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Question 1
Correct
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You are urgently called to the labour ward to attend to a 23-year-old woman who has undergone an artificial rupture of membranes. She is at 39-weeks gestation and has had an uneventful pregnancy thus far. The midwife reports an abnormal foetal heart rate. Upon examination, you detect the presence of the umbilical cord. You promptly order a caesarean section. What medication can you administer while waiting to prevent any complications?
Your Answer: Terbutaline
Explanation:Terbutaline is the correct choice for managing a patient with an umbilical cord prolapse as it is a tocolytic drug that can reduce uterine contractions while awaiting emergency caesarean section. On the other hand, benzylpenicillin is not relevant in this case as it is given to mothers intrapartum with group B Streptococcus to prevent neonatal sepsis. Oxytocin is also not appropriate as it would increase uterine contractions, which could worsen the prolapse. Similarly, pethidine is not the next step in managing an umbilical cord prolapse, although the patient may be offered analgesia.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman comes to you at 18 weeks’ gestation, feeling very anxious. She spent one day last week taking care of her sick nephew who had cold symptoms, and a few days later, her nephew developed a facial rash resembling a ‘slapped cheek’. The patient informs you that she herself had some myalgia and fever for two days, and today she developed a rash on her trunk and back.
Upon examination, her temperature is 37.7 °C and there is a maculopapular rash on her trunk and back with a lace-like appearance.
The blood tests reveal:
rubella: immunoglobulin M (IgM) negative, immunoglobulin G (IgG) positive
parvovirus B19: IgM positive, IgG negative.
What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange urgent referral to a specialist Fetal Medicine Unit (to be seen within 4 weeks) and do serial ultrasound scans
Explanation:Management of Parvovirus B19 Infection in Pregnancy
Parvovirus B19 infection in pregnancy can have detrimental effects on the developing fetus. Therefore, it is important to manage the infection appropriately. Here are some key steps to take:
1. Arrange urgent referral to a specialist Fetal Medicine Unit (to be seen within 4 weeks) and do serial ultrasound scans to monitor fetal growth and assess for complications.
2. Arrange fetal blood sampling and transfusion if there is an indication of fetal infection.
3. Advise the woman to avoid going to work and contact with other pregnant women for at least five days to prevent transmission of the infection.
4. Give one dose of varicella-zoster virus (VZV) immunoglobulin and review in five days if the woman was exposed to chickenpox and is not immune to VZV.
5. Suggest paracetamol as required and plenty of fluids at present for the management of myalgia and arthralgia associated with the infection.
It is important to confirm the diagnosis of parvovirus B19 infection with serology on at least two separate samples and to monitor the woman and fetus closely for potential complications. With appropriate management, the risk of fetal morbidity and mortality can be reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman visits her GP worried about not feeling any fetal movements yet. She is currently 22 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. She is anxious because her peers who have been pregnant had already experienced their baby's movements by this stage. When should a referral to an obstetrician be made for absence of fetal movements?
Your Answer: 24 weeks
Explanation:Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if there are no fetal movements felt by 24 weeks. While most women feel their baby moving around 18-20 weeks, it can range from 16-24 weeks. If there is a lack of fetal movement, it could be due to various reasons, including miscarriages and stillbirth, which can be distressing. Therefore, it is important to check the fetal heartbeat and consider an ultrasound to detect any abnormalities if no fetal movements are felt by 24 weeks.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravida presents for her booking visit at eight weeks’ gestation. She is curious to know her due date and the gender of the baby. She asks if she can have a scan as soon as possible. You inform her about the national screening programme in pregnancy and explain that antenatal scans are offered at specific stages throughout the pregnancy.
