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  • Question 1 - Liam is a 6-year-old boy who visits you with his father complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 6-year-old boy who visits you with his father complaining of dysuria, frequency, and fever. During the urine dip test, nitrites and leukocytes are detected. Liam has no known allergies and is in good health otherwise. You decide to prescribe trimethoprim (50 mg/5ml). His current weight is 20 kg. According to the BNF, the recommended dosage is 4 mg/kg trimethoprim twice daily. What volume will you instruct his father to administer?

      Your Answer: 3.25mls BD

      Correct Answer: 7.5mls BD

      Explanation:

      Sam should be prescribed antibiotics for her lower UTI symptoms. According to the BNF, the recommended treatment dosage is 4 mg/kg twice a day. Since Sam weighs 18.8 kg, her dosage would be 75 mg twice a day. If the solution contains 50 mg of trimethoprim in 5mls, then Sam’s dosage would be 7.5mls of solution twice a day.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      190
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. Her spouse reports that she had a disagreement with their daughter, causing her to leave the house. Following this incident, she has been unable to speak. Physical examination of her chest and throat reveals no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?

      Your Answer: Psychogenic aphonia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aphonia: The Inability to Speak

      Aphonia is a medical condition that refers to the inability to speak. It can be caused by various factors, including recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which can occur after a thyroidectomy. In this case, the nerve that controls the vocal cords is damaged, leading to difficulty in speaking.

      Another cause of aphonia is psychogenic, which means that it is related to psychological factors. This can include anxiety, depression, or other mental health conditions that affect the ability to communicate verbally.

      It is important to note that aphonia is different from mutism, which is the inability to speak due to a physical or neurological condition. In contrast, aphonia is typically a temporary condition that can be treated with appropriate medical or psychological interventions.

      Overall, understanding aphonia is crucial for identifying and addressing the underlying causes of this condition. Whether it is related to a physical or psychological issue, seeking medical attention can help individuals regain their ability to speak and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which option from the list includes the common initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?...

    Correct

    • Which option from the list includes the common initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and aphasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alzheimer’s Disease: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by a range of cognitive deficits, including memory impairment, language disturbance, and difficulty with motor activities. In addition to these cognitive symptoms, individuals with Alzheimer’s disease may also experience personality changes and behavioral problems.

      While some symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease are common, others are less so. For example, extrapyramidal signs and myoclonus are uncommon, as are pyramidal signs and seizures, especially in the early stages of the illness.

      To diagnose Alzheimer’s disease, doctors typically use the DSM-IV criteria for dementia of the Alzheimer’s type. These criteria include the development of multiple cognitive defects, significant impairment in social or occupational functioning, and a gradual onset and continuing cognitive decline. Additionally, the cognitive deficits must not be due to any other central nervous system conditions, systemic conditions, or substance-induced conditions.

      By understanding the common features and diagnostic criteria of Alzheimer’s disease, individuals and their loved ones can better recognize the signs of this debilitating illness and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.4
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman comes to you after finding out she is pregnant two...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to you after finding out she is pregnant two months after getting a progesterone-only implant. She wants to continue the pregnancy but is concerned about the effects of the hormone on the fetus.

      What advice would you give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Remove contraceptive implant

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Hormones and Pregnancy

      Women who are using contraceptive hormones should not worry about any harm to the fetus if they become pregnant. It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy for this reason. If the woman chooses to abort the pregnancy, the contraceptive implant can be left in place for ongoing contraception. Referral to an early pregnancy assessment unit or for an anomaly scan is also unnecessary as there is no risk to the fetus.

