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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which statement about the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is accurate?
Your Answer: Bowel cancer is the fifth most common cause of cancer death in men in the UK
Correct Answer: A quarter of patients diagnosed with bowel cancer will survive for at least 10 years
Explanation:Understanding the Epidemiology of Colorectal Cancer
A basic understanding of the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is important for general practitioners to consider when treating their patients. It is worth noting that 95% of colorectal cancer cases occur in individuals over the age of 50.
In terms of incorrect answer options, it is important to note that bowel cancer incidence rates have not increased by 6% over the last 10 years. Additionally, bowel cancer is not the second most common cause of cancer death in the UK overall, but rather in men alone it is second to prostate cancer and in women alone it is second to breast cancer.
Finally, while almost 42,000 people were diagnosed with bowel cancer in the UK in 2011, it is not accurate to say that half of patients diagnosed with colorectal cancer will survive their disease for 10 years or more. It is important for general practitioners to have accurate information about colorectal cancer in order to provide the best care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of 6 kg over the past three months, without any significant pain. During the examination, she appears drawn and emaciated, with deep yellow sclera. She has experienced jaundice twice before, once in her teens, and her sister has also had it. She typically enjoys a glass or two of wine on weekends and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer: Carcinoma pancreas
Correct Answer: Infective hepatitis
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice and their Characteristics
Jaundice can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique characteristics. Cancer of the pancreas, particularly in the head, can cause painless jaundice. On the other hand, cancer in the body or tail of the pancreas can present with dull, unremitting central abdominal pain or back pain. Smoking is a known risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
Gilbert’s syndrome, a familial condition, can also cause jaundice. However, the jaundice in this case is pale yellow and the patient typically feels well. While Gilbert’s syndrome is not uncommon, it is important to consider other potential causes of jaundice, especially if the patient has significant weight loss. As a wise surgeon once said, People with IBS get Ca bowel too – never forget that.
Hepatitis A is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. Primary biliary cirrhosis, on the other hand, has its peak incidence in the fifth decade of life and often presents with generalized pruritus or asymptomatic hepatomegaly. Understanding the characteristics of different causes of jaundice can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male undergoes an endoscopy after being referred by his GP with recurrent indigestion.
The endoscopy reveals a small duodenal ulcer and Helicobacter pylori is demonstrated to be present. He has not been given eradication treatment before and is allergic to penicillin.
You consider a seven day, twice daily course of eradication therapy.
How would you treat this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Esomeprazole 10 mg, Metronidazole, Tetracycline
Explanation:Helicobacter Infection and Treatment
Helicobacter infection is common in patients with duodenal and peptic ulceration. The recommended therapy includes acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole, along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be highly effective.
It is important to note that patients who are allergic to penicillin require a different treatment regimen. The lowest cost treatment option should be chosen, taking into account previous exposure to clarithromycin or metronidazole. In cases where the patient is allergic to penicillin and has had previous exposure to clarithromycin, bismuth and tetracycline should be added to the treatment regimen.
The recommended PPI doses for Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy are esomeprazole 20 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg, omeprazole 20-40 mg, pantoprazole 40 mg, and rabeprazole 20 mg. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment of Helicobacter infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with liver cirrhosis of unknown origin is being evaluated in the clinic. What factor is most likely to indicate a poor prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascites
Explanation:Scoring Systems for Liver Cirrhosis
Liver cirrhosis is a serious condition that can lead to liver failure and death. To assess the severity of the disease, doctors use scoring systems such as the Child-Pugh classification and the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD). The Child-Pugh classification takes into account five factors: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites. Each factor is assigned a score of 1 to 3, depending on its severity, and the scores are added up to give a total score. The total score is then used to grade the severity of the disease as A, B, or C.
