condition where the tricuspid valve is displaced towards the apex of the right ventricle, is often associated with lithium use. Management includes procainamide and surgical options. It is important to discuss the risk of lithium transmission through breast milk if a patient is taking lithium.

      Maternal Hypertension and Captopril Use:
      Captopril use during pregnancy can affect the fetal renal system and lead to oligohydramnios. It is important to monitor maternal hypertension and consider alternative medications if necessary.

      Heavy Tobacco Use:
      Smoking during pregnancy is associated with growth retardation and placental abruption. It is important to encourage smoking cessation and provide support for patients who are struggling to quit.

      Prior Deep Venous Thrombosis and Warfarin Use:
      Warfarin use during pregnancy is associated with bone abnormalities such as epiphyseal stippling and nasal hypoplasia. Alternative anticoagulation options should be considered during pregnancy.

      Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Doxycycline Use:
      Doxycycline and other tetracyclines are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their effects on fetal tooth development. However, they have no impact on cardiac development. It is important to consider alternative antibiotics for the treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease during pregnancy.

      Managing Medical Conditions and Medications During Pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old primiparous woman delivers her first child via caesarean section at 38...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primiparous woman delivers her first child via caesarean section at 38 weeks. Both the mother and baby are in good health after delivery, and there are no complications during the postoperative period. As part of the routine post-birth checks, a sample of umbilical cord blood is collected and analysed, revealing a glucose level of 2.4 mmol/L. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Encourage early feeding and monitor blood glucose

      Explanation:

      For neonatal hypoglycaemia, the correct course of action is to encourage early feeding and monitor blood glucose. Asymptomatic hypoglycaemia is common in newborns and not a cause for concern. Therefore, encouraging early feeding, either through bottle or breast, and monitoring blood glucose until it normalizes is sufficient. Admitting the baby to the neonatal unit for further monitoring is unnecessary at this point, as observations are normal and the baby is doing well. Monitoring blood glucose alone is not enough, as feeding is necessary for the glucose levels to normalize. No action is not an option, as it is important to take steps to resolve the hypoglycaemic episode, even if it is mild and asymptomatic.

      Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.

      Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 2-month-old baby, born at 38 weeks, is brought in due to increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old baby, born at 38 weeks, is brought in due to increasing fussiness around 30-60 minutes after feeds, frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhea. The baby has not experienced fever, urticaria, angioedema, or wheezing. The baby is exclusively formula-fed and has mild eczema in the flexural areas. The baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Soya milk trial

      Correct Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula trial

      Explanation:

      Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is concerned about his movement. He is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the hip on ultrasound.
      Which statement is correct regarding the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?

      Your Answer: Recovery following closed reduction is usually complete after four weeks

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options and Complications for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects the hip joint in infants and young children. Treatment options for DDH include splinting with a Pavlik harness or surgical correction. However, both options come with potential complications.

      Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting. While Pavlik harness splinting can be less invasive than surgical correction, it may not be effective for all children. If the child is under six months, the splint is usually tried first, and if there is no response, then surgery may be necessary.

      The age at diagnosis does not affect the prognosis, but the greater the age of the child at diagnosis, the more likely they will need a more extensive corrective procedure. It is important to note that a Pavlik harness is contraindicated in children over six months old or with an irreducible hip. In these cases, surgery is the only treatment option available.

      Recovery following closed reduction surgery is usually complete after four weeks. However, children may need a plaster cast or a reduction brace for three to four months following the procedure. Surgical reduction is always indicated for children in whom a Pavlik harness is not indicated or has not worked. It may also be indicated for children who were too old at presentation to try a harness or have an irreducible hip.

      In summary, understanding the treatment options and potential complications for DDH is crucial for parents and healthcare providers to make informed decisions about the best course of action for each individual child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar...

    Correct

    • An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with low Apgar scores at birth. During examination, the infant is found to have micrognathia, low set ears, overlapping fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      A neonate is born exhibiting micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers, which are all classic signs of Edward’s syndrome. This childhood genetic syndrome is often diagnosed prenatally, but in some cases, it may not be detected until after birth when the neonate presents with low apgar scores. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for those with Edward’s syndrome is very high, and the average life expectancy is only 5-12 days. Survivors of this syndrome often experience complications affecting multiple organs. It is important to note that many genetic syndromes share similar features, making clinical diagnosis challenging without genetic testing. As such, it is essential to be familiar with the most common features of each syndrome for final medical examinations.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a...