      However, it is important to remove the progesterone-only implant as soon as pregnancy is confirmed. The only exception to this is if an intrauterine device is in place and pregnancy is diagnosed after 12 weeks. In such cases, the contraception should not be removed. Women can be reassured that contraceptive hormones are safe and effective for preventing pregnancy, and should not hesitate to use them if desired.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and knees. He has been using a potent corticosteroid ointment and a vitamin D preparation once daily for the past 8 weeks, but there has been no improvement in his skin. What should be the next course of action in managing his plaque psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Refer to dermatology

      Correct Answer: Stop the corticosteroid and continue with topical vitamin D preparation twice daily for up to 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The best course of action would be to discontinue the corticosteroid and increase the frequency of vitamin D application to twice daily, as per NICE guidelines. It is necessary to take a 4-week break from the topical steroid, which has already been used for 8 weeks. Therefore, continuing or increasing the steroid usage to twice daily would be inappropriate. Dithranol and referral to Dermatology are not necessary at this point, as the treatment plan has not been finished.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.1
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  • Question 6 - A 31-year-old female who is 22 weeks pregnant is found to have a...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old female who is 22 weeks pregnant is found to have a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg on three separate occasions. Urine protein is negative.

      Which of the following would be the initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Alpha methyldopa

      Explanation:

      Safe Medications for Hypertension in Pregnancy

      Beta blockers are considered safe during the third trimester of pregnancy, but they are not commonly used due to concerns about intrauterine growth retardation. Instead, labetalol is often preferred as it has an established track record of safety and efficacy. Magnesium sulphate is a recognized treatment for pre-eclampsia, a condition not mentioned in this context. ACE inhibitors are not recommended for use during pregnancy. Nifedipine may be used as a second-line treatment. Methyldopa is a well-studied medication that has been shown to be both effective and safe for both mother and baby during pregnancy. By carefully selecting the appropriate medication, hypertension in pregnancy can be managed safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old patient presents with a 36-hour history of varicella zoster in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with a 36-hour history of varicella zoster in the T4 dermatome. She complains of severe pain in the skin supplied by T4.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for herpes zoster

      Aciclovir and famciclovir are effective medications for treating herpes zoster, reducing the time to healing and associated pain. Aciclovir is the most cost-effective option as it is now available as a generic medication. Early use of steroids can also reduce the amount of analgesia required and the length of illness.

      A clinical review published in the BMJ emphasized the importance of appropriate treatment for herpes zoster to control acute symptoms and reduce the risk of longer-term complications. NICE updated their guidance in 2010, recommending amitriptyline or pregabalin as first-line treatments for post-herpetic neuralgia. CKS also issued guidance, which is generally in line with NICE, but they caution against using carbamazepine due to potential serious adverse effects and lack of a license for primary care treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      29.4
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  • Question 8 - Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except:

      Your Answer: Central scotoma

      Correct Answer: Sudden onset of visual loss

      Explanation:

      It is rare for optic neuritis to cause sudden visual loss, as the typical progression of visual loss occurs over a period of days rather than hours.

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.

      To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.

      The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      14.7
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
    At annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
      At annual review her blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg, pulse 78, fundi reveal background diabetic retinopathy, foot pulses are normal but she has evidence of a peripheral sensory loss to the ankles in both feet.
      Her results show:
      HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)
      7.2% (3.8-6.4)
      Urea 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      eGFR 29 mL/min/1.73m2 Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
      According to the British National Formulary, which of the following medicines should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Caution with Metformin and Ramipril in Chronic Renal Impairment

      This patient shows signs of chronic renal impairment with elevated creatinine and urea levels. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) advises against the use of metformin if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 30mL/min/1.73m2. This is due to the potential risk of life-threatening lactic acidosis, which has a reported prevalence of one to five cases per 100,000 and a mortality rate of up to 50%.

      Metformin is excreted unchanged in the urine, and its half-life is prolonged with decreased renal clearance in proportion to any decrease in creatinine clearance. This can occur chronically in chronic renal impairment or acutely with dehydration, shock, and intravascular administration of iodinated contrast agents, all of which can alter renal function. Tissue hypoxia also plays a significant role, and acute or chronic conditions that may predispose to this condition, such as sepsis, acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, cardiac failure, and chronic liver disease, may act as triggers.

