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Question 1
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department at night with a sudden onset of severe pain in his left testicle that started four hours ago. Upon examination, his left testis is visibly swollen and extremely tender to touch. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Testicular Torsion Diagnosis
Testicular torsion is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient’s history and examination. To confirm this, it is essential to perform a surgical procedure under general anesthesia. The symptoms and signs presented by the patient are highly indicative of testicular torsion, and it is crucial to address this condition promptly. Therefore, it is necessary to conduct a thorough examination and perform the necessary tests to confirm the diagnosis. Once confirmed, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent further complications. It is essential to act quickly in such cases to avoid any long-term damage to the testicles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child has been referred by their GP due to chronic constipation that is not responding to treatment. What specific details in the child's medical history could suggest a possible diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease?
Your Answer: Family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)
Correct Answer: Passage of meconium at day 3
Explanation:When a baby has difficulty passing stool, it may be a sign of Hirschsprung’s disease, a condition where nerve cells in the colon are missing. This disease is more common in males and can be diagnosed through a biopsy. It is important to note that not all babies with delayed passage have this disease. Hirschsprung’s disease can also present in later childhood, so it is important to ask about the timing of symptoms in children with chronic constipation or obstruction. This disease is associated with MEN 2A/B, not MEN1, and meconium ileus is a common differential. Pyloric stenosis is associated with non-bilious vomiting, while a temperature is not a factor in suggesting Hirschsprung’s disease.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with her father due to difficulty falling asleep at night caused by an itchy bottom. She is an active and healthy child who attends school regularly and enjoys playing with friends in the park. She has received all her vaccinations up to date. What is the recommended first-line treatment for her most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mebendazole
Explanation:Mebendazole is the recommended first-line treatment for threadworm infestations. This particular case presents with typical symptoms of a threadworm infection, which is a common helminth in children. The infection is usually acquired through the ingestion of eggs found in the environment, often from touching soil and then putting hands in the mouth. While the infection is often asymptomatic, it can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is often made empirically, and treatment typically involves hygiene recommendations and mebendazole.
Diethylcarbamazine is an anti-helminthic medication used to treat filarial infections, such as those caused by Wuchereria bancrofti (which can lead to elephantiasis) and Toxocara canis (which can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas).
Ivermectin is another antiparasitic drug, but it is used to treat Strongyloides stercoralis infections, which can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the skin has been penetrated by infective larvae.
Metronidazole, on the other hand, is an antibiotic used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, such as gingivitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis. It is not effective in treating threadworms.
Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a seal-like barking cough. His mom is worried as he seems to be struggling with his breathing, especially at night.
On examination, he is alert and engaging, although has mild sternal indrawing and appears tired. His observations are as follows:
Heart rate: 90 bpm
Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
Oxygen saturation: 98% on air
Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
Temperature: 37.2 C°
You suspect croup. What statement best fits this diagnosis?Your Answer: It is more common in autumn
Explanation:Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are an FY1 on the neonatal ward round with your consultant. Whilst seeing a newborn that has been admitted with respiratory distress, the consultant you're with decides to quiz you on the pathophysiology.
'What is the most likely organism to cause respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants?Your Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Correct Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by the parainfluenza virus, while bronchiolitis is commonly caused by RSV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with pseudomonas, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy was hospitalized due to a two-week history of high-grade fever and bleeding gums. Upon examination of his peripheral blood, multiple blasts were observed, some of which displayed Auer rods. Which congenital condition is most strongly linked to this presentation?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
Explanation:Congenital syndromes associated with acute myeloblastic leukemia
Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) can be associated with various congenital syndromes, including severe congenital neutropenia (Kostmann syndrome), Bloom syndrome, Fanconi anemia, Diamond-Blackfan syndrome, neurofibromatosis type 1, and Li Fraumeni syndrome. However, Gardner syndrome, or familial colorectal polyposis, is not linked to AML. Trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome) is a chromosomal abnormality that has a poor prognosis but is not typically associated with AML. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, may increase the risk of breast cancer and germ cell tumors, but the evidence for an association with AML is inconclusive. Haemophilia, a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency in clotting factors, does not predispose to AML or mucosal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 4 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. In boys with this condition, where is the urethral opening most commonly located?
Your Answer: On the distal dorsal surface of the penis
Correct Answer: On the distal ventral surface of the penis
Explanation:The anomaly is typically situated on the underside and frequently towards the end. Urethral openings found closer to the body are a known occurrence. Surgical removal of the foreskin may hinder the process of repairing the defect.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 6-hour-old baby girl is assessed after being born at 37 weeks without any complications. The mother has not reported any issues and breastfeeding has been going smoothly. During the examination, the neonate appears to be in good condition. However, a blood glucose test reveals a reading of 2.0 mmol/L. What is the best course of action at this point?
Your Answer: Encourage continued breastfeeding
Explanation:Dextrose is not the correct treatment option, except in cases where the baby is symptomatic or has extremely low glucose levels.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 16-month-old toddler comes to your primary care clinic after experiencing a seizure. The parents are extremely worried as one of their relatives has epilepsy and they fear that their child may have it too. Upon examination, the child seems alert and has a temperature of 38.4C, which the parents say has been present for four days. They have been giving calpol, which has helped to bring it down from a high of 40.7ºC. You also notice a pink, maculopapular rash on the chest with minimal spread to the limbs, which the mother says she noticed this morning. The child has been eating but has had some diarrhea, and you can feel some enlarged glands on the back of their head. There is no rash in the mouth. Based on your observations, what do you think is the most probable underlying cause of the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Herpes virus 6
Explanation:Herpes virus 6 is responsible for causing Roseola infantum, which is identified by a high fever lasting for 3-5 days followed by a rash that appears on the chest and spreads to the limbs over a period of 2 days. This rash typically emerges as the fever subsides. Kaposi’s sarcoma is linked to Herpes virus 8 and is commonly observed in individuals with AIDS. ‘Slapped cheek syndrome’ is caused by Parvovirus B19, which initiates a rash that starts on the cheeks and then spreads. Group A Streptococcus is known to cause infections of the throat (also known as strep throat) and skin, including cellulitis, erysipelas, and impetigo.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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You are summoned to the delivery room for the forceps delivery of a baby of 37 week gestation who experienced fetal distress during labour. The attending obstetrician passes the baby to you for resuscitation. What is the initial step?
Your Answer: Dry the baby
Explanation:Can you rephrase the algorithm for newborn resuscitation recommended by the UK resuscitation council?
After birth, the first step is to dry the baby, maintain their temperature, and start timing. Next, assess the baby’s tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, open their airway and give five inflation breaths. Then, reassess the heart rate. If there is no increase, check the chest movement to ensure the inflation breaths are adequate. If the chest is not moving, recheck the head position, consider two-person airway control, and repeat the inflation breaths. If the chest is moving but the heart rate is still undetectable or less than 60 beats per minute, start chest compressions at a ratio of 3 compressions to 1 inflation breath (3:1). Reassess the heart rate every 30 seconds, and if it is still undetectable or very slow, consider IV access and drugs.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally unwell, being off food, and bleeding from the back passage. The child's mother reports no nausea or vomiting. On examination, the patient appears distressed and is tender in the right lower quadrant. No masses are felt in the abdomen. Vital signs show a heart rate of 170 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 68/37 mmHg, and temperature of 36.2 ºC. The patient has no known medical conditions or regular medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Appendicitis
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:The patient does not exhibit any of the typical symptoms associated with appendicitis, such as fever, nausea, vomiting, or loss of appetite. While paroxysmal abdominal colic pain is a common feature of many conditions, an underlying pathological cause has not been identified in this case. The child does not display the sudden onset of inconsolable crying episodes or pallor that is often seen in cases of colic. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that causes hamartomatous polyposis, is unlikely given the patient’s age. Cecal volvulus, which is characterized by sudden onset colicky lower abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and a failure to pass flatus or stool, is also an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.
In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.
To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 12-hour-old neonate is evaluated in the neonatal unit after a normal vaginal delivery at 35 weeks' gestation. The mother reports no issues thus far. During the examination, a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur is heard, and a left subclavicular thrill is observed. The neonate has a large-volume collapsing pulse. An echocardiogram is performed, revealing the suspected defect but no other anomalies. What is the most suitable course of action at this point?
Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis based on the examination findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To close the PDA, indomethacin (or ibuprofen) should be given to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Giving prostaglandin E1 would have the opposite effect and maintain the patency of the duct, which is not necessary in this scenario. Simply observing the neonate over time is not appropriate, and routine or urgent surgical referrals are not needed at this stage. First-line management should be to try medical closure of the PDA using indomethacin, which is effective in most cases.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl with several small bruise-like lesions is brought to the emergency department by her father. He reports first noticing these lesions on his daughter's arm when dressing her three days ago, despite no obvious preceding trauma. The bruising does not appear to be spreading.
Notably, the child had mild cough and fever symptoms two weeks ago, though has now recovered.
On examination, the child appears well in herself and is playing with toys. There are 3 small petechiae on the patient's arm. The examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What would be an indication for bone marrow biopsy, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Splenomegaly
Explanation:Bone marrow examination is not necessary for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) unless there are atypical features such as splenomegaly, bone pain, or diffuse lymphadenopathy. ITP is an autoimmune disorder that causes the destruction of platelets, often triggered by a viral illness. Folate deficiency, photophobia, and epistaxis are not indications for bone marrow biopsy in children with ITP. While photophobia may suggest meningitis in a patient with a petechial rash, it does not warrant a bone marrow biopsy. Nosebleeds are common in young children with ITP and do not require a bone marrow biopsy.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.
What is the most concerning finding from the above information?Your Answer: Cannot complete sentences
Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)
Explanation:Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children
When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.
For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are scheduled to see a 12-year-old girl in your clinic. The booking notes indicate that her mother is worried about her daughter's growth compared to her peers. Before the appointment, you quickly review the patient's medical records. The patient's past medical history includes asthma, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and being born prematurely at 35 weeks. The patient is taking methylphenidate, a beclomethasone inhaler during the winter months, and a salbutamol inhaler. The patient's family history shows that both parents are of average height, and a blood test conducted a year ago revealed borderline low ferritin levels. What is the most relevant information for this presentation?
Your Answer: Blood results
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:The most important information in the patient’s records is that he is taking methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, which can lead to stunted growth. Therefore, his height and weight should be monitored every six months. Although corticosteroid inhalers like beclomethasone can also cause growth reduction in children who use them regularly, this is less likely to be relevant in this case since the patient only uses it intermittently. The patient’s blood test results indicating borderline low ferritin levels may suggest a poor diet, which could potentially affect growth, but this was a while ago and limits any conclusions that can be drawn. While familial height can be helpful, it is not as significant as the patient’s medication history, especially since both parents have average heights.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a new rash that has spread all over his body. Upon further inquiry, it is discovered that he had been experiencing a high fever, fatigue, conjunctivitis, and a mild cough for the past four days. During the last week, he had been experiencing these symptoms. Upon examination, the pediatrician notices small white spots on the inside of the boy's cheeks. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Symptoms of Measles
The initial symptoms of measles, known as the prodrome, include a high fever, cough, malaise, conjunctivitis, and coryza. Additionally, the buccal mucosa may develop white punctate lesions, which are referred to as Koplik spots. As the maculopapular cutaneous rash begins to appear, these spots fade away. The rash typically starts on the face and upper neck before spreading to the extremities. These symptoms are considered pathognomonic for measles, and the Koplik spots often disappear as the macular rash becomes more prominent. Overall, recognizing these symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his mother. He is known to have haemophilia B and has fallen while playing basketball. His ankle is very swollen and bruised.
Which of the following would be the best treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Recombinant factor IX
Explanation:Treatment Options for Haemophilia B: Recombinant Factor IX and Cryoprecipitate
Haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is a rare genetic disorder caused by a deficiency in factor IX. While it shares similar inheritance patterns and clinical features with haemophilia A, its incidence is much lower. Treatment for haemophilia B involves factor IX concentrates, with recombinant factor IX being the most commonly used. Prophylactic doses may be given twice a week for patients with severe disease or a history of significant bleeding, but there is a risk of developing inhibitors against the factor.
Cryoprecipitate, on the other hand, does not contain factor IX but rather fibrinogen, von Willebrand’s factor, and factors VIII and XIII. It may be used in certain situations, but it is not a primary treatment for haemophilia B.
It is important to note that recombinant factor VIII is not indicated for haemophilia B, as it is specific to haemophilia A. Similarly, factor XI is not a treatment option for haemophilia B.
While factor IX is a vitamin K-dependent clotting factor, the deficiency in haemophilia B is not caused by a lack of vitamin K. Understanding the appropriate treatment options for haemophilia B is crucial for managing this rare disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked to quickly assess the current APGAR score. The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely. What is the current APGAR score?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl, who has been wetting the bed at night attends surgery today with her grandfather, as her mother is at work. Her grandfather is worried because it was also an issue for her older sister, who is 10-years-old and she is prescribed desmopressin. The girl in front of you is otherwise well and her bowels open regularly. An examination is unremarkable and she has a soft non-tender abdomen.
What recommendations would you make?Your Answer: Reassurance and general advice
Explanation:Reassurance and advice can be provided to manage nocturnal enuresis in children under the age of 5 years.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 7-week old infant has been admitted to the hospital due to concerns from her father about her inability to keep down feeds. The father reports that shortly after being fed, the baby forcefully vomits up uncurdled milk. He is anxious because the baby does not seem to be gaining weight. Based on the probable diagnosis, what metabolic irregularity is the patient expected to exhibit?
Your Answer: Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Pyloric stenosis is the probable diagnosis when a newborn experiences non-bilious vomiting during the first few weeks of life. This condition results in the loss of hydrochloric acid (HCl) from the stomach contents, leading to hypochloremia and potassium loss. The metabolic alkalosis is caused by the depletion of hydrogen ions due to the vomiting of stomach acid.
Understanding Pyloric Stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is a condition that usually occurs in infants between the second and fourth weeks of life. However, in rare cases, it may present later, up to four months. This condition is caused by the thickening of the circular muscles of the pylorus. Pyloric stenosis is more common in males, with an incidence of 4 per 1,000 live births. It is also more likely to affect first-borns and infants with a positive family history.
The most common symptom of pyloric stenosis is projectile vomiting, which usually occurs about 30 minutes after a feed. Other symptoms may include constipation, dehydration, and a palpable mass in the upper abdomen. Prolonged vomiting can lead to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis, which can be life-threatening.
Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is typically made using ultrasound. Management of this condition involves a surgical procedure called Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. This procedure involves making a small incision in the pylorus to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal passage of food. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, infants with pyloric stenosis can make a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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As the F2 in the paediatric clinic, a mother comes in with concerns about her 7-month-old daughter. She shows you a video on her phone of the baby crying, stopping abruptly, drawing her chin into her chest, throwing her arms out, relaxing, and then starting to cry again. This cycle is repeated around 10 times over the course of the minute-long video. The mother also mentions that the child has been referred to the community paediatric clinic due to a slight delay in reaching developmental milestones. What is the most appropriate test for you to order to help confirm your diagnosis?
Your Answer: EEG
Explanation:The child’s distress pattern can help differentiate between infantile spasms and colic. Additionally, the child’s history suggests developmental delay and infantile spasms, making an abdominal x-ray unnecessary. An EEG is necessary to check for hypsarrhythmia, commonly found in West’s syndrome, while genetic testing and MRI of the head and spine are not required.
Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.
Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar neoplasm was identified.
What is the most frequent cerebellar neoplasm in childhood?Your Answer: Astrocytoma
Explanation:Overview of Common Brain Tumors in Children and Adults
Brain tumors can occur in both children and adults, and they can be benign or malignant. Here are some of the most common types of brain tumors:
Cerebellar Astrocytoma: This is a type of glioma that originates from astrocytes, a type of glial cell. It is most commonly found in children and can be benign or malignant. Symptoms include headache, vomiting, and gait disturbances. Diagnosis is made through imaging tests such as CT or MRI scans, and treatment may include radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery.
Glioblastoma Multiforme: This is the most common intracranial tumor in adults and is an aggressive astrocytoma with a poor prognosis. It is resistant to therapy, making treatment difficult.
Ependymoma: This is a glial tumor that arises within the ventricular system or spinal cord. It is the second most common type of pediatric intracranial tumor and is most commonly found in the posterior intracranial fossa. Symptoms depend on the location of the tumor and may include headache, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, nerve palsies, and cerebellar symptoms. Treatment may include surgery and radiotherapy.
Neuroblastoma: This is the most common extracranial tumor in children and is most commonly found in the adrenal glands. Symptoms may include abdominal pain, vomiting, and fatigue. Treatment may include surgery.
Oligodendroglioma: This type of tumor arises in the cerebral white matter and is most commonly found in middle-aged patients. It is rare in children, accounting for only 6% of intracranial pediatric tumors.
In conclusion, brain tumors can present with a variety of symptoms and require prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is presented to his pediatrician for a routine check-up. The pediatrician observes that the neonate's urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, instead of the distal glans penis. What other congenital anomaly is this neonate more likely to have?
Your Answer: Posterior urethral valve
Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:Hypospadias is often accompanied by cryptorchidism in neonates, indicating a potential issue with embryological urogenital migration that may be linked to endocrine disruptions during pregnancy, such as low serum androgens. Imperforate anus, obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus, and posterior urethral valve are not associated with hypospadias and would present with different symptoms or complications.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his father. He has been experiencing a dry cough and runny nose for the past 7 days, along with a 6-day history of fevers up to 38.7ºC that have not responded to paracetamol and ibuprofen.
During the examination, the boy appears generally unwell and unhappy. His tongue is bright red, and there is a maculopapular rash on his trunk. Bilateral conjunctival injection is present, but there is no apparent discharge. Additionally, palpable submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed.
What investigation should be utilized to screen for long-term complications, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:An echocardiogram should be used to screen for coronary artery aneurysms, which are a complication of Kawasaki disease. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, a child must have a fever for at least 5 days and meet 4 out of 5 diagnostic criteria, including oropharyngeal changes, changes in the peripheries, bilateral non purulent conjunctivitis, polymorphic rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. This disease is the most common cause of acquired cardiac disease in childhood, and it is important to exclude coronary artery aneurysms. Echocardiograms are a noninvasive and appropriate screening modality for this complication, as they do not expose the child to ionising radiation. Antistreptolysin O antibody titres, CT coronary angiogram, and ECG are not appropriate screening modalities for coronary artery aneurysms associated with Kawasaki disease.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has been brought to the GP with a 2-day history of fever, malaise, and sore throat. She also has some facial redness that started yesterday evening. On examination, there is flushing of the cheeks and a fine, blanching, erythematosus rash that feels like sandpaper on the anterior aspect of the neck. There is erythema of the tonsils and tongue, without exudate. The GP also notices some erythematosus, non-tender lines in the creases of the elbows. The GP decides to prescribe a 10-day course of antibiotics.
What advice should the mother be given regarding her child's return to school?Your Answer: They can return immediately
Correct Answer: They can return to school 24 hours after taking the first dose of antibiotics
Explanation:If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of taking antibiotics. The symptoms of tonsillopharyngitis (red tonsils and a tongue that looks like a strawberry) and maculopapular exanthem (a rash that feels like sandpaper and lines on the elbows) suggest that the child has scarlet fever. The GP does not need to see the child again because antibiotics should help them recover. However, the child should not go back to school right away because they may still be contagious. The antibiotics will last for 10 days, but the child only needs to wait for 1 day before returning to school. Alternatively, after 7 days, the child will no longer be contagious and can go back to school as usual.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl comes in with a swollen left knee. Her parents mention that she has haemophilia and has received treatment for a haemarthrosis on her right side before. What is the most probable additional condition she may have?
Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Since Haemophilia is a disorder that is recessive and linked to the X chromosome, it is typically only found in males. However, individuals with Turner’s syndrome, who only have one X chromosome, may be susceptible to X-linked recessive disorders.
Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.
In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is admitted to the paediatric ward with suspected Kawasaki disease. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she had a fever lasting for 8 days, dry cracked lips, bilateral conjunctivitis, and peeling of her fingers and toes. What additional symptom would support the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal tenderness
Correct Answer: Cervical lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a rare condition that typically affects children under the age of 5. The diagnosis is based on the presence of a fever lasting for at least 5 days, accompanied by at least 4 of the following symptoms: dry and cracked lips, bilateral conjunctivitis, peeling of the skin on the fingers and toes, cervical lymphadenopathy, and a red rash over the trunk. It is crucial to be aware of the diagnostic criteria for this disease, as the vascular complications can be severe. Additionally, this topic may be tested on final exams.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Correct
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The consultant requests your assessment of a 4-week-old girl in the neonatal ward who was born prematurely at 28 weeks gestation. The infant is thriving, gaining weight appropriately, and appears pink and warm. Oxygen saturation is within normal limits, and lung sounds are clear. During cardiac auscultation, you note a continuous machinery murmur heard over the upper left sternal edge that does not vary with position or radiation. What is the most likely cause of this murmur?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The child in question has an asymptomatic murmur that is not an innocent murmur since it does not vary with position. The continuous machinery murmur heard at the upper left sternal edge is indicative of patent ductus arteriosus, a condition that is most common in premature babies like this one. In utero, the ductus arteriosus is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta that allows blood to bypass the lungs. Normally, it closes within two days after birth.
It’s worth noting that other conditions present differently. For example, pulmonary stenosis is characterized by an ejection systolic murmur over the left upper sternal edge, while coarctation of the aorta presents with a systolic murmur under the left scapula and in the left infraclavicular area.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 5-day-old infant presents with feeding difficulties for the past day. The baby was born at 38 weeks, induced 48 hours after pre-labor spontaneous rupture of membranes. Following observation, there were no concerns and the baby was discharged. The infant is breastfed every 1-2 hours, but over the past 24 hours, has been less interested in feeding, occurring every 3-4 hours, sometimes being woken to feed. The baby appears uncomfortable during feeding and frequently pulls away. The mother also reports an unusual grunting sound after the baby exhales. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neonatal sepsis
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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