    Correct

    • You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a 3-day-old boy with respiratory distress due to meconium aspiration. The mother is visibly upset and asks if there was anything she could have done to prevent this.

      After reviewing the medical history, you find that the baby was conceived through in vitro fertilization, there were no complications during the pregnancy, but he was delivered via C-section at 41 weeks with a birth weight of 2.6kg.

      What is the most significant risk factor for meconium aspiration in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Post-term delivery

      Explanation:

      Post-term delivery is a major risk factor for meconium aspiration, which is why women are induced following term. Placental insufficiency, not low birth weight, is a consequence of meconium aspiration. The sex of the child and assisted reproduction are not considered independent risk factors. While meconium aspiration may cause distress during labor and potentially result in a Caesarean section, it is not a risk factor on its own.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-week old infant comes in with excessive vomiting and constipation. The mother reports that the baby has vomited several times, but has been content during feedings. The baby appears visibly dehydrated and a small lump is detected in the abdominal area during examination. What arterial blood gas results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Elevated bicarbonate, hypochloraemia, hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The typical result of pyloric stenosis is the development of alkalosis with low levels of chloride and potassium.

      Understanding Pyloric Stenosis

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.

      The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.

      Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the paediatric department with a 5-day history of epistaxis and mucosal bleeding during tooth brushing. He has no significant medical history except for a cold he had 3 weeks ago. Upon examination, his vital signs are normal, but he has multiple bruises and petechiae on his upper and lower limbs. The following laboratory tests were ordered: Hb 140 g/L (135-180), Platelets 33 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 5.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      When a child presents with petechiae and no fever, ITP should be considered as a possible diagnosis. ITP is an autoimmune disorder that causes thrombocytopenia without any identifiable cause. It is most commonly found in children and women and often follows a viral illness. Symptoms include mucosal bleeding, epistaxis, petechiae, and bruising.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is an unlikely diagnosis in this case, as the patient’s normal haemoglobin and white cell count do not suggest malignancy.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is also unlikely, as there is no evidence of unregulated bleeding or thrombosis triggered by trauma, sepsis, obstetric disorders, or malignancy.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is another possible diagnosis, but the lack of additional symptoms and the presence of bruising and easy bleeding make ITP more likely. HSP is a form of IgA vasculitis that causes a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, and arthralgia, and is commonly triggered by a viral infection. Most cases of HSP are self-limiting or resolve with symptomatic treatment.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 9-month old infant is brought to the pediatrician by his parents. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month old infant is brought to the pediatrician by his parents. They report that he has had a runny nose and mild fever for the past week. Today, they noticed that he appeared paler than usual, has been increasingly lethargic, and seems to be struggling to breathe.

      During the examination, the infant exhibits normal coloring, but there is moderate intercostal recession and nasal flaring. He only responds to chest rubbing after 5 seconds. His pulse rate is 140 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation is 94% on room air, and temperature is 37.9 ºC.

      What is the most concerning aspect of this presentation as a sign of a serious illness?

      Your Answer: Episode of pallor noted by the mothers

      Correct Answer: Intercostal recession

      Explanation:

      An amber flag (intermediate risk) on the traffic light system indicates that the patient is on room air. For infants aged 12 months or older, a respiratory rate of over 40 breaths per minute would also be considered an amber flag, but not for a 6-12-month-old in this particular case.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old boy visits his GP with a productive cough and wheeze. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy visits his GP with a productive cough and wheeze. During the examination, a 1/6 intensity systolic murmur is detected in the second intercostal space lateral to the left sternal edge. The murmur is not audible when the child lies flat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Innocent murmur

      Explanation:

      The innocent murmur is the correct answer. It is characterized by being soft, systolic, short, symptomless, and varying with position when standing or sitting. In contrast, coarctation of the aorta produces an ejection systolic murmur that can be heard through to the back and does not change with position. This condition is also associated with hypertension in the upper extremities and a difference in blood pressure between the arms and legs. Ventricular septal defect presents as a pansystolic murmur, while atrial septal defect is an ejection systolic murmur that is often accompanied by fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound.