      In the case of Ramipril, the BNF advises a maximum daily dose of 5 mg if the eGFR is between 30-60 mL/minute/1.73 m2 and a maximum initial dose of 1.25 mg once daily (not exceeding 5 mg daily) if the eGFR is less than 30 mL/minute/1.73 m2. There are no such limitations with amlodipine, bisoprolol, or gliclazide. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications in patients with chronic renal impairment and to follow the BNF guidelines to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - At what ages is the immunisation given as part of the routine UK...

    Correct

    • At what ages is the immunisation given as part of the routine UK schedule, specifically at 8 and 12 weeks?

      Your Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Routine Childhood Immunisation Schedule

      The routine childhood immunisation schedule is a crucial aspect of healthcare for young children. It protects them from a range of diseases that can cause serious harm or even death. The schedule includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and rotavirus.

      At 8 weeks, infants receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, meningococcal group B, and oral rotavirus. At 12 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, and oral rotavirus. At 16 weeks, they receive vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B, pneumococcal disease, and meningococcal group B.

      It is important to note that the hepatitis B immunisation was added to the routine schedule in 2017, but not hepatitis A. Additionally, pneumococcal immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks, while meningococcal B immunisation is given at 8 and 16 weeks, but not at 12 weeks. Understanding the routine childhood immunisation schedule is crucial for healthcare professionals and parents alike to ensure the health and safety of young children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      34.1
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits you at 30 weeks gestation...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman in her first pregnancy visits you at 30 weeks gestation complaining of itchiness. Upon examination, there is no rash present. After being referred to an obstetrician, she is diagnosed with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy and prescribed ursodeoxycholic acid. During her visit, the patient mentions that her obstetrician mentioned something about her labor, but she is unsure.

      What plans need to be made for this patient's labor?

      Your Answer: Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Due to the increased risk of stillbirth associated with intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, induction of labour is typically recommended at 37-38 weeks gestation. Therefore, a normal labour is not appropriate for this patient. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used to treat the intense pruritus associated with this condition. While a caesarean section may be necessary on an emergency basis, it is not currently indicated at 37-38 weeks. Similarly, a caesarean section at 40 weeks is not currently necessary. Induction of labour at 40 weeks is later than the recommended timeline and may increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Understanding Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, early diagnosis and management of this condition is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour,...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour, his wife has also noticed a few aggressive outbursts over the past months. His mini-mental test score is 20.
      Which patterns of cognitive deficit would favour a dementia of subcortical origin?

      Your Answer: Poor visuospatial performance

      Correct Answer: Reduced verbal output

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differences between Cortical and Subcortical Dementia

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many different types of dementia, two of the most common are cortical and subcortical dementia. Understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in diagnosing and treating the condition.

      Cortical dementia is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain. This area is responsible for memory and language, so patients with cortical dementia often experience severe memory loss and difficulty with language. Alzheimer’s, frontotemporal dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are all common causes of cortical dementia.

      Subcortical dementia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to areas beneath the cortex and disruption in the frontostriatal connections. This can result in early frontal lobe problems such as planning difficulties, poor verbal fluency, personality change, and task switching. While complex motor functions are typically preserved in subcortical dementia, patients may experience psychomotor slowing, reduced verbal output, and reduced alertness. Parkinson’s disease, vascular dementia, and multiple sclerosis are all common causes of subcortical dementia.

      It’s important to note that the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is not always clear-cut, and as the condition progresses, patients may experience symptoms of both types of dementia. However, understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in identifying the underlying cause of the condition and developing an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 62-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with heart failure. She has been researching her condition online and wants to know which vaccinations she needs due to her diagnosis. Samantha also has hypertension and type 2 diabetes.

      What vaccinations would you suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Annual influenza vaccination, single meningococcal vaccination

      Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination, single pneumococcal vaccination

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure should receive annual influenza vaccination as part of their overall lifestyle approach. Additionally, those with chronic respiratory and heart conditions, such as severe asthma, chronic pulmonary disease, and heart failure, should receive both annual influenza and single pneumococcal vaccinations. Meningococcal vaccination is not typically administered to heart failure patients, but is recommended for those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, including those with sickle cell and coeliac disease, as well as those with complement disorder. For patients with splenic dysfunction and chronic kidney disease, a pneumococcal booster should be given every 5 years after the initial dose.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      17.8
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  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.

