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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with advanced dementia and oesophageal cancer is rushed to the hospital from a nursing home due to sudden onset of complete dysphagia. He cannot tolerate any food or drink and immediately vomits. He had a stent placed two weeks ago which initially provided relief. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tumour overgrowth
Correct Answer: Bolus obstruction
Explanation:Common Complications of Stenting
Stenting is a common procedure used to treat blockages in the body’s vessels. However, despite providing detailed instructions on post-stenting diet, patients often forget the rules and are readmitted due to obstruction. The most likely cause of obstruction is bolus obstruction, which occurs when a large piece of food is inadvertently ingested.
Stent displacement is another common complication, especially with metal stents that have not been fully deployed. This tends to occur early on after the procedure. On the other hand, tumour overgrowth is a longer-term complication that can occur with stenting. It is important for patients to follow the post-stenting diet and to be aware of the potential complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man is discovered on the roadside after a single-vehicle car accident. The duration of his lying there is uncertain. Upon the arrival of paramedics, his GCS is 10, and his blood pressure is 92/66 mmHg with a pulse of 96 bpm. Upon arrival at the Emergency department, his blood test results reveal a urea level of 44 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5 - 7.5) and a creatinine level of 620 ”mol/l (normal range: 60 - 110). A catheterization procedure produces 50 mls of brown-colored urine. What additional blood test should be requested to determine the cause of his kidney dysfunction?
Your Answer: HbA1c
Correct Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis and Compartment Syndrome
Rhabdomyolysis is a condition that can occur as a result of various factors, including trauma, crush injury, compartment syndrome, ischaemia, severe electrolyte disturbances, bacterial and viral infections, inherited metabolic disorders, and certain drugs. In order to diagnose rhabdomyolysis, a CK test should be requested.
One of the common causes of rhabdomyolysis is trauma, such as a road traffic accident. In such cases, it is important to rule out compartment syndrome, which can develop due to the effects of rhabdomyolysis on muscle fibres. Compartment syndrome is characterized by a disruption to the oxygen supply to the muscle, leading to ATP depletion and a build-up of intracellular calcium. This can cause myocyte swelling and impaired function, leading to hypovolaemia and excess fluid sequestration.
Restoring the blood supply can cause reperfusion injury, which can further damage the myocytes and cause them to swell further, leading to the development of compartment syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to address compartment syndrome in trauma patients in order to improve their clinical picture. By the causes and effects of rhabdomyolysis and compartment syndrome, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 55-year-old man, who has recently started a new relationship, presented with depression. He reported a decrease in libido, which was affecting his relationship. The physician decided to initiate testosterone therapy after conducting some blood tests.
Which of the following routes should not be used to administer testosterone?Your Answer: Intravenous (iv)
Explanation:Different Routes of Testosterone Administration and their Risks
Testosterone is a hormone that can be administered through various routes, each with its own risks and benefits. Intravenous administration is not recommended due to the risk of emboli formation and respiratory distress. Oral preparations are available but can be toxic to the liver, making transdermal formulations a safer option. Transdermal delivery can be achieved through gels, skin patches, or matrix patches, but absorption can vary. Intramuscular injections, such as undecanoate, release the drug slowly over a period of 2-6 weeks. Buccal tablets that adhere to the mucosa can also be used, but may cause buccal ulcers. It is important to consider the risks and benefits of each route of administration when choosing a testosterone formulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 5-year-old child with a suspected squint is referred to an ophthalmologist by her General Practitioner. The ophthalmologist makes a diagnosis of amblyopia (lazy eye) and suggests occlusion therapy.
What is occlusion therapy and how is it used to treat amblyopia in a 5-year-old child?Your Answer: Covering the normal eye with a patch
Explanation:Different Treatment Options for Amblyopia and Squint
Amblyopia and squint are two common eye conditions that can affect children. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to manage these conditions. Here are some of the most common treatments:
1. Occlusion therapy: This involves covering either the normal or abnormal eye with a patch to force the child to use the other eye. This helps to strengthen the muscles in the weaker eye and improve vision.
2. Penalisation therapy: If a child is non-compliant with occlusion therapy, atropine drops can be used in the normal eye to blur vision. This forces the child to use the weaker eye and improve its strength.
3. Corrective glasses: Glasses can be used to correct any refractive errors that may be contributing to the squint. This can help to improve the alignment of the eyes.
4. Surgical management: In some cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the misalignment of the eyes. This involves shortening or altering the insertion point of the extra-ocular muscles.
By using one or a combination of these treatments, children with amblyopia and squint can improve their vision and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no discomfort or other symptoms.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient has an inguinal hernia and is fit for surgery, making surgical referral appropriate. Physiotherapy referral is not necessary in this case, and reassurance and safety netting should still be provided. An ultrasound scan is not needed as the surgical team will determine if imaging is necessary.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia.
What is the most probable reason for his gynaecomastia?Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Correct Answer: Seminoma
Explanation:The causes of Gynaecomastia are varied and can be indicative of underlying health issues. This condition is characterized by the enlargement of male breast tissue, which is caused by an imbalance in the testosterone to oestradiol ratio. It is important to note that hyperprolactinaemia and hypopituitarism do not affect this ratio and are not commonly associated with gynaecomastia.
It is also important to note that hypothyroidism and CAH are not known to cause this condition. However, gynaecomastia can be a symptom of seminoma, a type of testicular cancer, due to the secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). Therefore, seeking medical attention if gynaecomastia is present is crucial.
Prolactinoma, on the other hand, is a benign tumour of the pituitary gland that is typically asymptomatic. It is not known to cause gynaecomastia, but it is important to monitor its growth and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Understanding the causes of gynaecomastia can help individuals identify potential health issues and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An older man comes in with a severe headache, nausea, vomiting and a painful, red right eye. He has reduced visual acuity in the right eye and normal visual acuity in the left eye. During the examination, he had a stony hard eye with marked pericorneal reddening and a hazy corneal reflex. Tonometry revealed a raised intraocular pressure. The patient reports that he has recently been prescribed a new medication by his general practitioner.
What medication could be responsible for this sudden onset of symptoms?Your Answer: Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: Ipratropium nebuliser
Explanation:Understanding Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma and its Treatment Options
Acute closed angle glaucoma is a serious eye condition that can cause sudden vision loss, severe eye pain, and nausea. It occurs when the angle between the iris and cornea is reduced, leading to a blockage of the aqueous humour flow and increased intraocular pressure. Risk factors include female sex, Asian ethnicity, and hypermetropia.
Certain drugs, such as nebulised ipratropium and tricyclic antidepressants, can induce angle closure due to their antimuscarinic effects. Other antimuscarinic drug side-effects include dry eyes, xerostomia, bronchodilation, decreased gut motility, urinary outflow obstruction, and hallucinations.
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is given intravenously to treat acute closed angle glaucoma. It helps to reduce intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. Bisoprolol is a ÎČ-blocker that does not precipitate an episode of acute closed angle glaucoma, while montelukast is used in the long-term management of asthma and does not increase the risk of acute closed angle glaucoma.
Topical pilocarpine is a miotic that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma by constricting the pupil and promoting aqueous humour flow. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for acute closed angle glaucoma to prevent vision loss and other serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher raised concerns that the child sometimes appears to âstare into spaceâ. The parents brought him to the General Practitioner reporting that they have also noticed that he would look blank for a minute and then looks confused. After these episodes, the boy becomes his normal self and does not remember what happened. The boy says that he sometimes has headaches, which usually occur at home and for which he takes paracetamol. There is no significant past medical or family history.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Absence seizure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Seizures: Symptoms and Characteristics
One of the most common types of seizures is the absence seizure, which is characterized by brief periods of decreased consciousness. In this type of seizure, the child may stop talking or what they were doing for about 10-15 seconds before returning to their normal self. Absence seizures are a form of generalized seizure and require electroencephalography (EEG) for diagnosis.
Another type of seizure is the focal seizure, which originates within networks limited to one hemisphere. It can be discretely localized or more widely distributed, and it replaces the terms partial seizure and localization-related seizure.
Primary generalized seizures usually present with a combination of limb stiffening and limb jerking, known as a tonic-clonic seizure. Patients may also experience tongue biting and incontinence. After the seizure, patients often feel tired and drowsy and do not remember what happened.
Atonic seizures are a form of primary generalized seizure where there is no muscle tone, causing the patient to drop to the floor. Unlike other forms of seizures, there is no loss of consciousness.
While migraines can cause neurological symptoms, they do not typically cause an episode such as the one described. Migraines often present with an aura and do not result in loss of consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child is brought to the General Practice by his mother. She informs you that her son has had a fever and has not been as active during play sessions. She decided to bring him into the surgery when he erupted in a rash two days ago. On examination, he has a vesicular rash which is widely disseminated and intensely pruritic. He has a temperature of 38 °C. You diagnose him with a common childhood infection. The next day, a patient, who is 14 weeksâ pregnant, reports that she briefly baby sat for the child before she knew about his infection. She has no recollection of having the infection as a child and she is well in herself.
Given that the patient has been exposed to the infected child, what is the next best step in her management?Your Answer: Varicella zoster vaccine
Correct Answer: Check for varicella antibodies
Explanation:Management of Varicella in Pregnancy
Explanation:
When a pregnant woman presents with a vesicular pruritic rash, it is important to consider the possibility of varicella zoster virus infection. Varicella is a teratogenic virus that can harm the fetus, so prompt management is necessary. The first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If the results are not available within two working days, referral to secondary services for prophylaxis should be considered. Watching and waiting is not appropriate in this situation. Administering a varicella zoster vaccine is not recommended due to the theoretical risk to the fetus. Immunoglobulins for rubella are not indicated. acyclovir may be used for symptomatic patients, but informed consent is required as the evidence for its safety in pregnancy is not strong. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in protecting the health of both the mother and the fetus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A woman attends at three weeks post-delivery with her baby for the general practitioner (GP)âs 3-week postnatal test. She had an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation and is currently breastfeeding.
Which of the following should be deferred until six weeks after delivery?Your Answer: Performing a smear test if this was delayed because of pregnancy
Explanation:Postnatal Check: What to Expect from Your GP
After giving birth, it is important to have a postnatal check with your GP to ensure that you are recovering well and to address any concerns you may have. Here are some of the things you can expect during your 6-week postnatal check:
Performing a Smear Test if Delayed Because of Pregnancy
If you were due for a routine smear test during pregnancy, it will be deferred until at least three months post-delivery. This is to avoid misinterpreting cell changes that occur during pregnancy and to identify any precancerous changes in the cells of the cervix.Assessment of Mood
Your GP will assess your mood and any psychological disturbance you may be experiencing. This is an opportunity to screen for postnatal depression and identify any need for additional support.Assessing Surgical Wound Healing and/or the Perineum if Required
Depending on the mode of delivery, your GP will assess the healing of any surgical wounds or perineal tears. They will also check for signs of infection or abnormal healing.Blood Pressure Reading
Your GP will perform a blood pressure reading, especially if you had hypertension during pregnancy. Urinalysis may also be performed if you had pre-eclampsia or signs of a urinary tract infection.Discussion of Contraceptive Options
Your GP will discuss family planning and the need for additional contraception, as required. This is important to prevent unintended pregnancies, especially if you are not exclusively breastfeeding.Overall, the 6-week postnatal check is an important part of your recovery process and ensures that you receive the necessary care and support during this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which statement about childhood squints is accurate?
Your Answer: Amblyopia is a sign of a paralytic squint
Correct Answer: The corneal light reflection test is a suitable screening test
Explanation:Both paralytic and non-paralytic squints can lead to the development of amblyopia.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old male was admitted to orthopaedics 3 days ago following a snowboarding accident. X-rays revealed a closed right tibial shaft fracture with minimal displacement. Over the past 4 hours, he has been experiencing severe pain in the leg, despite receiving hourly oral morphine in addition to regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. His urine has turned dark and a dipstick test shows the presence of blood.
On admission, his electrolyte and renal function tests were as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L
K+ 4.1 mmol/L
Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L
Urea 3.8 mmol/L
Creatinine 72 ”mol/L
However, on day 3 of admission, his results have changed significantly:
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 18 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 11.9 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 189 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
What is the primary factor contributing to the development of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient?Your Answer: Accumulation of myoglobin in the renal tubules
Explanation:Compartment syndrome is commonly linked to fractures of the tibial shaft and supracondylar region. The presence of rapidly-progressing pain that is unresponsive to high doses of pain medication is indicative of compartment syndrome. This condition can cause an increase in pressure within the fascial compartment, leading to muscle breakdown and the release of myoglobin into the bloodstream, resulting in rhabdomyolysis. This can cause acute kidney injury, with myoglobinuria causing urine to appear dark brown and test positive for blood. Dehydration and pre-renal AKI may also occur, but urinalysis would not show blood in this case. Goodpasture’s syndrome, which involves the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies, typically presents with AKI, proteinuria, and pulmonary symptoms such as haemoptysis and shortness of breath. Obstructive stones usually cause right loin pain, and a single ureter obstruction is unlikely to cause significant renal impairment. While NSAIDs can worsen renal function by inhibiting prostaglandins and causing vasoconstriction of the glomerular afferent arteriole, compartment syndrome and rhabdomyolysis are likely the primary causes of AKI in this case.
Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding that has been progressively worsening over the past year. She also complains of severe period pain that typically starts a few days before each menstrual cycle. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 28 days. Lila states she has not been sexually active for the past year and is not taking any regular medications. She has two children, both born via vaginal delivery without any complications. Upon abdominal examination, no abnormalities are noted, and a speculum examination reveals a normal cervix. You decide to order a full blood count. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Request a transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:If a patient presents with menorrhagia along with pelvic pain, abnormal exam findings, or intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, it is recommended to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound. According to the NICE guidelines, a transvaginal ultrasound should be preferred over a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI for women with significant dysmenorrhoea or a bulky, tender uterus on examination that suggests adenomyosis.
In the case of Lila, who is experiencing new menorrhagia and significant dysmenorrhoea, a transvaginal ultrasound is necessary. If a transvaginal ultrasound is not possible, a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI can be considered, but the limitations of these techniques should be explained.
For women without identified pathology, fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, the first-line treatment recommended by the guideline is a levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS). While this may be an appropriate treatment for Lila, the initial next step should be to arrange for a transvaginal ultrasound to investigate further. At this stage, there are no red flags in Lila’s history or examination that warrant an urgent referral to gynaecology.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 57-year-old retired nurse is receiving palliative care for terminal metastatic lung cancer. Her pain has been well managed until recently, when she started experiencing discomfort about an hour before her next dose of pain medication. This is causing her to feel anxious and concerned about her ability to cope with the pain.
What are the advantages of treating pain during palliative care?Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:The Importance of Pain Control in Palliative Care
Pain is a crucial aspect of palliative care management. It is a multifaceted symptom that can impact a patient’s mobility, appetite, sleep, and overall quality of life. Addressing pain may involve improving mobility, which can help patients get out of bed and move around more easily. Pain control is also associated with better appetite and sleep, as well as reducing anxiety and improving general quality of life. Therefore, pain control is an essential component of palliative care that can significantly enhance a patient’s well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has been experiencing left shoulder pain for the last five years. Recently, this pain has become more severe, and he has been advised to undergo a left shoulder replacement surgery. The patient has a history of diabetes and high blood pressure, but no other medical conditions. During his preoperative evaluation, the patient inquires about eating and drinking before the surgery, as he will not be staying overnight and will be arriving at the hospital on the day of the procedure.
What is the appropriate information to provide to this patient regarding fasting times for elective surgery?Your Answer: You can eat solids up to 12 hours before, clear fluids two hours before and carbohydrate-rich drinks six hours before
Correct Answer: You can eat solids up to six hours before, clear fluids two hours before and carbohydrate-rich drinks two hours before
Explanation:Pre-Operative Fasting Guidelines: What You Need to Know
When it comes to preparing for surgery, there are certain guidelines that patients must follow regarding their food and drink intake. Contrary to popular belief, patients do not always need to fast for extended periods of time before their procedure.
According to recent studies, prolonged fasting may not be necessary to prepare for the stress of surgery. However, there are still some important guidelines to follow. Patients should stop eating solid foods six hours before their operation, and most patients having morning surgery are made nil by mouth from midnight. Clear fluids can be consumed up to two hours before the procedure, but carbohydrate-rich drinks should be stopped two hours before surgery.
Carbohydrate-rich drinks are often used in enhanced recovery programs to increase energy stores postoperatively and aid in recovery and mobilization. It is important to note that eating solids two hours before the procedure can increase the risk of residual solids in the stomach at induction of anesthesia.
In summary, patients should follow these guidelines: stop eating solids six hours before surgery, stop consuming carbohydrate-rich drinks two hours before surgery, and continue clear fluids up until two hours before the procedure. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure a safe and successful surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.
Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.
Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.
Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.
Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. ZiehlâNeelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Correct
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A 17-year-old student has recently observed a yellowish tinge in the whites of his eyes and skin. Upon examination, he is found to be jaundiced. The following are his liver function test results: Bilirubin: 47 ”mol/l ALP: 42 u/l ALT: 19 u/l AST: 26 u/l Albumin: 41 g/l What is the primary test that should be used to determine the cause of this patient's liver function abnormalities and jaundice?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Explanation:Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up appointment regarding their difficulty in conceiving. The couple has been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The wife has a regular menstrual cycle and no previous gynaecological issues. An ovulation test measuring her progesterone level showed normal ovulation. The GP advises the couple that the husband needs to undergo tests to determine if there is any cause on his side contributing to the infertility. Both the man and the woman have no history of sexually transmitted infections. The man has been smoking one to two cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. What is the best next investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Semen analysis
Explanation:Investigations for Male Infertility: Semen Analysis, Testicular Biopsy, Hormone and Genetic Testing
When a couple experiences fertility problems, a semen analysis is typically the first investigation for the man. This test measures semen volume, pH, sperm concentration, total sperm number, total motility, vitality, and sperm morphology, using World Health Organization reference values for interpretation. If the semen analysis reveals azoospermia (no sperm present), a testicular biopsy may be performed to collect spermatozoa for in-vitro fertilization treatment.
If the semen analysis does not explain the infertility, follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone levels may be measured, but these are not first-line investigations. Genetic testing may also be considered to identify genetic abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which can cause male infertility. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and treat male infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.
She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.
Despite trying pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months, she still finds the symptoms very debilitating. However, she denies feeling depressed and is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.
Urinalysis is unremarkable, and on vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.
What is the next most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine
Explanation:Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries can also be used as a non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the woman only experiences stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary to do so urgently. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the woman’s symptoms persist despite 6 months of trying this approach, it would be inappropriate to suggest continuing with the same strategy.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husbandâs past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating âthey told me my organs are all reversedâ. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patientâs infertility?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive dysfunction of a chloride ion channel
Correct Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary
Explanation:Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man
Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective hysterectomy tomorrow. What instructions should be given regarding her oral intake before the surgery?
Your Answer: Food/solids > 6 hours beforehand and clear fluids > 2 hours beforehand
Explanation:To ensure safe elective surgery, it is recommended that both adults and children drink clear fluids up to 2 hours before the procedure, but avoid consuming solid food for 6 hours prior. These guidelines also apply to pregnant women not in labor and patients with diabetes. Breast milk is safe up to 4 hours before surgery, while other types of milk should be avoided for 6 hours.
In the case of emergency surgery for an adult patient who has not fasted, the Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI) technique can be used to minimize the risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux. This involves optimal preoxygenation, the use of an induction agent and suxamethonium, and the application of cricoid force at the onset of unconsciousness. However, as there has been no preoperative airway assessment, anaesthetists must be prepared for potential difficulties with laryngoscopy and intubation.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the options below is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Causes of Heart Murmurs
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat. Aortic stenosis, a condition where the aortic valve narrows, causes an ejection systolic murmur. On the other hand, left atrial myxomas and right atrial myxomas, which are rare tumors, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur by blocking the valve orifice during diastole. Mitral stenosis, which is often the result of rheumatic fever or a congenital defect, causes mid-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, tricuspid stenosis, which is also commonly caused by rheumatic fever, can cause a mid-diastolic murmur. the causes of heart murmurs is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of oxygen in the blood that is attached to haemoglobin?
Your Answer: 60%
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Calculation of Oxygen in Blood
The majority of oxygen in the blood is bound to haemoglobin, with the exact amount varying based on the oxygen saturation and haemoglobin level. To calculate the amount of oxygen per litre of blood, the following formula can be used: (13.9 Ă Hb Ă sats/100) + (PaO2 Ă 0.03). For example, an ordinary man with an Hb of 14, sats of 98% on room air, and a PaO2 of 12 would have 191 ml of oxygen per litre of blood. It is important to note that only 0.36 ml of this oxygen is dissolved in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with hypercalcaemia secondary to primary hyperparathyroidism presents with renal colic. An ultrasound scan reveals ureteric obstruction caused by a stone. Despite multiple attempts at stone extraction, the stone remains lodged. The patient is now experiencing sepsis with a fever of 39.5ÂșC and has been administered antibiotics. What is the optimal plan of action?
Your Answer: Cystoscopy and insertion of ureteric stent
Correct Answer: Insertion of nephrostomy
Explanation:When a person experiences acute upper urinary tract obstruction, the recommended course of action is to undergo nephrostomy. In this case, it is likely that the obstruction was caused by a calculus or stone in the ureter. If left untreated, the stagnant urine can become infected, which is considered a serious urological emergency. Since the stone cannot be removed, a nephrostomy is necessary.
Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.
To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.
The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.
Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old nun is seen in the Rheumatology Clinic every year for her long-standing seropositive arthritis affecting her hands, knees, and hips. Her arthritis is linked to another chronic condition she also experiences.
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) arthritis
Explanation:Seropositive and Seronegative Arthritis: Types and Characteristics
Seropositive arthritis is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid factor, an antibody targeted against the Fc portion of immunoglobulins. While rheumatoid factor can be present in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), seropositive SLE generally indicates more severe disease progression. On the other hand, reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and enteropathic arthritis are all seronegative arthritis, meaning that rheumatoid factor is classically not present.
Reactive arthritis is usually precipitated by a gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection occurring before the onset of arthritic symptoms. The classic triad of reactive arthritis is conjunctivitis, asymmetric oligoarthritis, and urethritis. The condition may be self-limiting, but in some patients, it may become chronic or recur frequently.
Psoriatic arthritis is classically found in patients with psoriasis, but in around 1 in 6 people, it may present many years before psoriatic skin symptoms. Ankylosing spondylitis, on the other hand, is a chronic disorder of an inflammatory nature characterized by sacroiliac joint involvement and linked to the HLA-B27 antigen. Enteropathic arthritis is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and can affect any joint, but it most commonly affects the spine and lower limb joints. Approximately 1 in 5 people with inflammatory bowel disease will develop the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.
The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 27
Correct
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Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with bowel cancer. Which marker would be most effective in monitoring the tumor's progression and response to future treatment?
Your Answer: CEA
Explanation:Colon cancer treatment response is monitored using CEA.
Although CT scans can reveal malignancy progression, they are not suitable for routine monitoring due to their expense and radiation exposure.
Ovarian cancer is detected using Ca-125 as a tumour marker.
Hepatocellular carcinoma is detected using AFP as a tumour marker.Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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How does teriparatide, a derivative of parathyroid hormone (PTH), help in treating severe osteoporosis despite the fact that primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism are associated with loss of bone mass?
Your Answer: By increasing bone remodelling
Correct Answer: By having a direct anabolic effect on bone
Explanation:The Mechanisms of Parathyroid Hormone in Osteoporosis Treatment
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a complex role in the treatment of osteoporosis. While chronic elevation of PTH can lead to bone loss, mild elevations can help maintain trabecular bone mass. Teriparatide, a medication that mimics PTH, has been shown to increase bone mass and improve skeletal structure. However, PTH’s ability to increase bone remodelling is not beneficial in osteoporosis treatment, and chronic elevation can worsen the condition by increasing calcium resorption. PTH can activate the enzyme needed for activating vitamin D, but this is not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Additionally, PTH can decrease calcium excretion from the kidneys, but this is also not the mechanism for its benefit in osteoporosis. Overall, PTH’s direct anabolic effect on bone is the most significant mechanism for its use in osteoporosis treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
Which of the following is the next step in the patientâs management?Your Answer: Referral to the Pain team
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities
Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right-sided back pain and dysuria that has been bothering her for the past two days. The pain is constant and severe, and it radiates from her renal angle to her groin. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.1ÂșC, her heart rate is 101 bpm, her blood pressure is 139/91 mmHg, and she has a tender renal angle with a palpable mass on the right side of her abdomen. What is the most appropriate investigation to evaluate her abdominal mass?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the renal tract
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms is a ureteric stone causing obstruction in the right kidney, resulting in hydronephrosis. A physical examination may reveal a palpable mass. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound of the renal tract is the best initial investigation as it can detect any obstruction in the renal tract. It is important to avoid exposing the patient to unnecessary radiation, especially if they are under 20 years old or women of childbearing age. The first-line treatment for hydronephrosis is a nephrostomy, which is performed under ultrasound guidance. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast is recommended to identify the cause of the obstruction. Contrast agents are not useful in this situation as they make stones invisible on the scan. An intravenous urogram is also not helpful as it does not provide 3-dimensional images of the kidneys. A urine dip may show blood, which could suggest stone pathology, but it cannot determine the cause of the palpable mass.
Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.
To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.
The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.
Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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