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.

      Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute limp. He has a runny nose but no fever. There is no reported injury. He is able to bear weight on the affected leg.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent hip ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Urgent specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      A child under the age of 3 who presents with an acute limp requires urgent specialist assessment. This is because septic arthritis is more common than transient synovitis in this age group. A routine paediatric referral is not appropriate as the concern is ruling out septic arthritis, which requires urgent attention. An urgent X-ray or hip ultrasound scan is also not sufficient, as a comprehensive specialist examination is necessary to exclude serious pathology.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old female neonate is brought to the hospital with a 1-week history of vomiting and regurgitation of non-bilious materials, mostly consisting of ingested milk. The vomiting has lately become projectile. On examination, an olive-shaped mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant, and a periodic wave of peristalsis is visible in the epigastric region. The neonate has puffy hands and feet and redundant skin in the neck. A systolic murmur is noted on the cardiac apex. Laboratory tests reveal hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Down syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Neonate with Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis and Other Symptoms

      Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that causes gastric outlet obstruction and is more common in neonates with Turner syndrome. Other symptoms in this scenario include puffy hands and feet due to lymphoedema, redundant skin in the neck due to early resolution of cystic hygroma, and a systolic murmur likely caused by coarctation of the aorta. Non-bilious vomiting distinguishes pyloric stenosis from duodenal atresia.

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia presents with vomiting, hypoxia, and a scaphoid abdomen, but is not typically associated with chromosomal abnormalities.

      Down syndrome is characterized by flat and broad facies, epicanthal folds, simian creases, low-set ears, and a protruding tongue, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

      Duodenal atresia is associated with Down syndrome and presents with bilious vomiting, while this scenario involves non-bilious vomiting.

      Tracheoesophageal fistula is associated with Down syndrome and VACTERL association, but does not typically present with puffiness and redundant skin in the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) by her parents...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) by her parents due to a painful knee. The knee is swollen, red, hot, and tender. The patient experiences extreme pain when the joint is moved, and resists any attempts to flex it passively. Upon examination, you notice a cut on the affected knee, which the parents explain was caused by a fall on the playground. The patient has a mild fever but is otherwise healthy, without other areas of pain or additional joint involvement.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Knee Pain and Inflammation

      Upon examination of a patient with knee pain and inflammation, several differential diagnoses should be considered. Septic arthritis is a likely possibility, especially if the patient has a recent cut or injury that could have allowed infective organisms to enter the joint. Non-accidental injury (NAI) should also be considered, although in this case, it is unlikely given the patient’s age, single injury, and relevant history. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), Osgood–Schlatter’s disease, and patellofemoral pain syndrome are less likely possibilities, as they typically present with different symptoms than what is observed in this patient. Overall, a thorough examination and consideration of all possible diagnoses is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat knee pain and inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 4-month-old infant presents with feeding difficulties, failure to thrive, and episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old infant presents with feeding difficulties, failure to thrive, and episodes of bluish pale skin during crying or feeding. On examination, a harsh systolic ejection murmur is heard over the pulmonic area and left sternal border. A chest radiograph during birth was normal. A second radiograph at presentation shows a boot-shaped heart.
      What is the most likely embryological mechanism responsible for the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to divide

      Correct Answer: Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Congenital Heart Defects

      Congenital heart defects can arise from various mechanisms during fetal development. Understanding these mechanisms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.

      Anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum is responsible for the characteristic boot-shaped heart seen in tetralogy of Fallot. This condition is characterized by pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta.

      Transposition of the great vessels occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during development. Persistent truncus arteriosus results from the failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to divide.

      Infundibular stenosis is caused by underdevelopment of the conus arteriosus of the right ventricle. Sinus venosus atrial septal defects arise from incomplete absorption of the sinus venosus into the right atrium.

      By understanding the mechanisms behind these congenital heart defects, healthcare professionals can provide better care for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. The mother mentions that he had a recent bout of the flu. Upon examination, the boy appears alert with a heart rate of 80 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, temperature of 38.5ºC, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for same-day assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child is experiencing hip pain or a limp and also has a fever, it is crucial to refer them for immediate assessment, even if the suspected diagnosis is transient synovitis.