The MELD system uses a formula that takes into account a patient’s bilirubin, creatinine, and international normalized ratio (INR) to predict their survival. The formula calculates a score that ranges from 6 to 40, with higher scores indicating a higher risk of mortality. The MELD score is particularly useful for patients who are on a liver transplant waiting list, as it helps to prioritize patients based on their risk of mortality. Overall, both the Child-Pugh classification and the MELD system are important tools for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis and determining the best course of treatment for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine suppository
Explanation:For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She experiences spasms of pain in the left iliac fossa and has alternating periods of constipation and loose stools. As her healthcare provider, you are contemplating drug therapy to alleviate her symptoms.
What is the medication that NICE advises against using in patients with IBS?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactulose
Explanation:NICE advises against the use of lactulose for the treatment of IBS.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits you a few days after seeing his neurologist. He has a history of idiopathic Parkinson's disease that was diagnosed a few years ago. Apart from that, he has no other medical history. Lately, his symptoms have been getting worse, so his neurologist increased his levodopa dosage.
He complains of feeling very nauseous and vomiting multiple times a day since starting the higher dose of levodopa. He requests that you prescribe something to help alleviate the vomiting.
What is the most suitable anti-emetic to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Domperidone
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with jaundice and itching.
Which of the following results would most strongly support the diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antimitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Understanding Primary Biliary Cholangitis: Diagnostic Tests and Markers
Primary biliary cholangitis is an autoimmune disease that affects the biliary system, causing intrahepatic cholestasis and leading to cell damage, fibrosis, and cirrhosis. While there is no single definitive test for this condition, several markers can help diagnose and monitor it.
Antimitochondrial antibodies are present in 90-95% of individuals with primary biliary cholangitis, but are only found in 0.5% of normal controls. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are also nonspecific, as they can be positive in connective tissue disease and chronic infections. Similarly, around 35% of patients with primary biliary cholangitis have positive antinuclear antibodies, but this is not specific to the condition.
Elevated levels of alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) are common in primary biliary cholangitis, but significant elevations of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) are usually more prominent. Additionally, a polyclonal increase in IgM (sometimes associated with elevated IgG) is typical but not specific to this condition.
Overall, a combination of these diagnostic tests and markers can help identify and monitor primary biliary cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes it has been present for around 18 months, but it is getting worse. He also reports experiencing chest discomfort, coughing at night, and waking up with undigested food on his pillow in the morning.
During the examination, his throat, neck, chest, and abdomen appear normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of achalasia, which is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a functional stricture. This can cause substernal cramps, regurgitation, and pulmonary aspiration due to the retention of food and saliva in the oesophagus, resulting in a nocturnal cough. Diagnosis is made using a barium swallow, and treatment involves endoscopic balloon dilation or cardiomyotomy. Barrett’s oesophagus, motor neurone disease, oesophageal carcinoma, and pharyngeal pouch are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have revealed widespread disease affecting his entire colon. He reports passing approximately 5 bloody stools per day for the past 3 days.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 82 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/62 mmHg, and temperature is 36.9ºC. His abdomen is soft and non-tender.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine and oral sulfasalazine
Explanation:When a patient experiences a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to add oral aminosalicylates to rectal aminosalicylates. This is because enemas can only reach a certain point and the addition of an oral medication ensures proper treatment. In this case, the patient’s colonoscopy showed extensive disease, making the use of an oral aminosalicylate necessary. Therefore, this is the correct option and using rectal mesalazine alone is not sufficient.
Using oral steroids like prednisolone and dexamethasone as a first-line treatment is not recommended.
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial infections, but there is no indication of such an infection in this case.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman presents with complaints of 'chest pains'. Upon further discussion, he reports experiencing postprandial retrosternal burning for the past six months. The symptom has been persistent and occurring daily over that time. He has been using an over-the-counter alginate antacid at least once a day for the last four months, but it has not provided significant relief. A colleague prescribed a 3-month course of PPIs, which he has completed without any cessation of his symptoms.
The patient is typically healthy with no significant medical history. He has been a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day since the age of 18 and drinks alcohol occasionally. He reports no dysphagia or odynophagia and his weight is stable. He has experienced occasional vomiting when symptomatic but no persistent vomiting. He denies any haematemesis and his bowel habit is stable with no rectal bleeding or black stools.