      What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania.

      It is important to note that the patient has not derailed from the topic at hand, indicating that this is not an example of derailment. Incoherence would involve the patient providing nonsensical responses, which is not the case here.

      While it is difficult to determine from a text-based question, pressured speech would involve the patient speaking rapidly and producing an excessive amount of spontaneous speech. Therefore, it may not be the most appropriate answer in this scenario.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history of gestational diabetes during her previous pregnancy. Her midwife arranged an oral glucose tolerance test, but she missed the appointment to review the results.

      The following results were obtained:

      - Fasting glucose: 5.8 mmol/l
      - 2-hour plasma glucose: 7.5 mmol/l

      What is the interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Normal result as 2-hour glucose level <7.8 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes as fasting glucose >5.6 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of gestational diabetes is likely as the fasting glucose level exceeds 5.6 mmol/l.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by his spouse for exhibiting strange behavior and acute confusion during questioning. He was recently initiated on insulin therapy for his diabetes. Upon assessment, the following vital signs were obtained:

      - Blood pressure: 145/87 mmHg
      - Heart rate: 110 beats per minute
      - Temperature: 37.2ºC
      - Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
      - Respiratory rate: 18 breaths per minute
      - Capillary blood sugar level: 2.1 mmol/L

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular glucagon

      Correct Answer: Oral glucose gel

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for hypoglycaemia in a conscious patient who is able to swallow is a fast-acting carbohydrate in the form of glucose liquids, tablets, or gels. In this case, the patient is conscious and able to swallow, so an oral glucose gel is the best option to quickly increase their blood glucose level.

      Administering intramuscular glucagon is not necessary in this situation as the patient is conscious and able to take oral glucose. However, if the patient becomes combative and unable to take any oral glucose, intramuscular glucagon may be considered.

      Intravenous administration is not a recommended route for glucagon and is therefore not a suitable option.

      Intravenous glucose is not necessary for this patient as they are conscious and able to take glucose orally. It may be considered in a hospital setting for patients who are unable to take glucose orally.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He has been experiencing a change in his voice with constant hoarseness and a chronic dry cough for the past six weeks. He attributes this to a previous cold and chest infection and believes it will improve over time.
      He is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day for the past 50 years. He has a history of COPD and is currently taking a high dose Seretide inhaler. On examination, his BP is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular, and chest auscultation reveals scattered wheezing.
      Investigations reveal:
      Hb 134 g/L (135-180)
      WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      PLT 179 ×109/L (150-450)
      Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
      ECG shows sinus rhythm.
      CXR (arranged by another GP partner) shows no mass lesion identified.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent ENT referral

      Explanation:

      Urgent Investigation for Hoarseness

      Under NICE guidance, patients who present with hoarseness for more than three weeks require urgent investigation for possible cancer. In this case, a chest x-ray did not show an underlying cancer, but an ENT referral for laryngoscopy is warranted.

      While inadequate oral hygiene after inhaler use leading to candida infection is a possibility, the absence of oral candida makes it unlikely. Speech therapy is an option to maximize vocal effectiveness, and it is effective for hoarseness related to organic pathology such as nodules or polyps, and non-organic laryngeal dysfunction (for example, muscle tension dysphonia).

      Stopping the use of Seretide is inappropriate because it is likely to worsen symptoms of COPD and is unlikely to elucidate the underlying cause of the hoarseness. It is important to investigate the cause of hoarseness to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You see a 54-year old gentleman as an emergency appointment one afternoon.
    He...

    Correct

    • You see a 54-year old gentleman as an emergency appointment one afternoon.
      He suffers with extensive psoriasis and uses a variety of topical agents. He was recently given some potent topical steroid to apply to the most severely affected areas which has not helped. Over the last few days his skin has become inflamed and he has felt generally unwell.
      On examination, he has widespread generalised erythema affecting his entire body. He has a mild pyrexia and a pulse rate of 106 bpm.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Erythrodermic Psoriasis: A Dermatological Emergency

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe form of psoriasis that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by widespread whole body erythema and systemic unwellness, which can lead to complications such as hypothermia and heart failure. This condition can also be caused by other dermatological conditions or medications such as lithium or anti-malarials.