      Transient synovitis is often the cause of hip pain in children following a previous illness, such as the flu. However, discharging the patient with oral antibiotics is not recommended as this condition is typically managed conservatively. Antibiotics may only be necessary if there are signs of a septic joint.

      Similarly, discharging the patient with pain relief alone is not appropriate. Although a septic joint is unlikely, it cannot be ruled out without a formal assessment by orthopaedics.

      Reassuring the patient and discharging them without assessment is also not an option. Given the child’s current fever and recent illness history, it is essential to conduct a thorough evaluation before considering discharge.

      It is critical to refer a child with hip pain and a fever for same-day assessment to rule out the possibility of a septic joint. However, routine referral to orthopaedics is not necessary as this may cause unnecessary delays in urgent assessment.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought in by his concerned parents. Since two...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought in by his concerned parents. Since two weeks of age, he has had a slowly expanding lump to the left side of his head. He is otherwise healthy, gaining weight, and breastfeeding well. He wakes to demand food and is starting to show signs of social smiling. He was delivered by unassisted normal vaginal delivery at 38 weeks’ gestation after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Birthweight was 3.2 kg. Other than a slightly prolonged second stage of labor, there is no significant perinatal history. He has no siblings and there is no family history of note.

      During the examination, an alert and active baby is observed. Vital signs are normal. There is a smooth lump measuring 2 × 3 cm arising in the left parieto-occipital region. The lump is compressible and non-pulsatile and does not cross the suture lines. A head to toe examination of the baby reveals no other lumps, skin lesions, rashes, or marks. The anterior fontanelle is normal. The baby has good tone and a normal Moro reflex. There is no jaundice or pallor.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      Common Neonatal Head Injuries: Causes, Symptoms, and Differences

      Cephalohaematoma, Caput succedaneum, Cephalocele, and Subgaleal haemorrhage are common neonatal head injuries that can occur during birth. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and differences between these injuries is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Cephalohaematoma is a subperiosteal haemorrhage that occurs in 1-2% of live births, usually associated with a prolonged second stage of labour. It presents as a well-circumscribed, fluctuant mass over the parietal bone, and does not cross suture lines. Complications such as anaemia and jaundice can result from a cephalohaematoma, depending on its size.

      Caput succedaneum is a form of birth trauma caused by pressure exerted on the presenting part by the cervix during the first stage of labour. It presents as diffuse swelling of the scalp and is associated with moulding. It can cross the midline and extends over suture lines. It resolves over the course of the first few days of life.

      Cephalocele is a rare congenital condition where brain herniation occurs through a defect in the cranium. It is usually detected antenatally and most commonly presents in the midline.

      Subgaleal haemorrhage is most commonly associated with instrumental delivery, caused by rupture of the emissary veins connecting the dural sinuses with the scalp veins. It presents as a fluctuant mass over the occiput, with superficial skin bruising 12-72 hours post-delivery. It may cross suture lines and pass over fontanelles, distinguishing it from a cephalohaematoma.

      It is important to note that non-accidental injury should always be considered in cases of unexplained head injuries. However, in the absence of any concerning features, a cephalohaematoma or other neonatal head injury is likely due to birth trauma and can be managed accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 21 - You are a junior doctor in paediatrica and have been asked to perform...

    Correct

    • You are a junior doctor in paediatrica and have been asked to perform a newborn exam. Which statement is true regarding the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres?

      Your Answer: It relocates a dislocation of the hip joint if this has been elicited during the Barlow manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Barlow and Ortolani Manoeuvres for Hip Dislocation Screening

      Hip dislocation is a common problem in infants, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Two screening tests commonly used are the Barlow and Ortolani manoeuvres. The Barlow manoeuvre involves adducting the hip while applying pressure on the knee, while the Ortolani manoeuvre flexes the hips and knees to 90 degrees, with pressure applied to the greater trochanters and thumbs to abduct the legs. A positive test confirms hip dislocation, and further investigation is necessary if risk factors are present, such as breech delivery or a family history of hip problems. However, a negative test does not exclude all hip problems, and parents should seek medical advice if they notice any asymmetry or walking difficulties in their child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 22 - A 33-year-old mother, gravida 4, arrives in labor without any prenatal care. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old mother, gravida 4, arrives in labor without any prenatal care. During delivery, the infant is born with the intestines protruding from the abdomen, but there is a peritoneal covering safeguarding it. What is the best approach to managing the protruding bowel?