Upon examination, he has some angular stomatitis and mild glossitis. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise he takes the alginate preparation after meals TDS and also at night
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Upper GI Endoscopy and GORD Treatment
According to the latest NICE guidance NG12 (updated in October 2015), patients with certain symptoms should be referred for upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy. Urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be offered to those with dysphagia or aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy should be considered for those with haematemesis, treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, raised platelet count with certain symptoms, or nausea/vomiting with certain symptoms.
For mild gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) symptoms occurring less than once a week, antacids can be used as needed. For more frequent symptoms, a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is recommended. Initial treatment is a high dose PPI for four weeks, taken once daily 30-60 minutes before the first meal of the day. If symptoms persist after one month, offer another month at full dose. Doubling the dose of PPI can be considered for severe symptoms. If there is no response to PPI treatment, reconsider the diagnosis and consider specialist referral. A H2 receptor antagonist can be added to a PPI for patients with a partial response to PPI treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is known to have diverticular disease. She has experienced pain in the left iliac fossa intermittently in the past put now the pain is more persistent and more severe. She is tender in the left iliac fossa but there is no guarding or rebound tenderness and a mass is not felt. Her temperature is 38oC.
Select from the list the single most useful drug in these circumstances.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Management of Diverticulitis in Primary Care
Diverticulitis is a common condition that can be managed in primary care, provided there are no complications. If the patient is not dehydrated, experiencing severe bleeding, or showing signs of perforation, abscess or fistula formation, or significant comorbidity, they can be treated at home.
The first step in treatment is to prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics that cover anaerobes and Gram-negative rods. Co-amoxiclav or a combination of ciprofloxacin and metronidazole (if allergic to penicillin) are good options. The course of antibiotics should last for at least 7 days.
If the patient’s symptoms worsen or persist beyond 48 hours, hospital admission may be necessary. However, with proper management and monitoring, most cases of diverticulitis can be successfully treated in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) detected during routine screening. He is asymptomatic and shows no signs of liver disease upon examination. Further blood tests reveal a positive hepatitis B envelope-antigen (HBeAg) result.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current active hepatitis B infection
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different stages of the disease, and various tests can help diagnose and monitor it.
Active Hepatitis B Infection:
The presence of HBeAg in the blood indicates ongoing viral replication and is associated with large quantities of HBV DNA. Patients who have not developed anti-HBeAb are highly infectious and at greater risk of progressing to chronic liver disease.Chronic Hepatitis B in an Inactive State:
Patients in the inactive carrier state have cleared HBeAg and have low levels of HBV DNA. However, they will still test positive for surface antigen.Cirrhosis of the Liver:
Hepatitis B patients are at risk of developing cirrhosis, which is diagnosed clinically, on ultrasound, and with liver biopsy.Hepatitis E:
Hepatitis E is a different viral infection spread via the faecal-oral route and is tested for with hepatitis E antibodies.Previous Hepatitis B Vaccination:
Patients who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B will show antibodies to the surface antibody (anti-HBsAb) only. This doesn’t account for deranged LFTs.Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35 year-old woman schedules a consultation to address her suspected food intolerance. She suspects she may have a wheat allergy and has noticed that her symptoms of bloating and diarrhea have improved in recent months by following a gluten-free diet. What guidance should the GP provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resume eating gluten, bloods for coeliac screen
Explanation:To accurately test for coeliac disease, patients must consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks before undergoing the first-line test, which involves measuring serum total immunoglobulin A (IgA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) levels. Failure to consume gluten prior to the test may result in a false negative result. If a patient refuses to consume gluten, they should be referred to a Gastroenterologist, but it should be noted that even an endoscopy and biopsy may yield a negative result if gluten has been excluded from the diet.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for the past 4 months. She has a history of perianal abscess. Her blood test shows hypochromic, microcytic anaemia and mild hypokalaemia. Although her liver function tests are normal, her albumin is reduced. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly affected sites are the ileocecal region and the colon. Patients with Crohn’s disease experience relapses and remissions, with symptoms including low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea, right lower quadrant or periumbilical pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Perianal disease may also occur, with symptoms such as perirectal pain, malodorous discharge, and fistula formation. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include arthritis, erythema nodosum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
To establish a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, ileocolonoscopy and biopsies from affected areas are first-line procedures. A cobblestone-like appearance is often seen, representing areas of ulceration separated by narrow areas of healthy tissue. Barium follow-through examination is useful for looking for inflammation and narrowing of the small bowel.
Differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease include coeliac disease, small bowel lymphoma, tropical sprue, and ulcerative colitis. Coeliac disease presents as a malabsorption syndrome with weight loss and steatorrhoea, while small bowel lymphoma is rare and presents with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss. Tropical sprue is a post-infectious malabsorption syndrome that occurs in tropical areas, and ulcerative colitis may be clinically indistinguishable from colonic Crohn’s disease but lacks the small bowel involvement and skip lesions seen in Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried about her experiencing recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and nausea for the past two months. Upon further inquiry, the pain is severe, occurs in the mornings, is intermittent, and can happen during vacations. Her weight is at the 50th percentile, and there are no abnormalities found during the examination. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal migraine
Explanation:Abdominal Migraine: Recurrent Episodes of Midline Abdominal Pain in Children
Abdominal migraine is a disorder that mainly affects children and is characterized by recurrent episodes of midline abdominal pain. The pain can last from 1-72 hours and is of moderate to severe intensity. During the attacks, patients may experience anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Marked pallor is commonly noted, and some patients may appear flushed. The pain is severe enough to interfere with normal daily activities, and many children describe their mood during the attack as one of intense misery. However, patients are completely symptom-free between attacks.
Abdominal migraine is an idiopathic disorder, meaning that the cause is unknown. It is unlikely to be school avoidance as the symptoms are episodic and can occur outside of school times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who presented to you last month with a 6 week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn and occasional reflux. Her medical history is unremarkable and you agreed on a plan for a 1 month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.
Sarah returns for a follow-up appointment after completing a month of omeprazole. Her symptoms have only slightly improved and they are still bothering her.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive
Explanation:If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the alternative strategy should be tried next. In Mark’s case, he has completed 1 month of a full-dose PPI and should now be tested for H. pylori infection. Referral for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is not necessary at this stage.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of nausea, particularly worse after eating. He has not experienced any weight loss, upper abdominal pain or reflux. His past medical history includes a fractured right ankle in his twenties. He has no relevant family history. He is a social smoker and drinks around 2 pints with his friends at the weekend. The GP orders bloods which show:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 550 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 3 mg/L (< 5)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non urgent referral for endoscopy
Explanation:A non-urgent referral to GI is necessary for patients who have both raised platelet count and nausea due to dyspepsia. In this case, the patient, who is 58 years old, meets the criteria for such referral.
While ondansetron is effective for chemically mediated nausea, metoclopramide or domperidone may be more appropriate for patients with reduced gastric motility.
PPI trial is typically used as a second line management for dyspepsia patients who do not require endoscopy referral.
Reassurance should not be given to patients who meet the criteria for non-urgent endoscopy referral, such as this man with dyspepsia symptoms and abnormal blood results.
Urgent endoscopy referral is not necessary for patients who only present with nausea.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Many elderly patients with colorectal cancer present with advanced disease. Early diagnosis is essential.
Select from the list the single elderly patient who satisfies the criteria for urgent referral (2-week rule).Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man who has had loose stools for 6 weeks but no rectal bleeding
Explanation:Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients over 50 years old with unexplained rectal bleeding or over 60 years old with a change in bowel habit should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks for suspected colorectal cancer. However, other conditions can also cause similar symptoms, and differential diagnosis is important to ensure appropriate management.
Rectal Bleeding in a Multiparous Woman
Rectal bleeding is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions, including haemorrhoids. In a 40-year-old multiparous woman, routine referral would be appropriate if piles could not be identified.
Change in Bowel Habit in a 60-Year-Old Man
A change in bowel habit in a 60-year-old man is more likely to be caused by an acute infection, such as enterohaemorrhagic E. coli or Shigella. Investigations should be directed to finding the cause.
Constipation in an 80-Year-Old Woman
Constipation is a common symptom in the elderly, and dietary factors may play a role. In an 80-year-old woman with intermittent constipation and no teeth, the symptom is likely to be longstanding and not indicative of colorectal cancer.
Anal Fissure in a 70-Year-Old Man
Anal fissure is a possible cause of rectal bleeding in a 70-year-old man. Further investigation is needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
Identifying Symptoms of Colorectal Cancer: Referral Recommendations and Differential Diagnosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.
He was found to be positive for Helicobacter pylori on serological testing and received eradication therapy. He also underwent an upper GI endoscopy last year which did not reveal any focal pathology. Despite this, he still experiences reflux symptoms, and you decide to retest him for Helicobacter pylori.
What is the most appropriate method of retesting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saliva assay
Explanation:Retesting for Helicobacter pylori after Eradication Therapy
The NICE guidelines on Dyspepsia (CG184) provide recommendations for retesting patients who have received eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori. The first-line tests for detecting H. pylori are the stool antigen test and the urea breath test, while serological testing can be used if locally validated. However, serology is not appropriate for retesting as it remains positive due to past exposure. Saliva assays are inconsistent in accuracy, and gastric biopsy is invasive and costly.
If a patient tests positive for H. pylori and receives eradication therapy, retesting may be necessary. Currently, there is insufficient evidence to recommend stool antigen testing as a test of eradication. Therefore, NICE recommends retesting via the urea breath test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents with a long-standing history of alternating episodes of diarrhoea and normal bowel habit. During his episodes, he experiences severe left-sided abdominal pain which usually resolves over a few days. He has always had to monitor his diet to avoid constipation but has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there is tenderness in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen with no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulosis and Diverticulitis: Symptoms and Management
Diverticulosis is a condition where small pouches called diverticula form in the lining of the colon. About 75% of people with diverticula have no symptoms. However, those with uncomplicated diverticulosis may experience lower abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, or rectal bleeding. These symptoms may be exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation or flatus. Left lower quadrant tenderness and fullness may also be present, which can be mistaken for irritable bowel syndrome.
On the other hand, diverticulitis is a more serious condition where the diverticula become inflamed or infected. Patients with diverticulitis may experience intermittent or constant left lower quadrant pain, accompanied by a change in bowel habits. Pyrexia and tachycardia are common, and examination usually reveals localised tenderness and sometimes a palpable mass. Mild cases of diverticulitis can be managed at home with paracetamol, clear fluids, and oral antibiotics. However, one third of patients may develop further complications such as perforation, abscess, fistula, or stricture/obstruction.
It is important to differentiate diverticulitis from other conditions such as colonic cancer, Crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis. Colonic cancer may present with weight loss and a more definite change in bowel habit, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis usually present with diarrhoea at a younger age than diverticulitis. Barium enema or colonoscopy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and management of diverticulosis and diverticulitis is crucial for early detection and treatment. Patients with mild diverticulitis can be managed at home, but those with severe symptoms or complications require hospitalisation and possibly surgery. Regular screening and follow-up are recommended for those with diverticulosis to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient with epilepsy that is currently managed with phenytoin presents to his General Practitioner. He has recently been taking oral flucloxacillin for a leg injury that was precipitated by a recent fit. The patient occasionally drinks alcohol and has been taking paracetamol for pain relief after his leg injury. Clinical examination reveals jaundice; however, his abdomen is non-tender. Liver function tests are shown below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 280 μmol/l 1–22 μmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 440 U/l 45–105 U/l
Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) 320 U/l 11–50 U/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 46 U/l < 35 U/l
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s jaundice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice: Identifying the Culprit in a Clinical Case
In this clinical case, a patient presents with jaundice and abnormal liver function tests. The following potential causes are considered:
Flucloxacillin: The patient’s presentation is consistent with cholestatic jaundice, which can be caused by flucloxacillin. Other drugs that can cause a similar picture include chlorpromazine, azathioprine, captopril, ciclosporin, penicillamine, erythromycin, and the combined oral contraceptive.
Ethanol: Although the patient reports occasional alcohol use, ethanol is an unlikely cause of cholestatic jaundice. Ethanol more commonly causes a hepatitic picture with elevated transaminase levels.
Gallstones: Cholecystitis typically doesn’t cause jaundice. If gallstones were the cause, right upper quadrant pain and tenderness would be expected.
Paracetamol: The patient is taking paracetamol, but there is no information about excessive use. Paracetamol overdose typically causes a hepatitic picture rather than cholestatic jaundice.
Phenytoin: Phenytoin typically causes a hepatitic picture with larger elevations in transaminase levels and a smaller rise in ALP levels.
In conclusion, flucloxacillin is the most likely cause of this patient’s cholestatic jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing
Explanation:Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You see a 38-year-old lady who has come to you for help reducing her weight. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. She has tried joining a local dieting group and increasing her physical activity but is still finding it difficult to lose weight. After discussion, it is decided to start her on orlistat. She manages to lose 2Kg after 3 months treatment. She wants to know how much longer she is allowed to be on this medication.
Following an initial weight loss at 3 months, what is the restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Orlistat Prescription Guidelines
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits pancreatic lipase and is prescribed to patients with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more (or 28 kg/m2 with an associated risk factor). Patients are expected to lose 5% of their initial body weight at 3 months for the prescription to be continued. However, for patients with diabetes, a 3% loss of body weight at 3 months is recommended.
Beyond the initial weight loss at 3 months, there is no restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed. The decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be undertaken to assess the benefits, risks, and costs of treatment. According to NICE, For people who have lost the recommended amount of weight, there is no restriction on how long orlistat may be prescribed. This should be reviewed at regular intervals.
In summary, orlistat is a medication that can be prescribed for an extended period of time, but the decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be conducted to ensure that the medication is still appropriate for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease after experiencing abdominal pain, loose stools and a microcytic anaemia. The individual is seeking further information on the condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Crohn's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis occurs in up to 30% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease
Explanation:Upon diagnosis, approximately 66% of individuals with inflammatory bowel disease exhibit anaemia. Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed at a median age of 30 years. The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue and unexplained weight loss during the past few months. He has been suffering from ulcerative colitis since his early 30s. His liver function tests show abnormalities.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary tract carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ulcerative Colitis and Deranged Liver Function
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is associated with various conditions, including primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), which confers a high risk for cholangiocarcinoma. Therefore, a patient with UC and deranged liver function is likely to have cancer, specifically cholangiocarcinoma. Gallstones, chronic pancreatitis, and small bowel lymphoma are less likely diagnoses due to their lack of association with UC and/or absence of relevant symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis is a possibility, but its incidence is not increased in patients with UC. Overall, cholangiocarcinoma should be considered as a potential diagnosis in a patient with UC and deranged liver function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 27 year old woman presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, pain and diarrhea for the past 3 months. She denies any rectal bleeding, weight loss or family history of bowel disease. On examination, her abdomen appears normal. Along with a full blood count (FBC), urea & electrolytes (U&E), coeliac screen, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP), what initial investigation would be most helpful in differentiating between irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in a primary care setting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Faecal calprotectin
Explanation:NICE recommends the use of faecal calprotectin in primary care to distinguish between IBS and IBD. This protein is released in the bowel during inflammation and can be detected in a stool sample. Its use can reduce the need for invasive diagnostic testing and referral of patients with typical IBS symptoms. However, a positive result doesn’t confirm IBD and patients should be referred to secondary care for further investigation.
NICE has also provided guidance on the diagnostic criteria for IBS and the necessary investigations. They suggest conducting FBC, ESR, CRP, and coeliac screen (TTG). However, they advise against performing ultrasound, sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy, barium study, thyroid function test, stool microscopy and culture, and faecal occult blood and hydrogen breath test.
Understanding Diarrhoea: Causes and Characteristics
Diarrhoea is defined as having more than three loose or watery stools per day. It can be classified as acute if it lasts for less than 14 days and chronic if it persists for more than 14 days. Gastroenteritis, diverticulitis, and antibiotic therapy are common causes of acute diarrhoea. On the other hand, irritable bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, colorectal cancer, and coeliac disease are some of the conditions that can cause chronic diarrhoea.
Symptoms of gastroenteritis may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diverticulitis is characterized by left lower quadrant pain, diarrhoea, and fever. Antibiotic therapy, especially with broad-spectrum antibiotics, can also cause diarrhoea, including Clostridioides difficile infection. Chronic diarrhoea may be caused by irritable bowel syndrome, which is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Ulcerative colitis may cause bloody diarrhoea, crampy abdominal pain, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease may cause crampy abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malabsorption. Colorectal cancer may cause diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia, and weight loss. Coeliac disease may cause diarrhoea, abdominal distension, lethargy, and weight loss.
Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis. It is important to seek medical attention if diarrhoea persists for more than a few days or is accompanied by other symptoms such as fever, severe abdominal pain, or blood in the stool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male medical student who has been feeling unwell for several days is noticed to have slightly icteric sclerae by his girlfriend and has liver function tests performed. The results of these are normal apart from a serum bilirubin concentration of 44 µmol/l (normal < 21 μmol/L). His urine doesn't contain bilirubin.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gilbert syndrome
Explanation:Possible Causes of Jaundice: A Differential Diagnosis
Jaundice is a common clinical manifestation of various diseases. In this case, the patient presents with jaundice, and the differential diagnosis includes several inherited disorders of bilirubin metabolism, chronic haemolytic disorders, and infectious diseases.
Gilbert Syndrome: This is a relatively mild inherited disorder caused by a deficiency of glucuronosyl transferase, resulting in an accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin. The jaundice usually subsides in a few days and may be more obvious during an intercurrent illness.
Dubin–Johnson Syndrome: This is another inherited disorder of bilirubin metabolism, but in this case, there is a defect in the secretion of bilirubin from the liver. The bilirubin that accumulates in the plasma is conjugated, water-soluble, and excreted in the urine. Onset of jaundice may commonly first occur during puberty or early adulthood and can be precipitated by alcohol, infection, pregnancy, or contraceptive pill use.
Hereditary Spherocytosis: This is a chronic haemolytic disorder due to a defect in the red cell membrane, most frequently in spectrin, a structural protein. It can present with a wide range of severity, from jaundice at birth to asymptomatic anaemia or jaundice in adults.
Infectious Mononucleosis: This viral infection can cause hepatitis and jaundice, but elevated transaminase activity would be expected.
Rotor Syndrome: This is a possible differential diagnosis, but this condition would cause a mixed hyperbilirubinaemia. Therefore, Gilbert’s disease is the more likely diagnosis in this scenario.
In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of jaundice includes several inherited disorders of bilirubin metabolism, chronic haemolytic disorders, and infectious diseases. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past eight weeks. He has also experienced fresh rectal bleeding on multiple occasions during this time. The patient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and haemorrhoids. On examination, his abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, and a normal rectal exam is noted.
What would be the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in three to four weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Colorectal Cancer
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, individuals under the age of 50 who experience a change in bowel habit to looser and/or more frequent stools, along with rectal bleeding, should be urgently referred for suspected colorectal cancer.
In addition, NICE recommends considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for adults under 50 with rectal bleeding and unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. These referrals should result in an appointment within two weeks to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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