What is the most accurate description of antenatal screening using ultrasound scans?Your Answer: Women with pre-existing diabetes have fetal growth scans every two weeks from 28 to 36 weeks’ gestation
Correct Answer: Women presenting with severe symptomatic hyperemesis gravidarum before the first scan is performed should be offered an early pregnancy ultrasound scan
Explanation:Pregnant women experiencing severe hyperemesis gravidarum before their dating scan should receive an early pregnancy ultrasound scan to detect abnormal trophoblastic disease, such as molar pregnancy or choriocarcinoma. Women with pre-existing diabetes or gestational diabetes are offered fetal growth scans every two weeks from 28 to 36 weeks’ gestation to monitor the baby’s growth and amniotic fluid levels. All pregnant women in the UK are offered a minimum of two antenatal scans, including the dating scan between 10+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation and the anomaly scan between 18+0 and 20+6 weeks’ gestation. The anomaly scan assesses the baby’s organs, growth, and placenta position, and can detect congenital abnormalities and small-for-gestational age babies. The first antenatal ultrasound scan can be offered as early as nine weeks’ gestation to confirm the pregnancy and determine the gestational age. The combined test, which includes nuchal translucency, PAPP-A, and hCG, can also be performed during the dating scan to assess the risk of Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A woman at 28 weeks gestation presents to the maternity assessment unit with complaints of reduced fetal movements (RFM). She reports that she has not felt her baby move for the past 10 hours. There is no history of vaginal bleeding or pain. The midwife is unable to detect a fetal heartbeat using the handheld Doppler. What further investigations would be carried out to assess the reduced fetal movements?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old, 16 week pregnant, female arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that has been persistent for the last 2 hours. She denies any vaginal bleeding. What are the risk factors linked to an elevated chance of placental abruption?
Your Answer: Maternal trauma and young maternal age
Correct Answer: Maternal trauma, multiparity and increased maternal age
Explanation:Placental abruption is more likely to occur in older mothers, those who have had multiple pregnancies, and those who have experienced maternal trauma. Pre-eclampsia, characterized by protein in the urine and high blood pressure, is also a risk factor.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors
Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.
The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:
Hb 85 g/l
WBC 6 * 109/l
Platelets 89 * 109/l
Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
ALP 215 u/l
ALT 260 u/l
γGT 72 u/l
LDH 846 u/I
A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.
Liver Complications During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.
Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.
Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are a healthcare professional in obstetrics & gynaecology. A 27-year-old female patient has come to the early pregnancy assessment clinic complaining of light vaginal spotting and lower abdominal pain that has been present for 48 hours. She had taken a home pregnancy test 6 weeks ago, which was positive, and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed, but no intrauterine pregnancy was detected. The serum βHCG results show a level of 3,662 IU per ml. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Complete miscarriage
Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.
During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with placenta accreta. What is the primary risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Previous caesarean sections
Explanation:Understanding Placenta Accreta
Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.
There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient who is currently 20 weeks pregnant presents to your clinic with an itchy rash on her back and legs, which began last night. She had been in contact with her nephew who was diagnosed with shingles. She is unsure if she has had chickenpox before. Upon examination, there are red spots and blisters on her back and legs. She reports feeling well and all vital signs are normal.
What would be your next course of action?Your Answer: Commence an oral course of acyclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who are 20 weeks or more along and contract chickenpox should receive oral acyclovir if they seek treatment within 24 hours of the rash appearing. If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, she should contact her doctor immediately to determine if she is immune and to arrange for blood tests if necessary. If a rash appears and the woman seeks treatment within 24 hours, oral acyclovir should be administered. Oral antibiotics are not necessary as there is no evidence of secondary infection. VZIG is an option for treating pregnant women who are not immune to chickenpox, but it is not effective once a rash has appeared.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old primiparous woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at 12 weeks’ gestation and attended for her nuchal scan. She is currently on insulin treatment. Her HbA1c at booking was 34 mmol/mol (recommended at pregnancy < 48 mmol/mol).
What is the most appropriate antenatal care for pregnant women with pre-existing diabetes?Your Answer: Women with diabetes should be advised to deliver by induction of labour or Caesarean section between 38 and 39+6 weeks’ gestation
Correct Answer: Women with diabetes should be seen in the Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy
Explanation:Guidelines for Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy
Managing diabetes in pregnancy requires close monitoring to reduce the risk of maternal and fetal complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for healthcare professionals to follow when caring for women with diabetes during pregnancy.
Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic Visits
Women with diabetes should be seen in a Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy. This ensures that any problems are addressed promptly and appropriately.
Serial Fetal Scanning
Women with diabetes should be offered serial fetal scanning from 26 weeks’ gestation every four weeks. This helps to monitor and prevent complications such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, stillbirth, and congenital anomalies.
Delivery by Induction of Labour or Caesarean Section
Women with diabetes should be advised to deliver by induction of labour or Caesarean section between 38 and 39+6 weeks’ gestation. This is because diabetes is associated with an increased risk of stillbirth, and the risk is managed by inducing labour when the pregnancy reaches term.