      Your Answer: Immediate surgical correction

      Correct Answer: Staged closure starting immediately with completion at 6-12 months

      Explanation:

      Exomphalos and gastroschisis are two types of abdominal wall defects. Exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, is usually detected before birth, but some cases may go unnoticed. On the other hand, gastroschisis requires urgent correction as it involves abdominal contents being outside the body without a peritoneal covering. To protect the bowel, cling-film is used until the surgery can be performed. After the operation, the child may require TPN for a few weeks as the intestinal function normalizes.

      When it comes to repairing omphalocele, a gradual approach is often preferred, especially for larger defects. This is because returning the abdominal contents too quickly can cause respiratory complications or an inability to close the abdomen, which can be fatal. Therefore, a staged repair allows the pulmonary system to adapt to the increased abdominal contents over a period of 6-12 months. Unlike gastroschisis, there is no need for cling-film covering in omphalocele as the peritoneum already protects the bowel.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A 24-hour-old newborn, born at 35 weeks to a healthy mother, is currently...

    Correct

    • A 24-hour-old newborn, born at 35 weeks to a healthy mother, is currently being examined on the ward. The baby appears to be in good health on initial inspection and the mother has not reported any concerns thus far. During the examination, the doctor observes a large volume, collapsing pulse, a heaving apex beat, and a left subclavicular thrill. On auscultation of heart sounds, the doctor detects a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur. An urgent echocardiogram is ordered by the doctor, which confirms their suspected diagnosis. No other abnormalities or defects are detected on the echo.

      What would be the most appropriate initial management, given the findings and likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate

      Explanation:

      The probable diagnosis based on the examination findings is pulmonary ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is characterized by a ‘machinery-like’ murmur. The recommended treatment for this condition is the administration of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibits prostaglandin production and promotes duct closure. The use of prostaglandin E1 is not appropriate in this case, as it would keep the duct open. Referral for routine or urgent surgery is also not necessary, as no other congenital heart defects were found on the echocardiogram. Monitoring and repeating echocardiograms alone are not sufficient and medical intervention is required for closure of the duct.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - Which diagnostic test is most effective in identifying the initial stages of Perthes'...

    Incorrect

    • Which diagnostic test is most effective in identifying the initial stages of Perthes' disease?

      Your Answer: Plain x ray

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ Disease: Diagnosis and Imaging

      Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease is a condition where the femoral head undergoes osteonecrosis, or bone death, without any known cause. The diagnosis of this disease can be established through plain x-rays of the hip, which are highly useful. However, in the early stages, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information about the extent of necrosis, revascularization, and healing. On the other hand, a nuclear scan can provide less detail and expose the child to radiation. Nevertheless, a technetium 99 bone scan can be helpful in identifying the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs.

      In summary, Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease is a condition that can be diagnosed through plain x-rays of the hip. However, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information in the early stages, while a technetium 99 bone scan can help identify the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs. It is important to consider the risks and benefits of each imaging modality when diagnosing and monitoring this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.

      It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.

      Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 26 - You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old...

    Correct

    • You are a nurse in the pediatric ward and you assess a 7-year-old girl with a sprained ankle. During your examination, you observe some bruises on her arms. When you ask her about it, she becomes quiet and avoids eye contact. Her father quickly intervenes and explains that she fell off her bike. However, you have a gut feeling that something is not right. What steps do you take next?

      Your Answer: Put the child's arm in a cast and admit them, then contact child protection

      Explanation:

      The GMC’s good medical practice provides guidelines for safeguarding children and young people. It emphasizes the importance of considering all possible causes of an injury or signs of abuse or neglect, including rare genetic conditions. However, the clinical needs of the child must not be overlooked in the process. If concerns persist after discussing with parents, it is necessary to report to the appropriate agency. In this scenario, delaying action while the child is under your care is not acceptable. Therefore, contacting child protection would be the appropriate course of action.

      NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.

      For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.

      For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.

      For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.

      Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 6 month old infant presents to the hospital with a fever. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old infant presents to the hospital with a fever. Upon examination, there are no respiratory symptoms or signs of diarrhea. What initial investigations would you include in your assessment?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      When evaluating infants under 3 months with a fever, the following tests should be conducted: a complete blood count, blood culture, C-reactive protein test, urine analysis to check for urinary tract infections, and a chest X-ray if respiratory symptoms are present. Additionally, a stool culture should be performed if the infant is experiencing diarrhea.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to...

    Correct

    • You are consulting with a family whose daughter has been referred due to suspected learning difficulties. Whilst talking to her parents, you notice that she has a friendly and sociable personality. You begin to wonder if she might have William's syndrome.

      What physical characteristic would be the strongest indicator of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Elfin facies

      Explanation:

      William’s syndrome is linked to unique physical characteristics such as elfin facies, a broad forehead, strabismus, and short stature. It is important to note that Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by a tall and slender stature. Edward’s syndrome is associated with rocker-bottom feet, while foetal alcohol syndrome is linked to a flattened philtrum. Turner’s syndrome and Noonan’s syndrome are associated with webbing of the neck. Individuals with William’s syndrome often have an elongated, not flat philtrum.

      Understanding William’s Syndrome

      William’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects neurodevelopment and is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The condition is characterized by a range of physical and cognitive features, including elfin-like facies, short stature, and learning difficulties. Individuals with William’s syndrome also tend to have a very friendly and social demeanor, which is a hallmark of the condition. Other common symptoms include transient neonatal hypercalcaemia and supravalvular aortic stenosis.

      Diagnosis of William’s syndrome is typically made through FISH studies, which can detect the microdeletion on chromosome 7. While there is no cure for the condition, early intervention and support can help individuals with William’s syndrome to manage their symptoms and lead fulfilling lives. With a better understanding of this disorder, we can work towards improving the lives of those affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform...

    Correct

    • You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform a routine check on a 6-month-old infant. You're part of the paediatric team and haven't had any access to the previous medical records.
      On examination, the infant appears healthy with appropriate weight for age and has a strong cry. There are no signs of respiratory distress and no abnormal heart sounds on auscultation. However, you notice a cleft palate. What is the most likely association with this finding?

      Your Answer: Maternal anti-epileptic use in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The use of anti-epileptic medication by expectant mothers can lead to the development of orofacial clefts in their babies. Orofacial clefts are a common birth defect that can be caused by various factors, including smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic medication, and rubella infection during pregnancy. Treatment for orofacial clefts requires a team of specialists, including plastic and orthodontic surgeons, paediatricians, and speech therapists. It is important to note that congenital heart disease does not increase the risk of orofacial clefts.

      Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate

      Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. These conditions can occur as isolated developmental malformations or as a component of over 200 birth defects. The most common variants of cleft lip and palate are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.

      The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance and an increased risk for babies whose mothers use antiepileptic medication. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse.

      Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, while speech therapy can help 75% of children develop normal speech. Babies with cleft palate are at an increased risk of developing otitis media.

      Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 30 - A 9-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. She has been complaining of nausea for the past few days along with dysuria and increased frequency. Her father is worried that she might have a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, the girl seems healthy and her vital signs are stable. There are no notable findings during abdominal examination. A clean catch sample is collected and shows positive results for leucocytes and nitrites. What should be the next course of action in managing this case?

      Your Answer: 5 day course antibiotics as per local policy

      Correct Answer: 3 day course antibiotics as per local policy

      Explanation:

      The scenario describes a child showing symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection, which is common in girls of her age. To confirm the diagnosis, a clean catch urine sample should be obtained for testing. However, given the child’s positive test results for leucocytes and nitrites, along with her history of dysuria and frequency, treatment should be initiated immediately. As per local guidelines, a 3-day course of antibiotics is recommended for children of her age with lower urinary tract infections. The child’s mother should be advised to return if the symptoms persist beyond 48 hours. It’s important to note that a 10-day course of co-amoxiclav is only prescribed if the infection is in the upper urinary tract.

      Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (17/30) 57%
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