      Injudicious use of steroids with rapid withdrawal can also trigger erythroderma. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention as soon as possible to prevent skin failure. The correct course of action is immediate hospital admission for supervised treatment. Dermatologists recommend close monitoring and management of erythrodermic psoriasis to avoid life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:

      - eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
      - HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
      - Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
      - Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
      - Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
      - Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
      - Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results

      Explanation:

      It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.

      Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.

      Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).

      According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried about her experiencing recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and nausea for the past two months. Upon further inquiry, the pain is severe, occurs in the mornings, is intermittent, and can happen during vacations. Her weight is at the 50th percentile, and there are no abnormalities found during the examination. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal migraine

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Migraine: Recurrent Episodes of Midline Abdominal Pain in Children

      Abdominal migraine is a disorder that mainly affects children and is characterized by recurrent episodes of midline abdominal pain. The pain can last from 1-72 hours and is of moderate to severe intensity. During the attacks, patients may experience anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Marked pallor is commonly noted, and some patients may appear flushed. The pain is severe enough to interfere with normal daily activities, and many children describe their mood during the attack as one of intense misery. However, patients are completely symptom-free between attacks.

      Abdominal migraine is an idiopathic disorder, meaning that the cause is unknown. It is unlikely to be school avoidance as the symptoms are episodic and can occur outside of school times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for a review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for a review. He has a diagnosis of advanced liver cancer. The patient undergoes a physical examination. He has lost 12 kg since his last GP review (three months ago) and reports loss of appetite, along with frequent vomiting. He has widespread muscle wasting.
      Which of the following is the most important diagnostic factor for cachexia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Weight loss

      Correct Answer: Loss of muscle mass

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Cancer-Related Cachexia

      Cancer-related cachexia is a complex condition that involves the progressive loss of muscle mass, often accompanied by a loss of appetite and changes in taste. This condition is not reversed by standard nutritional support and can lead to functional impairment, fatigue, and respiratory complications. Skeletal muscle wasting is a common feature of many cancers, particularly those affecting the gastrointestinal tract, and is a significant contributor to cancer-related deaths. While weight loss may be present in cachexia, it is not the most specific diagnostic feature. Anorexia, on the other hand, is a common symptom that supports the diagnosis. Immobility may result from cachexia, but it is not a causal factor and can have multiple other causes. Vomiting may or may not be present in cachexia, but it can be contributory to the diagnosis. Overall, understanding the symptoms of cancer-related cachexia is crucial for early detection and management of this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      21.6
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  • Question 22 - A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing....

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing. During the examination, the infant has a temperature of 38.6°C and a respiratory rate of 37. The baby appears distressed, and there are widespread crackles and wheezing sounds when listening to the chest. The pulse rate is 170 BPM. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchiolitis in Children

      This child is experiencing acute bronchiolitis and needs to be admitted to the hospital for supportive care. Ribavirin may also be necessary. The child is showing clear signs of respiratory distress. The most common cause of acute bronchiolitis is respiratory syncytial virus, but adenoviruses and parainfluenza viruses can also be responsible.

      Acute bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in young children, especially those under the age of two. It is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the small airways in the lungs, making it difficult for the child to breathe. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and fluids, and may also include antiviral medications like ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      14.3
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 38-year-old woman with a body mass index of 35 kg/m2 who has recently discovered she is expecting. She has a medical history of epilepsy, familial hypercholesterolaemia, type 2 diabetes, and sciatica.