Induction at 41+6 Weeks’ Gestation
Women with diabetes who do not opt for an elective induction or a Caesarean section between 37+0 to 38+6 weeks’ gestation and wish to await spontaneous labour should be warned of the risks of stillbirth and neonatal complications. In cases of prolonged pregnancy, the patient should be offered induction by, at most, 40+6 weeks’ gestation.
Retinal Assessment
All women with pre-existing diabetes should be offered retinal assessment at 16–20 weeks’ gestation. If initial screening is normal, then they are offered a second retinal screening test at 28 weeks’ gestation. If the booking retinal screening is abnormal, then a repeat retinal screening test is offered to these women earlier than 28 weeks, usually between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of back pain uses paracetamol and ibuprofen regularly for pain relief. She and her partner are planning to have a baby, and would like to know about the safety of analgesics during pregnancy.
What is the best statement regarding the safety of analgesics in pregnancy?Your Answer: Paracetamol can be used as it does not cross the placenta
Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate can be used at low doses if needed
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Painkillers in Pregnancy
Pregnancy can be a challenging time for women, especially when it comes to managing pain. While some painkillers are safe to use during pregnancy, others can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used painkillers and their safety in pregnancy.
Codeine phosphate: Low doses of codeine phosphate are generally safe to use during pregnancy. However, if taken closer to delivery, the neonate should be observed for signs of respiratory depression, drowsiness, or opioid withdrawal.
Naproxen: Naproxen belongs to the family of NSAIDs and is contraindicated in pregnancy. However, it is safe to use in the postpartum period and by women who are breastfeeding.
Ibuprofen: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs should be avoided during pregnancy as they are associated with teratogenic effects and other congenital problems.
Paracetamol: Paracetamol is the analgesic of choice in pregnancy and is safe to use within the recommended limits. However, patients should be cautioned against taking paracetamol and low-dose co-codamol concurrently.
Tramadol: Tramadol should be avoided in pregnancy as it has been shown to be embryotoxic in animal models.
In conclusion, it is important for pregnant women to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any painkillers to ensure the safety of both mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who gave birth a week ago presents to the emergency department with concerns about vaginal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding started as bright red but has now turned brown. She is changing her pads every 3 hours and is worried about possible damage to her uterus from her recent caesarean section. On examination, she appears distressed but has no fever. Her vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 95 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination is unremarkable except for a pink, non-tender caesarean section scar. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Reassure, advise and discharge
Explanation:The patient is discussing the bleeding that occurs during the first two weeks after giving birth, known as lochia. It is important to note that both vaginal birth and caesarian section can result in this bleeding, but caesarian section carries a higher risk of post-partum haemorrhage. Therefore, a thorough history and examination should be conducted to identify any potential issues.
Typically, lochia begins as fresh bleeding and changes color before eventually stopping. The patient should be advised that if the bleeding becomes foul-smelling, increases in volume, or does not stop, they should seek medical attention. However, in this case, the volume of bleeding is not excessive and there are no concerning features or abnormal observations. The patient can be reassured and provided with advice regarding lochia.
Lochia refers to the discharge that is released from the vagina after childbirth. This discharge is composed of blood, mucous, and uterine tissue. It is a normal occurrence that can last for up to six weeks following delivery. During this time, the body is working to heal and recover from the physical changes that occurred during pregnancy and childbirth. It is important for new mothers to monitor their lochia and report any unusual changes or symptoms to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus and is referred to the joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. She is currently 25 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. Her family has no history of pregnancy-related problems, but her father has type 1 diabetes mellitus. On examination, her BMI is 32 kg/m² and otherwise normal. What diagnostic test would confirm her condition?
Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose >= 5.6 mmol/L
Explanation:Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed if the patient has a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L or higher, or a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L or higher. This diagnosis is typically made during an oral glucose tolerance test around 24 weeks into the pregnancy for women with risk factors, such as a high BMI or a first-degree relative with diabetes mellitus. In this patient’s case, she was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus during her first pregnancy due to her risk factors. Therefore, the correct answer is a fasting plasma glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L. It is important to note that a 2-hour glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L is not diagnostic of gestational diabetes mellitus, and random plasma glucose tests are not used for diagnosis. Glucose targets for women with gestational diabetes mellitus include a 2-hour glucose level of 6.4 mmol/L after mealtime and a 1-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L after mealtime.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 28-year-old G2P1 woman is admitted to the maternity ward after experiencing regular contractions. During a vaginal examination, the midwife confirms that the mother is currently in the first stage of labor. When does this stage of labor typically end?
Your Answer: 10 cm cervical dilation
Explanation:The first stage of labour begins with the onset of true labour and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10cm. During this stage, regular contractions occur and the cervix gradually dilates. It is important to note that although 4 cm and 6cm cervical dilation occur during this stage, it does not end until the cervix is fully effaced at 10cm. The second stage of labour ends with the birth of the foetus, not the first.
Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.
During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 29-year-old primigravida presents at ten weeks’ gestation with persistent nausea and vomiting. She reports this is mostly in the morning but has affected her a lot, as she is struggling to attend work. She can manage oral fluids, but she struggles mostly with eating. She has tried avoiding certain foods and has followed some conservative advice she found on the National Health Service (NHS) website, including ginger, and they have not helped. Her examination is unremarkable. Her documented pre-pregnancy weight is 60 kg, and today she weighs 65 kg. The patient is keen to try some medication.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Management of Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy: Medications and Considerations
Nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are common and can range from mild to severe. Conservative measures such as dietary changes and ginger can be effective for mild symptoms, but oral anti-emetics are recommended for more severe cases. First-line medications include promethazine, cyclizine, and phenothiazines. If these fail, second-line medications such as ondansetron and metoclopramide may be prescribed. Severe cases may require hospital admission, parenteral anti-emetics, and fluid resuscitation. Thiamine is given to all women admitted with severe vomiting. Steroid treatments such as hydrocortisone should be reserved for specialist use. It is important to monitor for side-effects and consider referral to secondary care if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old para 1 woman has just given birth to a large baby boy (4.2kg). The delivery was vaginal but complicated by shoulder dystocia, which was resolved with McRoberts' manoeuvre and suprapubic pressure. Although the baby is healthy, the mother is experiencing significant pain and bleeding due to a tear. Upon examination, the midwife discovers a midline tear that extends to a small portion of the external anal sphincter. However, the internal sphincter remains intact. The patient's vital signs are normal, and she is otherwise in good health. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Suture repair in theatre by clinicians under local or general anaesthetic
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for a third degree perineal tear is surgical repair in theatre by a trained clinician under local or general anaesthetic. This is necessary as the tear involves the external anal sphincter, which can lead to complications such as infection, prolapse, long-term pain, and faecal incontinence if left untreated. Analgesia should also be provided to manage the patient’s pain, with paracetamol being the first-line option. Emergency repair in theatre is not usually required unless the patient is unstable. Suture repair on the ward by a midwife or clinician is not appropriate for tears involving the anal complex, which require intervention in theatre. However, grade 2 tears can be repaired on the ward by senior midwives trained in perineal repair.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She gave birth 3 weeks ago and is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports a 4 day history of increasing pain in her left breast, which has not improved with continued feeding and expressing. During examination, she appears healthy, but her temperature is 38.5ºC. There is a small area of redness above the left nipple, which is sensitive to touch. She has no known allergies.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin & encourage to continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Lactation mastitis is a prevalent inflammatory condition of the breast that can have infectious or non-infectious origins. The primary cause is milk stasis, which can occur due to either overproduction or insufficient removal.
In cases of non-infectious mastitis, the accumulation of milk leads to an inflammatory response. Occasionally, an infection may develop through retrograde spread via a lactiferous duct or a traumatised nipple, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common organism.
Symptoms of lactation mastitis include breast pain (usually unilateral) accompanied by an erythematosus, warm, and tender area. Patients may also experience fever and flu-like symptoms.
The first-line approach to managing lactation mastitis is conservative, involving analgesia and encouraging effective milk removal (either through continued breastfeeding or expressing from the affected side) to prevent further milk stasis. It is also crucial to ensure proper positioning and attachment during feeding.
If symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of conservative management, antibiotics should be prescribed. The first-line choice is oral flucloxacillin (500 mg four times a day for 14 days), or erythromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav is the second-line choice.
In cases where conservative and antibiotic management do not improve symptoms, other more serious causes, such as inflammatory breast cancer, should be considered. (Source – CKS mastitis)
Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management
Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.
Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.
Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.
If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She was surprised to discover her pregnancy just last week, as it was unexpected. This is her fourth pregnancy, but she has had three miscarriages in the past. The midwife suggests a quadruple test due to the late discovery of her pregnancy, which reveals the following results:
- Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is low
- Unconjugated oestriol (uE3) is low
- Total human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is low
- Inhibin-A is normal
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Down’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:The quadruple test result shows a decrease in AFP, oestriol, and hCG, without change in inhibin A, indicating Edward’s syndrome. This condition is caused by trisomy 18 and can present with physical features such as micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers. The quadruple test is a screening test used to identify pregnancies with a higher risk of Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, or neural tube defects. It is typically offered to patients who discover their pregnancy late and are no longer eligible for the combined test. ARPKD cannot be diagnosed with a quadruple test, but it can be detected prenatally with an ultrasound. Down’s syndrome would present with low AFP, low unconjugated oestriol, high hCG, and inhibin A, while neural tube defects would present with high AFP and normal oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A.
NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman attends her regular antenatal check at 16 weeks gestation. It is her second pregnancy and she has had no complications.
The nurse is discussing the results of previous tests, checking her urine and measuring her blood pressure. The patient has no protein in her urine and her blood pressure is 102/70 mmHg.
Which of the following describes a normal physiological change in this patient?Your Answer: Blood pressure drops throughout pregnancy
Correct Answer: An increase in heart rate and stroke volume lead to an increase in cardiac output
Explanation:Physiological Changes in Pregnancy
Pregnancy is a time of significant physiological changes in a woman’s body. These changes are mainly driven by progesterone rather than oestrogen. One of the changes is vasodilation, which leads to a drop in blood pressure initially, but it normalizes by term. However, an increase in heart rate and stroke volume leads to an increase in cardiac output.
Another change is a decrease in lower oesophageal sphincter tone and vascular resistance, which causes a drop in blood pressure. This decrease occurs over the first trimester but starts to increase to normal by term. Oestrogen is responsible for this change, and it also causes symptoms of reflux.
Pregnancy also causes a mild anaemia due to a drop in red cell volume. However, this is a dilutional anaemia caused by an increase in plasma volume. Additionally, there is an increase in clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, which makes pregnancy a hypercoagulable state.
The functional residual capacity (FRC) increases in pregnancy, leading to more rapid breathing and smaller tidal volumes. This decrease in FRC means that oxygen reserve is less in pregnant women. Minute ventilation increases due to increased oxygen consumption and increased CO2 production. This is by increased tidal volume rather than respiratory rate.
Finally, the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases secondary to progesterone, facilitating an increase in fluid retention and an increase in plasma volume. However, there is also an increase in aldosterone, which acts on the kidneys producing water and sodium retention, therefore causing an increase in plasma volume.
In conclusion, pregnancy causes significant physiological changes in a woman’s body, which are mainly driven by progesterone. These changes affect various systems, including the cardiovascular, respiratory, and renal systems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The pain started two days ago and is not accompanied by any other symptoms. She is struggling with breastfeeding and thinks her baby is not feeding long enough.
On examination, you notice an erythematosus, firm and swollen area, in a wedge-shaped distribution, on the right breast. The nipple appears normal.
Her observations are stable, and she is apyrexial.
Given the above, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Breast abscess
Correct Answer: Mastitis
Explanation:Breast Conditions in Lactating Women
Lactating women may experience various breast conditions, including mastitis, breast abscess, cellulitis, engorged breasts, and full breasts.
Mastitis is typically caused by a blocked duct or ascending infection from nipple trauma during breastfeeding. Symptoms include unilateral pain, breast engorgement, and erythema. Treatment involves analgesia, reassurance, and continuing breastfeeding. Antibiotics may be necessary if symptoms persist or a milk culture is positive.
Breast abscess presents as a painful lump in the breast tissue, often with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. Immediate treatment is necessary to prevent septicaemia.
Cellulitis is an acute bacterial infection of the breast skin, presenting with erythema, tenderness, swelling, and blister formation. Non-specific symptoms such as rigors, fevers, and malaise may also occur.
Engorged breasts can be primary or secondary, causing bilateral breast pain and engorgement. The skin may appear shiny, and the nipple may appear flat due to stretching.
Full breasts are associated with lactation and cause warm, heavy, and hard breasts. This condition typically occurs between the 2nd and 6th day postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 30-year-old healthy pregnant woman is about to give birth to her first child at 9-months gestation. The obstetrician decides to perform a caesarean section.
Which of the following abdominal surgical incisions will the obstetrician most likely use to perform the procedure?Your Answer: Suprapubic incision
Explanation:Different Types of Incisions for Surgical Procedures
There are various types of incisions used for different surgical procedures. Here are some common types of incisions and their uses:
1. Suprapubic Incision: Also known as the Pfannenstiel incision, this is the most common incision used for Gynaecological and obstetric operations like Caesarean sections. It is made at the pubic hairline.
2. Transverse Incision just below the Umbilicus: This incision is usually too superior for a Caesarean section because the scar would be visible and does not provide direct access to the uterus as the Pfannenstiel incision.
3. Right Subcostal Incision: This incision is used to access the gallbladder and biliary tree.
4. Median Longitudinal Incision: This incision is not commonly used because of cosmetic scarring, as well as the fact that the linea alba is relatively avascular and can undergo necrosis if the edges are not aligned and stitched properly.
5. McBurney’s Point Incision: This incision is used to access the vermiform appendix and is made at the McBurney’s point, which is approximately one-third of the distance of a line, the spino-umbilical line, starting at the right anterior superior iliac spine and ending at the umbilicus.
In conclusion, the type of incision used for a surgical procedure depends on the specific needs of the operation and the surgeon’s preference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands and feet, which worsens at night. She has no visible rash and has a history of a stillbirth at 36 weeks. What is the most efficient management for her condition?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from obstetric cholestasis, which can increase the risk of premature birth and stillbirth. The main symptom is severe itching, and elevated serum bile acids are typically present. Liver function tests, including bilirubin levels, may not be reliable. The most effective treatment is ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA), which is now mostly synthetic. While antihistamines and topical menthol creams can provide some relief, UDCA is more likely to improve outcomes.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman is being monitored with cardiotocography (CTG) during her labor. What would be considered an 'abnormal' characteristic of the CTG tracings?
Your Answer: A single prolonged deceleration lasting 3 minutes or more
Explanation:Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the GP at 26 weeks into her pregnancy with an itchy rash that appeared this morning on her arms, legs, and trunk. She also has vesicles on her palms. She mentions feeling unwell for the past two days and experiencing a headache. Last week, she visited her niece in the hospital where a child was treated for a similar rash. Her vital signs are stable. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral acyclovir and symptomatic relief
Explanation:Managing Chickenpox in Pregnancy: Treatment and Care
Chickenpox is a common childhood disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. When a pregnant woman contracts chickenpox, it can have detrimental effects on the fetus. However, with proper management and care, the risk of complications can be minimized.
Oral acyclovir is recommended for pregnant women who develop chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash appearing and are at or over 20 weeks’ gestation. Symptomatic relief, such as adequate fluid intake, wearing light cotton clothing, and using paracetamol or soothing moisturizers, can also help alleviate discomfort.
Immediate admission to secondary care is necessary for women with severe symptoms, immunosuppression, haemorrhagic rash, or neurological or respiratory symptoms. Women with mild disease can be cared for in the community and should avoid contact with susceptible individuals until the rash has crusted over.
An immediate fetal growth scan is not necessary unless there are other obstetric indications or concerns. Women who develop chickenpox in pregnancy should have a fetal growth scan at least 5 weeks after the primary infection to detect any possible fetal defects.
Varicella immunisation is not useful in this scenario, as it is a method of passive protection against chickenpox and not a treatment. Termination of pregnancy is not indicated for chickenpox in pregnancy, but the patient should be informed of the risks to the fetus and possible congenital abnormalities.
Overall, proper management and care can help minimize the risk of complications from chickenpox in pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to seek medical care if symptoms worsen or if there are any concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward after the placenta is delivered. The examination shows a minor tear on the perineum without any muscle involvement. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Glue on the ward
Correct Answer: No repair required
Explanation:A first-degree perineal tear typically does not need suturing.
In the case of this woman, she has a first-degree perineal tear that only affects the surface of the perineum and does not involve any muscles. Therefore, no repair is necessary as these types of tears usually heal on their own.
The answer glue on the ward is incorrect because first-degree perineal tears do not require closure and should be left to heal naturally. Additionally, glue is not suitable for use in the perineal area and is only appropriate for small, straight, superficial, low-tension wounds.
Similarly, staples in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears do not require repair and will heal on their own. Staples are not recommended for use in the perineal region.
The answer suture in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears typically do not require suturing and can be left to heal on their own. If suturing is necessary for a first-degree tear, it can be done on the ward by a trained practitioner. Only third or fourth-degree tears require repair in a theatre setting under regional or general anaesthesia.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding and acute abdominal pain. She appears to be in distress and a pregnancy test comes back positive. During a vaginal examination, there are indications of tissue being expelled from the uterus. The patient is diagnosed with a miscarriage.
What type of miscarriage is she experiencing?Your Answer: Complete miscarriage
Correct Answer: Inevitable miscarriage
Explanation:Types of Miscarriage: Understanding the Differences
Miscarriage is a devastating experience for any woman. It is important to understand the different types of miscarriage to help manage the situation and provide appropriate care. Here are the different types of miscarriage and their characteristics:
Inevitable Miscarriage: This occurs when the products of conception are being passed vaginally, and the cervical os is open. It is an inevitable event.
Complete Miscarriage: This occurs when all the products of conception have been passed, and the cervical os is closed.
Threatened Miscarriage: This is characterised by vaginal bleeding and cramps, but the patient is not passing tissue vaginally. The uterus is of the right size for dates, and the cervical os is closed.
Septic Miscarriage: This occurs when there are retained products of conception in the uterus or cervical canal, leading to infection. The cervical os is likely to be open.
Missed Miscarriage: This is when the fetus dies in utero but is not expelled from the uterus. The uterus is small for dates, and the cervical os is closed.
Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support to women experiencing this difficult event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman is on day four postpartum, following an emergency Caesarean section for severe pre-eclampsia. She feels well in herself and is mobilising and breastfeeding well. Her blood pressure has not normalised yet and is 158/106 mmHg today. Urinalysis is negative for protein. Following a long discussion, you decide that she is ready for discharge and can be managed in the community.
Which of the following is correct regarding postnatal hypertension?Your Answer: Women who are discharged and are still hypertensive should have their blood pressure checked every other day in the community until targets are achieved
Explanation:Postnatal Hypertension Management: Guidelines for Discharge and Follow-up
Women who experience hypertension during the postnatal period require careful management to ensure their blood pressure is controlled and any underlying causes are addressed. Here are some guidelines for managing postnatal hypertension:
– Women who are discharged and still hypertensive should have their blood pressure checked every other day in the community until targets are achieved.
– The GP at the 6-week postnatal check should convert all women with chronic hypertension (before pregnancy) back to their pre-pregnancy antihypertensive medication, if not contraindicated in breastfeeding.
– If blood pressure is found to be > 150/100 mmHg in the community, the patient should be referred back to the hospital.
– The blood pressure should be checked at least once every two weeks until the woman discontinues antihypertensive treatment.
– The GP at the 6-week postnatal check should stop antihypertensives in all women who required medical treatment in pregnancy, provided their blood pressure is < 130/80 mmHg.
– If a woman still has a blood pressure of ≤ 160/110 mmHg and proteinuria at the 6-week postnatal appointment, despite medical management, she will require a specialist referral to the hospital for further assessment of the underlying causes of hypertension.By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with postnatal hypertension receive appropriate care and support to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman comes in for her 20-week anomaly scan. This is also her first pregnancy, but she found out she was pregnant at 12 weeks’ gestation. The sonographer alerts the consultant in the room, as she has detected spina bifida. The patient mentions that her cousin had a baby with the same condition a few years ago.
Based on the information provided, what folic acid dosage would be advised for this patient in subsequent pregnancies?Your Answer: Commence folic acid 5 mg daily in the preconception period and continue until week 12 of gestation
Explanation:Folic Acid Supplementation for Neural Tube Defect Prevention
Explanation:
Folic acid supplementation is recommended for women who are trying to conceive in order to reduce the risk of neural tube defects and congenital abnormalities in their babies. The recommended dose is 400 μg daily in the preconception period and until the 12th week of gestation. However, women who are identified to be at high risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily, ideally starting in the preconception period and continuing until the 12th week of gestation. It is important to note that folic acid supplementation should be discontinued after the first trimester. Side-effects of folic acid treatment may include abdominal distension, reduced appetite, nausea, and exacerbation of pernicious anaemia. High risk factors for neural tube defects include a family history of neural tube defects, a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, personal history of neural tube defect, and chronic conditions such as epilepsy and diabetes mellitus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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