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  • Question 1 - A 9-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his doctor complaining of recurrent nosebleeds...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy with coeliac disease visits his doctor complaining of recurrent nosebleeds and easy bruising that has been going on for a month. The doctor recalls that coeliac disease can lead to vitamin K malabsorption and orders a clotting screen.

      Which clotting factor is most likely to decrease in concentration first?

      Your Answer: Factor II

      Correct Answer: Factor VII

      Explanation:

      The first vitamin K dependent factor to decrease in vitamin K deficiency is Factor VII, which also has the shortest half-life among all such factors. Coeliac disease can lead to coagulopathy, which can range from no symptoms to severe bleeding. Malabsorption of vitamin K in the small intestine can cause a depletion of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. It is important to note that patients may not present with severe bleeding until all vitamin K dependent factors have decreased. Factor II and Factor IX are also vitamin K dependent clotting factors, but they have longer half-lives than Factor VII and would not be the answer in this case. Factor V is not a vitamin K dependent clotting factor and is not affected by vitamin K deficiency.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      29
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  • Question 2 - A patient with familial hypercholesterolaemia who is 45 years old is undergoing treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with familial hypercholesterolaemia who is 45 years old is undergoing treatment with high dose nicotinic acid, a derivative of vitamin B3 (niacin).

      What are the primary side effects that can be anticipated with this therapy?

      Your Answer: Muscle aches

      Correct Answer: Flushing

      Explanation:

      The Functions and Uses of Nicotinic Acid

      Nicotinic acid is a medication used to treat dyslipidaemia, a condition characterized by abnormal levels of lipids in the blood. It works by increasing high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDLc) and reducing low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDLc). However, high doses of nicotinic acid can cause flushing, a side effect that can be improved by co-administering laropiprant. On the other hand, niacin deficiency can lead to anxiety, diarrhea, and skin rashes on sun-exposed sites, while muscle aches are common with statins, another group of lipid-lowering agents.

      Aside from its therapeutic uses, nicotinic acid and its derivatives have various functions within the body. It serves as a cofactor in cellular reactions, particularly in the metabolism of fatty acids and steroid hormones. It also acts as an antioxidant, protecting the liver against free radical damage. Moreover, niacin is required for DNA replication and repair, as well as for the synthesis of histone proteins that facilitate DNA storage, replication, and repair. Additionally, niacin plays a role in lipid metabolism and has been used as a lipid-lowering agent. Although poorly understood, niacin may also have a role in the regulation of blood sugar concentrations.

      Overall, nicotinic acid is a versatile medication with various functions and uses in the body. Its therapeutic benefits in dyslipidaemia are significant, but its side effects should also be considered. the different roles of niacin in the body can provide insights into its potential uses in other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.9
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  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old woman is having surgery to remove an adrenal adenoma on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is having surgery to remove an adrenal adenoma on her left side. During the procedure, the superior adrenal artery is damaged and begins to bleed. What is the origin of this vessel?

      Your Answer: Left renal artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior phrenic artery gives rise to the superior adrenal artery.

      Adrenal Gland Anatomy

      The adrenal glands are located superomedially to the upper pole of each kidney. The right adrenal gland is posteriorly related to the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the kidney, medially related to the vena cava, and anteriorly related to the hepato-renal pouch and bare area of the liver. On the other hand, the left adrenal gland is postero-medially related to the crus of the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the pancreas and splenic vessels, and anteriorly related to the lesser sac and stomach.

      The arterial supply of the adrenal glands is through the superior adrenal arteries from the inferior phrenic artery, middle adrenal arteries from the aorta, and inferior adrenal arteries from the renal arteries. The right adrenal gland drains via one central vein directly into the inferior vena cava, while the left adrenal gland drains via one central vein into the left renal vein.

      In summary, the adrenal glands are small but important endocrine glands located above the kidneys. They have a unique blood supply and drainage system, and their location and relationships with other organs in the body are crucial for their proper functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What stage of cellular respiration is responsible for the production of pyruvic acid?...

    Incorrect

    • What stage of cellular respiration is responsible for the production of pyruvic acid?

      Your Answer: Krebs cycle

      Correct Answer: Glycolysis

      Explanation:

      The Versatility of Pyruvic Acid in Cellular Metabolism

      Pyruvic acid is a simple alpha-keto acid that plays a crucial role in several metabolic pathways within the cell. It serves as a central intersection where different pathways converge and diverge. One of the primary ways pyruvic acid is produced is through glycolysis, where glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid. Depending on the cell’s needs, pyruvic acid can be converted back into glucose through gluconeogenesis or used to synthesize fatty acids through the acetyl-CoA pathway. Additionally, pyruvic acid can be used to produce the amino acid alanine.

      Pyruvic acid is also involved in respiration, where it enters the Krebs cycle under aerobic conditions. This cycle produces energy in the form of ATP, which is used by the cell for various functions. Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvic acid can ferment into lactic acid, which is used by some organisms as a source of energy.

      In summary, pyruvic acid is a versatile molecule that plays a critical role in cellular metabolism. Its ability to be converted into different molecules depending on the cell’s needs makes it an essential component of many metabolic pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      24.9
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old man, who has a history of epilepsy, attends a follow-up appointment...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man, who has a history of epilepsy, attends a follow-up appointment at neurology outpatients. He reports experiencing a prodrome of aura before having floaters in his vision and unusual flashes of color during the ictal phase. The patient has no other notable symptoms or medical history. Which region of the brain is linked to the symptoms described by this patient?

      Your Answer: Occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      Occipital lobe seizures are associated with visual disturbances such as floaters and flashes. The cerebellum is not typically associated with epilepsy, although recent research has potentially implicated this area in refractory epilepsy. Seizures in the frontal lobe can cause random hand and leg movements and abnormal posturing, while seizures in the parietal lobe can cause sensory disturbances such as paraesthesia.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which enzyme is likely to be dysfunctional in patients with chronic granulomatous disease,...

    Incorrect

    • Which enzyme is likely to be dysfunctional in patients with chronic granulomatous disease, resulting in their inability to efficiently eliminate bacteria after ingestion by macrophages?

      Your Answer: Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TDT)

      Correct Answer: NADPH oxidase

      Explanation:

      Granulocyte Bacterial Killing Mechanisms

      Granulocytes have a unique way of killing bacteria. Although it is a rare condition, it exemplifies the bacterial killing mechanisms of granulocytes. Once a bacterium is ingested, granulocytes fuse the phagosome with lysosomes that contain proteolytic enzymes. Additionally, they produce oxygen radicals (O2-) that can react with nitric oxide (forming ONOO-), both of which are harmful to bacteria. This process is known as the respiratory burst and utilises the enzyme NADPH oxidase. Patients who have a loss of function of NADPH oxidase are unable to effectively kill bacteria, which leads to the formation of granulomas, sealing off the infection. These patients are immunosuppressed.

      In contrast, a C5-convertase is a complex of proteins involved in the complement cascade. Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the formation of carbonic acid from water and CO2. Lactate dehydrogenase converts pyruvate into lactic acid. TDT is an enzyme that is used to insert mutations into somatic DNA during the formation of the B cell and T cell receptor. Each of these processes has a unique function in the body, but the granulocyte bacterial killing mechanism is particularly fascinating due to its ability to effectively combat bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30
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  • Question 7 - A 78-year-old woman is admitted after a fall and is diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman is admitted after a fall and is diagnosed with a fractured neck of femur. What tests should be ordered to investigate the potential presence of osteoporosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: DXA scan

      Explanation:

      DXA Scanning for Osteoporosis Diagnosis

      DXA scanning is a diagnostic tool commonly used in hospitals to diagnose and monitor osteoporosis. It involves directing two x-rays towards the patient from perpendicular angles to measure density within different parts of the body. This allows for the determination of body composition and bone mineral density.

      The results of a DXA scan are expressed as T and Z scores. The T score represents the number of standard deviations above or below the mean in a population of healthy young adults, while the Z score represents the number of standard deviations above or below the mean in a population of adults matched by age and sex to the patient.

      In younger patients, the T and Z scores are usually similar and close to the mean. However, for older age groups, where more than 50% of people may have osteoporosis, the T score is particularly important for diagnosis. This is because a score based on expected values for an age and sex matched population may under-diagnose osteoporosis in elderly women.

      Overall, DXA scanning is a valuable tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of osteoporosis, especially in older age groups where the risk of osteoporosis is higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10.1
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  • Question 8 - A 24-year-old man is being evaluated at the respiratory clinic for possible bronchiectasis....

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man is being evaluated at the respiratory clinic for possible bronchiectasis. He has a history of recurrent chest infections since childhood and has difficulty maintaining a healthy weight. Despite using inhalers, he has not experienced any significant improvement. Genetic testing has been ordered to investigate the possibility of cystic fibrosis.

      What is the typical role of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator?

      Your Answer: Chloride channel

      Explanation:

      The chloride channel, specifically a cyclic-AMP regulated chloride channel, is the correct answer. Cystic fibrosis can be caused by various mutations, but they all affect the same gene, the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene. This gene encodes a chloride channel that, when dysfunctional, results in increased viscosity of secretions and the development of cystic fibrosis.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. The patient's spirometry results are forwarded to you in clinic for review.

      Tidal volume (TV) = 400 mL.
      Vital capacity (VC) = 3,300 mL.
      Inspiratory capacity (IC) = 2,600 mL.
      FEV1/FVC = 60%

      Body plethysmography is undertaken, demonstrating a residual volume (RV) of 1,200 mL.

      What is this patient's total lung capacity (TLC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4,500 mL

      Explanation:

      To calculate the total lung capacity, one can add the vital capacity and residual volume. For example, if the vital capacity is 3300 mL and the residual volume is 1200 mL, the total lung capacity would be 4500 mL. It is important to note that tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, and the FEV1/FVC ratio are other measurements related to lung function. Residual volume refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation, while total lung capacity refers to the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inhalation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of sudden back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of sudden back pain that causes sharp shooting sensations down his buttocks and the back of his legs. He reports doing some heavy lifting in his garden just before the onset. After conducting a thorough physical examination, you observe a delayed ankle jerk reflex. You suspect that he may have an intervertebral disk prolapse.

      Which level of the spine is most likely affected by this disk prolapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5-S1

      Explanation:

      L5-S1 disk prolapses often result in a delayed ankle reflex, which can also compress the L5 nerve root and cause sciatic nerve pain in the buttocks and posterior legs. On the other hand, the knee jerk reflex is primarily controlled by the L2-L4 segments.

      The ankle reflex is a test that checks the function of the S1 and S2 nerve roots by tapping the Achilles tendon with a tendon hammer. This reflex is often delayed in individuals with L5 and S1 disk prolapses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - A 4-year-old girl presents with developmental delay, craniosynostosis, protruding eyes, gingival hypertrophy, impaired...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents with developmental delay, craniosynostosis, protruding eyes, gingival hypertrophy, impaired enamel formation, kyphoscoliosis, umbilical and inguinal hernias. Genetic testing reveals a detectable mutation in one allele of the GNPTAB gene, indicating mucolipidosis type II. How is the Golgi apparatus affected in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes

      Explanation:

      Mannose-6-phosphate is added by Golgi to proteins to facilitate their transport to lysosomes.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful lump in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful lump in her right groin. Upon examination, a tender swelling is found below and to the side of the pubic tubercle. It exhibits a cough impulse. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Although a saphena varix thrombophlebitis can result in a sensitive bulge in the affected area, it typically does not produce a cough impulse.

      Understanding the Femoral Canal

      The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.

      The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old female patient visits the GP with a concern about her middle...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient visits the GP with a concern about her middle finger's inability to flex at the end. During the examination, it is observed that she cannot bend the distal interphalangeal joint of her middle finger.

      Which muscle is accountable for this movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that the flexor digitorum profundus muscle is responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. The other options, such as the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor pollicis longus, are responsible for different movements and are therefore incorrect. The palmar interossei are also not responsible for flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint. Lastly, there is no such muscle as the flexor digiti medius.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 14 - A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for the past month. She was previously diagnosed with tinnitus by one of your colleagues at the practice 11 months ago. The patient reports that she can hear better when outside but struggles in quiet environments. Upon otoscopy, no abnormalities are found. Otosclerosis is one of the differential diagnoses for this patient, which primarily affects the ossicle that connects to the cochlea. What is the name of the ossicle that attaches to the cochlea at the oval window?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stapes

      Explanation:

      The stapes bone is the correct answer.

      The ossicles are three bones located in the middle ear. They are arranged from lateral to medial and include the malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is the most lateral bone and its handle and lateral process attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible on otoscopy. The head of the malleus articulates with the incus. The stapes bone is the most medial of the ossicles and is also known as the stirrup.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP with blood in her urine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP with blood in her urine for the past 2 days. Her mother reports that this is the first time this has happened to the child, and that the child did not complain of any pain during micturition. The child's medical history is significant for having an episode of fever and pharyngitis four weeks ago, which was associated with a swollen, 'strawberry' tongue and an erythematous sandpapery rash. She was treated with a 10-day course of amoxicillin, which has been successfully completed. The child has recovered entirely from that episode, and did not have any residual symptoms. There is no other known medical conditions or known drug allergies.

      On examination, the GP notes mild periorbital swelling and pedal oedema. An abdominal examination is performed and is unremarkable. Examination of the oral cavity is also unremarkable, and no rashes are noted. The child's blood pressure is 140/95 (normal range: SBP 97-115 mmHg, DBP: 57-76 mmHg) and her temperature is 36.5ºC.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this 6-year-old girl who presents with blood in her urine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is a probable cause of the child’s recent infection, given the symptoms of fever, pharyngitis, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a sandpapery rash. This infection is caused by group A Streptococcus, which can lead to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) as a potential complication. PSGN can present as nephritic syndrome, which is evident in the child’s current symptoms of haematuria, hypertension, and oedema. PSGN typically occurs 10-30 days after the acute infection due to molecular mimicry.

      Another possible cause of nephritic syndrome is IgA nephropathy, which is triggered by an acute infection. However, it usually occurs during or immediately after the acute infection, is more common in males, and peaks in the second to third decade of life.

      While urinary tract infection can cause haematuria, the child’s lack of dysuria and fever makes it unlikely. Additionally, urinary tract infections do not typically cause hypertension or oedema.

      Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) can manifest 1-3 weeks after an upper respiratory tract infection. However, the child does not exhibit other HSP symptoms such as abdominal pain or arthralgia, making it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain. He reports the pain as cramping, with a severity of 6/10, and spread throughout his abdomen. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He used to smoke and has a smoking history of 40 pack years.

      What is the most probable part of the colon affected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis frequently affects the splenic flexure, which is a vulnerable area due to its location at the border of regions supplied by different arteries. Symptoms such as cramping and generalised abdominal pain, along with a history of smoking and hypertension, suggest a diagnosis of ischaemic colitis. While the rectosigmoid junction is also a watershed area, it is less commonly affected than the splenic flexure. Other regions of the large bowel are less susceptible to ischaemic colitis.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old female patient presents with a lump in her groin that appears...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient presents with a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. Upon consultation, it is determined that the hernia is protruding between the pectineal (Cooper's) ligament, lacunar ligament, and femoral vein. What type of hernia is being described by the consultant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral

      Explanation:

      Types of Hernias and their Borders

      Hernias are a medical condition where an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle or tissue. One type of hernia is the Femoral hernia, which protrudes through the femoral canal. This type of hernia is more common in women due to their pelvic structure and childbirth. The femoral ring is narrow, making it more likely for these hernias to become strangulated.

      Another type of hernia is the inguinal hernia, which protrudes through the inguinal canal. Petit’s hernia protrudes through the inferior lumbar triangle, Grynfeltt’s through the superior lumbar triangle, and obturator hernias through the obturator foramen. Each type of hernia has its own unique borders and characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 18 - Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of muscle weakness...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of muscle weakness and blurred vision. She works as a librarian, drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week, and has smoked about 25 cigarettes a day for 35 years.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be elevated at 152/98 mmHg. There are reduced breath sounds over the area of the right lower lobe. Some of her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 120 g/L (Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 420 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 9.1 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Na+ 148 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55-120)
      - 24-hour urine free cortisol 260 ug/l (10-100)
      - Glucose 17.8 mmol/l (4.0-7.0)

      She mentions that, aside from a persistent cough due to smoking, which occasionally produces blood, she feels fine.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A small cell lung carcinoma that secretes ACTH can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, as seen in this patient. The history and examination findings suggest lung cancer, and the raised cortisol level can be explained by the paraneoplastic syndrome caused by ACTH release. Muscle weakness and blurred vision are typical symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome. Squamous cell lung carcinoma and adrenal adenoma are less likely causes, while Cushing’s disease is not applicable in this case.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department accompanied by his wife. According...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department accompanied by his wife. According to her, he has experienced sudden hearing loss and is currently unable to perceive any sounds. A stroke is suspected, and he is sent for an MRI scan which reveals a thalamic lesion.

      Which specific nucleus of the thalamus is most likely affected by the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial geniculate nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hearing impairment can result from damage to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, which is responsible for relaying auditory signals to the cerebral cortex. Similarly, damage to other regions of the thalamus can affect different types of sensory and motor functioning, such as visual loss from damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus, facial sensation from damage to the medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus, and motor functioning from damage to the ventral anterior nucleus.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 20 - At what stage does the sciatic nerve typically divide into the tibial and...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage does the sciatic nerve typically divide into the tibial and common peroneal nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the superior aspect of the popliteal fossa

      Explanation:

      The path of the sciatic nerve begins at the posterior surface of the obturator internus and quadratus femoris, where it descends vertically towards the hamstring compartment of the thigh. As it reaches this area, it is crossed by the long head of biceps femoris. Moving towards the buttock, the nerve is covered by the gluteus maximus. Finally, it splits into its tibial and common peroneal components at the upper part of the popliteal fossa.

      Understanding the Sciatic Nerve

      The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body, formed from the sacral plexus and arising from spinal nerves L4 to S3. It passes through the greater sciatic foramen and emerges beneath the piriformis muscle, running under the cover of the gluteus maximus muscle. The nerve provides cutaneous sensation to the skin of the foot and leg, as well as innervating the posterior thigh muscles and lower leg and foot muscles. Approximately halfway down the posterior thigh, the nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The tibial nerve supplies the flexor muscles, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the extensor and abductor muscles.

      The sciatic nerve also has articular branches for the hip joint and muscular branches in the upper leg, including the semitendinosus, semimembranosus, biceps femoris, and part of the adductor magnus. Cutaneous sensation is provided to the posterior aspect of the thigh via cutaneous nerves, as well as the gluteal region and entire lower leg (except the medial aspect). The nerve terminates at the upper part of the popliteal fossa by dividing into the tibial and peroneal nerves. The nerve to the short head of the biceps femoris comes from the common peroneal part of the sciatic, while the other muscular branches arise from the tibial portion. The tibial nerve goes on to innervate all muscles of the foot except the extensor digitorum brevis, which is innervated by the common peroneal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 21 - A young man in his early twenties collapses during a game of basketball...

    Incorrect

    • A young man in his early twenties collapses during a game of basketball and is declared dead upon arrival at the hospital. The autopsy shows irregularities in his heart. What is the probable cause of the irregularities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      The condition that is most commonly associated with sudden death is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, making the other options less likely.

      Symptoms of acute myocarditis may include chest pain, fever, palpitations, tachycardia, and difficulty breathing.

      Dilated cardiomyopathy may cause right ventricular failure, leading to symptoms such as difficulty breathing, pulmonary edema, and atrial fibrillation.

      Restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis have similar presentations, with right heart failure symptoms such as elevated JVP, hepatomegaly, edema, and ascites being predominant.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward and tests positive for...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward and tests positive for influenzae A. He is taking immunosuppressants following a liver transplant he underwent 2 years ago. The doctor prescribes him oseltamivir to try and reduce his viral load, aiding recovery.

      What is the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits viral neuraminidase

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir prevents replication of influenzae A and B viruses by inhibiting viral neuraminidase, an enzyme that alters the glycoproteins on the surface of an infected cell to enable the release of more viral particles. It is not an antiviral that works by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase, unlike foscarnet and acyclovir. Interferon-α is used to treat chronic hepatitis B and C by inhibiting mRNA synthesis. Ribavirin interferes with the capping of the viral mRNA by inhibiting specific dehydrogenase enzymes. Amantadine, an antiviral, can be used in Parkinson’s disease as well as influenzae, as it has a secondary action of releasing dopamine from nerve endings, but this action does not reduce viral load.

      Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.

      In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 23 - A 4-year-old girl presented with seizures and loss of consciousness. Magnetic resonance imaging...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presented with seizures and loss of consciousness. Magnetic resonance imaging of her head showed lipotoxicity-induced diffuse neuroinflammatory demyelination. Laboratory testing revealed high levels of cerotic acid, a very long-chain fatty acid, confirming the diagnosis of X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy.

      What is the most likely affected area in this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peroxisomes

      Explanation:

      The breakdown of long chain fatty acids is carried out by peroxisomes, specifically through the process of β-oxidation, which is the only way to metabolize very long-chain fatty acids with a carbon chain length of 22 or more.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 24 - A mother brings her 3-day-old baby for a physical examination. She experienced complications...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-day-old baby for a physical examination. She experienced complications during delivery as her son's right shoulder was stuck behind her pubic bone, causing a delay in the birth of his body. Upon examination, you observe that his right arm is hanging by his side, rotated medially, and his forearm is extended and pronated. What nerve roots are likely to be affected based on this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5-C6

      Explanation:

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis can occur due to damage to the C5,6 roots, which is likely the case for this baby who experienced shoulder dystocia during delivery.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the brachial plexus’ medial cord (C8, T1). If damaged at the wrist, it can result in claw hand, where the 4th and 5th digits experience hyperextension at the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints.

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the brachial plexus’ posterior cord (C5-T1). Damage to this nerve can cause wrist drop.

      T1 damage can lead to Klumpke paralysis, which causes the forearm to remain supinated with extended wrists. The fingers are unable to abduct or adduct, and they are flexed at the interphalangeal joints.

      The median nerve is formed by the lateral and medial roots of the brachial plexus’ lateral (C5-7) and medial (C8, T1) cords. If damaged at the wrist, it can cause carpal tunnel syndrome, which results in paralysis and atrophy of the thenar eminence muscles and opponens pollicis. Additionally, there is sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.

      On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.

      It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 25 - A 36/40 primigravida woman arrives at the Emergency Department in labour and expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 36/40 primigravida woman arrives at the Emergency Department in labour and expresses her worry about being exposed to cat litter during pregnancy. She has heard that it can have an impact on the baby. Following delivery, the infant is diagnosed with congenital toxoplasmosis. What is one clinical manifestation of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral calcification

      Explanation:

      Most cases of intracerebral hemorrhage are linked to chronic arterial hypertension, while other risk factors include bleeding disorders and recent head trauma. It is incorrect to associate macrosomia with congenital toxoplasmosis, as the latter is associated with intrauterine growth retardation rather than an unusually large body for a neonate. Macrosomia is instead linked to maternal diabetes and other conditions.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 26 - Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marginal mandibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The depressor anguli oris and depressor labii inferioris muscles are supplied by the marginal mandibular nerve, which is located beneath the platysma muscle. Damage to this nerve can result in facial asymmetry and drooling.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 27 - A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports that he bleeds excessively whenever he gets a cut on his limbs. He has a past medical history of familial hypercholesterolaemia. His body mass index is 31 kg/m2. He does not have a medical history of bleeding disorders and denies a family history of haemophilia.

      During his last visit, his lipid profile showed elevated total cholesterol, elevated LDL and low HDL. He was prescribed a medication to help lower his LDL cholesterol.

      What medication was he most likely prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestyramine

      Explanation:

      Cholestyramine has the potential to decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin A, D, E, and K. Vitamin K is particularly important for the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and a deficiency in this vitamin can result in clotting abnormalities.

      Clomiphene is a medication used to stimulate ovulation in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), and it is not linked to an elevated risk of bleeding.

      Psyllium husk is not known to cause any bleeding disorders.

      Cholestyramine: A Medication for Managing High Cholesterol

      Cholestyramine is a medication used to manage high levels of cholesterol in the body. It works by reducing the reabsorption of bile acid in the small intestine, which leads to an increase in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acid. This medication is particularly effective in reducing LDL cholesterol levels. In addition to its use in managing hyperlipidaemia, cholestyramine is also sometimes used to treat diarrhoea following bowel resection in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      However, cholestyramine is not without its adverse effects. Some patients may experience abdominal cramps and constipation while taking this medication. It can also decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies if not properly managed. Additionally, cholestyramine may increase the risk of developing cholesterol gallstones and raise the level of triglycerides in the blood. Therefore, it is important for patients to discuss the potential benefits and risks of cholestyramine with their healthcare provider before starting this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 33-year-old female patient complained of pain and bleeding during sexual intercourse. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female patient complained of pain and bleeding during sexual intercourse. Upon referral to colposcopy, she was diagnosed with cervical cancer. The doctor informed her that she would need to undergo surgery to remove the tumour and also remove the lymph nodes that drain the cervix.

      Which group of lymph nodes is the doctor referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes

      Explanation:

      The cervix primarily drains into the internal iliac lymph nodes. The deep inguinal lymph nodes do not drain the cervix, but they do drain the clitoris and glans penis. The external iliac lymph nodes are not significantly involved in the lymphatic drainage of the cervix, but they do play a role in the drainage of the bladder fundus, prostate, and adductor region of the thigh. The para-aortic nodes drain the ovaries, but not the cervix. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes are not involved in the drainage of the cervix, but they are important in the drainage of the anal canal (below the pectinate line), scrotum, and perineum.

      Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.

      The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.

      Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 29 - You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction due to a previous myocardial infarction.

      Starling's Law of the Heart states that:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As preload progressively increases, stroke volume increases gradually then decreases suddenly

      Explanation:

      Starling’s Law of the Heart states that as preload increases, stroke volume also increases gradually, up to a certain point. However, beyond this point, stroke volume decreases due to overloading of the cardiac muscle fibers. Therefore, the higher the cardiac preload, the greater the stroke volume, but only up to a certain limit.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old man presents with crushing central chest pain and flushing. His ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with crushing central chest pain and flushing. His ECG shows T wave inversion in II, III, and AVF, and his troponin T level is 0.9 ng/ml (normal <0.01). What is the substance that troponin T binds to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      The binding of troponin T to tropomyosin results in the formation of a troponin-tropomyosin complex. The clinical and electrographic characteristics suggest the presence of an inferior myocardial infarction, which is confirmed by the elevated levels of troponin. Troponin T is highly specific to myocardial damage. On the other hand, troponin C binds to calcium ions and is released by damage to both skeletal and cardiac muscle, making it an insensitive marker for myocardial necrosis. Troponin I binds to actin and helps to maintain the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place. It is also specific to myocardial damage. Myosin is the thick component of muscle fibers, and actin slides along myosin to generate muscle contraction. The sarcoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of calcium ions in the cytoplasm of striated muscle cells.

      Understanding Troponin: The Proteins Involved in Muscle Contraction

      Troponin is a group of three proteins that play a crucial role in the contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscles. These proteins work together to regulate the interaction between actin and myosin, which is essential for muscle contraction. The three subunits of troponin are troponin C, troponin T, and troponin I.

      Troponin C is responsible for binding to calcium ions, which triggers the contraction of muscle fibers. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin, forming a complex that helps regulate the interaction between actin and myosin. Finally, troponin I binds to actin, holding the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place and preventing muscle contraction when it is not needed.

      Understanding the role of troponin is essential for understanding how muscles work and how they can be affected by various diseases and conditions. By regulating the interaction between actin and myosin, troponin plays a critical role in muscle contraction and is a key target for drugs used to treat conditions such as heart failure and skeletal muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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Clinical Sciences (1/3) 33%
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Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
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