      During her pregnancy, which medications should Sarah discontinue taking?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Statin therapy should not be used during pregnancy due to potential risks. However, paracetamol is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Lamotrigine is preferred over other anti-epileptics due to a lower risk of neurodevelopmental effects on the foetus, but all pregnant women on anti-epileptics should take 5mg folic acid before conception and during the first trimester. Metformin and insulin are commonly used to treat diabetes during pregnancy. It is important to note that all statins should be avoided during pregnancy as they have been associated with congenital anomalies.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      19.5
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  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is seen by his doctor for inadequate asthma management. He is currently on a daily steroid inhaler (Clenil - 50 mcg, two puffs twice a day) and uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. What should be the next course of action in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being effectively managed with a combination of a short-acting beta agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, it is recommended by NICE guidelines to try adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their treatment plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.8
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.

      Which vaccines should this man avoid due to his medical history?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)

      Explanation:

      BCG and other live attenuated vaccines should not be administered to HIV positive patients. Similarly, immunocompromised individuals should avoid receiving live attenuated vaccines such as Yellow fever, Oral polio, Intranasal influenza, Varicella, and Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, sweating, increased...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, sweating, increased appetite and palpitations. She also reports that her periods have become irregular but has no previous history of note. On examination, you note a fine tremor and a resting pulse rate of 110 bpm.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions

      Hyperthyroidism is a common condition that presents with a variety of symptoms, including weight loss, heat intolerance, and muscle weakness. It is typically caused by Graves’ disease or multinodular goitre. In contrast, carcinoid syndrome is a rare condition associated with carcinoid tumours that primarily affect the midgut. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, results in weight gain, dry skin, and a slow resting pulse. New-onset type 1 diabetes mellitus typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, while polycystic ovarian syndrome is characterized by obesity, oligomenorrhoea, and signs of hyperandrogenism. By understanding the unique symptoms of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat patients with hyperthyroidism.

      Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      12.9
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  • Question 28 - A 49-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of itching, fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of itching, fatigue and malaise for the past six months. She has had no major medical history and is not on any regular medications. There are no visible signs of a skin rash.
      What is the most suitable investigation that is likely to result in a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests (LFTs)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pruritis without a Rash: Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Pruritis without a rash can be a challenging diagnosis. In this case, the symptoms suggest the possibility of primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune disease of the liver that leads to cholestasis and can progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis. To diagnose this condition, a full blood count, serum ferritin, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, urea and electrolytes, thyroid function tests, and liver function tests are necessary. A chest X-ray may be useful to rule out malignancy, but skin biopsy and skin scraping for microscopy are unlikely to be helpful in the absence of a rash. Low serum B12 is not relevant to pruritis. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to diagnose pruritis without a rash, and primary biliary cholangitis should be considered as a potential cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man complains of pain and stiffness in his hands that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. He reports experiencing stiffness in the mornings as well.

      During the examination, you observe swelling in both the metacarpal phalangeal (MCP) and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. One of the fingers is swollen throughout its entire length.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthritis is the most likely diagnosis when there is swelling in the DIP and dactylitis in an inflammatory arthritis case, while morning stiffness indicates either rheumatoid or psoriatic arthritis.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago. She is currently taking antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. She has intense difficulty passing urine, accompanied by burning, itching and pain over her labia. On examination there is a crop of vesicles and erosions on her vulva.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-1)

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Infection: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Herpes simplex infection is caused by two viral subtypes, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is commonly associated with oral or facial infections, while HSV-2 is mainly responsible for genital infections. After primary infection, the virus enters nerve endings in the skin and remains latent until reactivated. Symptoms usually appear 3-7 days after contact and may include a low-grade fever and general malaise. At the site of infection, symptoms include pain, burning, itching, and tingling, with the presence of groups of vesicles surrounded by erythema. These lesions usually ulcerate and crust over within 48 hours, lasting between 2 and 6 weeks without scarring. Women may experience urinary retention due to associated pain. Recurrent infection may occur due to fatigue, stress, local skin trauma, exposure to sunlight, or the menstrual cycle. Treatment involves the use of antiviral agents such as aciclovir, and prophylactic use of oral antiviral therapy may reduce the frequency and severity of recurrent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      27.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (3/4) 75%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/3) 33%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed