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  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old child has been referred by their GP due to chronic constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child has been referred by their GP due to chronic constipation that is not responding to treatment. What specific details in the child's medical history could suggest a possible diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease?

      Your Answer: Family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)

      Correct Answer: Passage of meconium at day 3

      Explanation:

      When a baby has difficulty passing stool, it may be a sign of Hirschsprung’s disease, a condition where nerve cells in the colon are missing. This disease is more common in males and can be diagnosed through a biopsy. It is important to note that not all babies with delayed passage have this disease. Hirschsprung’s disease can also present in later childhood, so it is important to ask about the timing of symptoms in children with chronic constipation or obstruction. This disease is associated with MEN 2A/B, not MEN1, and meconium ileus is a common differential. Pyloric stenosis is associated with non-bilious vomiting, while a temperature is not a factor in suggesting Hirschsprung’s disease.

      Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.

      Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.

      Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.

      Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.

      Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.

      Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman with a T4N0M0 primary triple-negative breast carcinoma is attending a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a T4N0M0 primary triple-negative breast carcinoma is attending a pre-operative breast oncology clinic. The oncologist recommends neo-adjuvant chemotherapy (NACT) as a beneficial course of treatment. What should the patient be informed of when considering whether to undergo NACT?

      Your Answer: NACT can downsize the primary tumour, meaning that breast conserving surgery can be performed instead of a mastectomy

      Explanation:

      One of the main reasons for considering neo-adjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer treatment is to shrink the size of the tumor before surgery. This can potentially allow for breast conserving surgery instead of a mastectomy, which has several benefits. Firstly, it is a less invasive surgical procedure, reducing the risks associated with surgery. Additionally, it can lead to better cosmetic outcomes for the patient.

      It is important to note that both NACT and surgery have their own set of side effects, which cannot be compared with each other. However, there is an exciting new area of breast cancer research that focuses on immunomodulation. Some trials have shown that anti-tumor immunity can be induced following cryoablation/radiotherapy and administration of immunomodulating drugs. Unfortunately, NACT does not have this effect.

      One common side effect of NACT is nausea. The effect of NACT on overall survival rates has been mixed, but its main indication remains downsizing of the primary tumor.

      Reference:
      Nice guideline NG101 (2018).

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued from a fire in his home by firefighters. He has extensive burns across most of his torso and lower limbs; however, on assessment, his airway is patent and he currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11. Paramedics have already been able to gain bilateral wide-bore access in both antecubital fossae. He weighs approximately 90 kg, and estimates from the paramedics are that 55% of his body is covered by burns, mostly second-degree, but with some areas of third-degree burns. His observations are:
      Temperature 36.2 °C
      Blood pressure 102/73 mmHg
      Heart rate 112 bpm
      Saturations 96% on room air
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
      What would be the most appropriate initial method of fluid resuscitation?

      Your Answer: Maintenance fluids based on the Parkland formula

      Correct Answer: Hartmann’s 2 litre over 1 h

      Explanation:

      Fluid Management in Burn Patients: Considerations for Initial Resuscitation and Maintenance

      Burn patients require careful fluid management to replace lost fluid volume and electrolytes. In the initial resuscitation phase, it is important to administer fluids rapidly, with warm intravenous fluids considered to minimize heat loss. Accurate fluid monitoring and titration to urine output is vital. While colloids such as Gelofusin may be used, crystalloids like Hartmann’s or normal saline are preferred. Maintenance fluids should be based on the modified Parkland formula, with electrolyte losses in mind. However, in the initial phase, replacing lost fluid volume takes priority over maintenance fluids based on oral intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to an acute psychiatric unit with sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to an acute psychiatric unit with sudden onset of agitation and psychosis. He has a history of schizophrenia with a fluctuating course. To alleviate his symptoms, he is given a one-time intramuscular injection of 50 mg chlorpromazine. What is the primary pharmacological effect of chlorpromazine in managing psychosis?

      Your Answer: Dopaminergic blockade in the mesolimbic system

      Explanation:

      Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic drug that acts on many neurotransmitter systems, but it’s antipsychotic properties come from its action on dopaminergic neurotransmission in the mesolimbic system. However, blocking dopamine transmission can also cause extrapyramidal side effects of movement and hyperprolactinemia. The drug’s anticholinergic actions cause dry mouth, urinary retention, palpitations, tachycardia, abnormal dreams, and hypotension. Inhibition of serotonergic neurotransmission can attenuate the anticholinergic side effects and inhibit aggressive tendencies and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is seen by the General Practitioner (GP). She has been unwell with coryzal symptoms for two days and has fever. She has been eating a little less than usual but drinking plenty of fluids and having her normal amount of wet nappies. Her mother reports that she had an episode of being unresponsive and her limbs were jerking while in the waiting room that lasted about 30 seconds. On examination, following the episode, she is alert, without signs of focal neurology. Her temperature is 38.9 °C, heart rate 120 bpm and capillary refill time < 2 seconds. She has moist mucous membranes. There is no sign of increased work of breathing. Her chest is clear. She has cervical lymphadenopathy; her throat is red, but no exudate is present on her tonsils. She has clear, thick nasal discharge, and both her tympanic membranes are inflamed, but not bulging. Which of the following is most likely to indicate that the child can be managed safely at home?

      Your Answer: First febrile convulsion for this child

      Correct Answer: Seizure/convulsion lasted for < 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      When to Seek Urgent Medical Attention for Febrile Convulsions in Children

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in response to a high body temperature in children aged between six months and three years. While most febrile convulsions are harmless and do not require urgent medical attention, there are certain red flag features that parents should be aware of. If any of the following features are present, urgent hospital admission is necessary:

      – Children aged less than 18 months
      – Diagnostic uncertainty
      – Convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes
      – Focal features during the seizure
      – Recurrence of convulsion during the same illness or in the last 24 hours
      – Incomplete recovery one hour after the convulsion
      – No focus of infection identified
      – Examination findings suggesting a serious cause for fever such as pneumonia
      – Child currently taking antibiotics, with a clear bacterial focus of infection

      It is important to note that a first febrile convulsion in a child is also an indication for urgent hospital admission. If a child less than six months or over three years experiences a seizure not associated with fever, it may be due to an underlying neurological condition and require further specialist investigation. Parents should be aware of these red flag features and seek medical attention promptly if they are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      74.7
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  • Question 6 - A new test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is trialled in a...

    Correct

    • A new test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is trialled in a high-prevalence HIV population. Sensitivity is found to be 90%, and specificity 94%. The test is then used in a population with a low prevalence of HIV.
      Which one of the following statements about the test is correct?

      Your Answer: The negative predictive value will be lower in the high-prevalence population

      Explanation:

      Impact of Disease Prevalence on Test Accuracy: Explained

      The accuracy of a medical test is influenced by various factors, including disease prevalence in the population being tested. In a high-prevalence population, the negative predictive value of a test will be lower as fewer people will have a negative test result. However, the sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain similar in different populations assuming the test has been rigorously evaluated. The positive predictive value will also be lower in a high-prevalence population unless the sensitivity and specificity of the test are both 100%. Therefore, it is important to consider disease prevalence when interpreting the accuracy of a medical test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      90.7
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  • Question 7 - A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents...

    Correct

    • A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
      eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 78 g/l
      Males: 135–175 g/l
      Females: 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      119
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents at 28 weeks’ gestation with a 3-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency and mild lower abdominal pain. A urine dipstick was performed, showing 2+ blood, and is positive for nitrites. There is no glycosuria or proteinuria. The patient has previously had an allergic reaction to trimethoprim.
      What is the most appropriate antibiotic for treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Urinary Tract Infections in Pregnancy: A Guide

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in pregnancy and require prompt treatment to prevent complications. When choosing an antibiotic, it is important to consider its safety for both the mother and the developing fetus. Here is a guide to some commonly used antibiotics for UTIs in pregnancy.

      Nitrofurantoin: This is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE guidelines for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use, but should be avoided near term as it can cause neonatal haemolysis. It should also not be used during breastfeeding. Side-effects may include agranulocytosis, arthralgia, anaemia, chest pain and diarrhoea.

      Erythromycin: This antibiotic is not routinely used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is considered safe for both mother and fetus.

      cephalexin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is licensed as second-line treatment for UTIs in pregnancy. It is safe to use and has no documented fetal complications.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic is not used for UTIs in pregnancy, but is safe for both mother and fetus.

      Trimethoprim: This antibiotic is no longer recommended for UTIs in pregnancy due to its interference with folate metabolism. If no other options are available, it can be given with increased folate intake.

      Remember to always consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      50.4
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  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with severe Raynaud's phenomenon and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with severe Raynaud's phenomenon and finger arthralgia. Upon examination, you observe tight and shiny skin on her fingers, as well as several telangiectasia on her upper torso and face. She is also awaiting a gastroscopy for heartburn investigation. Which antibody is the most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-Scl-70 antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most specific test for limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis among patients with systemic sclerosis is the anti-centromere antibodies.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old male is recovering on the ward after being admitted with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male is recovering on the ward after being admitted with a community acquired pneumonia. He has completed a course of antibiotics and his latest chest radiograph is clear. He is currently waiting for social services input before discharge. During the morning ward round, the patient reports new symptoms of muscle pain, weakness, and fatigue. He feels nauseous and has vomited once this morning. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis, gout, type 2 diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, atrial fibrillation, and an appendectomy as a child. He is currently taking regular paracetamol, allopurinol, metformin, simvastatin, bisoprolol, and warfarin.

      Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 25/min, blood pressure is 131/85 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, and temperature is 36.4ºC. Recent blood tests show:
      - Na+ 140 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      - Urea 12 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 190 µmol/l
      - eGFR 26 ml/min
      - Creatine kinase 174 iu/l (normal range 25-195 iu/l)
      - CRP 12 mg/l

      A recent arterial blood gas (ABG) shows:
      - pH 7.29
      - pO2 12.1 kPa
      - pCO2 4.4 kPa
      - Bicarbonate 18 mmol/l

      What is the most likely cause of these symptoms and investigation results?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, although it is a rare occurrence. Patients with impaired renal function are at a higher risk of developing this side-effect. NICE recommends that patients with an eGFR<45 ml/min should have their dose reviewed, and those with an eGFR<30 ml/min should stop taking metformin altogether. In this case, the patient has an eGFR<30 ml/min and is experiencing symptoms of metabolic acidosis, which is consistent with lactic acidosis. The ABG results also support this diagnosis.
      While statins can cause rhabdomyolysis, which can result in muscle pain, the patient’s normal creatinine kinase levels make this unlikely. Additionally, rhabdomyolysis does not explain the abnormal ABG results.
      The other options are not consistent with the patient’s presentation or blood results.
      Source: NICE NG 28

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      468.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to lower her blood pressure. However, she stopped taking the medication due to reported dizziness. Her blood pressure readings usually run at 150/100 mmHg. She denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, leg swelling, or visual problems. She has a history of occasional migraines but no other medical conditions. She has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits, other than high blood pressure. The S1 and S2 sounds are normal. There is no S3 or S4 sound, murmur, rub, or gallop. The peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. The serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride), creatinine, and urea nitrogen are within normal range. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      The best medication for the patient in the scenario would be indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that blocks the Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Common side-effects include hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout, postural hypotension and hypochloraemic alkalosis.

      Prazosin is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia.

      Enalapril is not preferred for patients over 55 years old and can increase osteoporosis risk.

      Propranolol is not a preferred initial treatment for hypertension, and amlodipine can cause ankle swelling and should be avoided in patients with myocardial infarction and symptomatic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      286
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with seizures. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the emergency department with seizures. He has a history of bipolar disorder and migraines. His medications include lithium, amitriptyline and paracetamol. His partner reports he has recently been using ibuprofen regularly over the counter.

      On examination, he is postictal and appears dehydrated. Blood results reveal elevated levels of sodium, potassium, urea, creatinine, and lithium. Resuscitation is initiated with intravenous 0.9% normal saline.

      What is the definitive management for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      In cases of mild to moderate lithium poisoning where patients exhibit non-specific symptoms like restlessness and apathy, intravenous normal saline may be enough for treatment.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.1
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  • Question 13 - A 39-year-old male patient with a medical history of Marfan's syndrome presents to...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old male patient with a medical history of Marfan's syndrome presents to the Emergency department with a sudden tearing pain in his chest that spreads to his back. He also reports experiencing left-sided weakness and difficulty speaking coherently. Based on these symptoms, you suspect a dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm. Which artery is most likely to be affected by the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic trunk

      Explanation:

      Aortic aneurysms are caused by degeneration of collagen and elastic tissue in the media, often in patients with hypertension or collagen diseases. Aortic dissection is classified by the DeBakey or Stanford systems, with Stanford type A being the most common. The brachiocephalic trunk is the first and largest branch of the aortic arch, and is the most likely artery to be involved in an aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      50.8
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  • Question 14 - A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old baby to clinic for a check-up. His prior medical history has been unremarkable and his immunisations are up-to-date. The mother is concerned about his growth. After you determine that the baby has grown appropriately since the last visit and is unchanged from the 50th centile, you provide the mother with advice regarding growth.
      What signalling pathway does growth hormone (GH) use?

      Your Answer: A tyrosine kinase receptor that uses the JAK/STAT pathway

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Second Messenger Systems and Receptor Types in Hormonal Signaling

      Hormones utilize various signaling pathways to transmit their messages to target cells. One important aspect of hormonal signaling is the use of second messengers, which relay the hormone signal from the cell surface to the intracellular environment. Here, we compare and contrast the second messenger systems and receptor types used by different hormones.

      Growth hormone (GH) and prolactin both use the tyrosine kinase receptor, followed by activation of Janus kinase (JAK), signal transduction, and activation of transcription (STAT). In contrast, platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), fibroblast growth factor (FGF), insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), and insulin use the MAP kinase or RAS system. Aldosterone uses steroid receptors, while GH uses the tyrosine kinase receptor.

      Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) works as a second messenger for hypothalamic hormones such as gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), and pituitary hormones such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin.

      Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) is a second messenger that activates protein kinases and mediates endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), and nitric oxide.

      Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a second messenger of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and several other hormones, but not GH.

      In summary, different hormones use distinct second messenger systems and receptor types to transmit their signals, highlighting the complexity and diversity of hormonal signaling pathways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      61.2
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis after presenting with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis after presenting with a six-month history of back pain. Upon examination, there is limited lateral flexion of the spine but no other complications are evident. What is the most probable first-line treatment that he will be offered?

      Your Answer: Exercise regime + NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old woman presents with complaints of abdominal swelling, vomiting, and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents with complaints of abdominal swelling, vomiting, and weight loss that have been progressively worsening over the past 6 months. She has a 30-year history of smoking. Imaging reveals bilateral ovarian tumors and a mass in the stomach. A biopsy taken during gastroscopy confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What histological characteristics are expected in the ovarian masses?

      Your Answer: Transitional cells

      Correct Answer: Signet ring cells

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Ovarian Tumours and their Histological Features

      Ovarian tumours can be classified into various types based on their histological features. Here are some examples:

      Krukenberg tumours:
      These are secondary tumours that originate from the gastrointestinal tract and metastasize to the ovaries. They are characterized by the presence of signet ring cells.

      Fibromas:
      These are benign ovarian tumours that can cause Meigs’ syndrome. They contain spindle-shaped fibroblasts.

      Granulosa cell tumours:
      These are ovarian tumours that are most commonly seen in the first few decades of life. They contain Call-Exner bodies, which are follicles containing eosinophils.

      Brenner tumours:
      These are benign ovarian tumours that contain transitional cells.

      Mucinous cystadenomas:
      These are benign ovarian tumours that contain cells that resemble endocervical cells. However, if the tumour is malignant, it may not have this characteristic feature.

      In conclusion, the histological features of ovarian tumours can provide important clues about their origin and potential malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      88.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary tract infection. She has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), for which she takes inhalers. Her abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) was 8/10 on admission. A midstream urine sample was sent for microbiology and the report indicates a pure growth of Escherichia coli sensitive to trimethoprim and co-amoxiclav. After receiving 48 hours of intravenous co-amoxiclav, she is now on appropriate oral antibiotic therapy.
      You are called to the ward at 0100 h as Mrs Johnson is increasingly agitated and confused. She now has an AMTS of 2/10 and is refusing to stay in bed. Her vital signs are normal, and respiratory, cardiovascular, abdominal and neurological examinations reveal some fine crepitations at both lung bases, but no other abnormality. Her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 14.
      What is the most appropriate next management option?

      Your Answer: Prescribe haloperidol 1 mg intramuscular (im) to help Mrs Smith to settle

      Correct Answer: Advise nursing in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Delirium in Mrs Smith: Nursing in a Well-Lit Environment with Frequent Reassurance and Reorientation

      Acute delirium is a common condition that can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, metabolic problems, hypoxia, intracranial vascular insults, and toxins. When assessing a patient with acute delirium, it is crucial to exclude life-threatening or reversible causes through a thorough history, clinical examination, and appropriate investigations.

      In the case of Mrs Smith, who has new confusion with preserved consciousness, there is no evidence of acute clinical illness, and she is receiving appropriate treatment for a urinary tract infection. Therefore, the most appropriate management is to nurse her in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation. Sedating medication, such as lorazepam or haloperidol, should only be considered as a last resort if the patient is at risk of harm due to delirium.

      It is not necessary to arrange an urgent CT head or a full septic screen unless there are specific indications. Instead, optimizing the patient’s environment can help resolve delirium and improve outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute delirium in patients like Mrs Smith.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2...

    Correct

    • As a paediatrician, you are reviewing a 1-month-old who was delivered at 39+2 weeks vaginally and without any complications. The parents of the child have a concern that their child might have achondroplasia as the child's father has been diagnosed with this condition. Apart from measuring the child's length, what other physical characteristic should you look for to determine if the child has achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: Trident hand deformity

      Explanation:

      Identifying physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for exam purposes and diagnosis. One such feature of achondroplasia is trident hands, characterized by short, stubby fingers with a gap between the middle and ring fingers. Other physical features include short limbs (rhizomelia), lumbar lordosis, and midface hypoplasia. Fragile X syndrome is associated with low set ears, while Down’s syndrome is characterized by saddle-gap deformity and a single palmar crease. It is important to note that achondroplasia is characterized by macrocephaly with frontal bossing, not microcephaly.

      Understanding Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.

      In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.

      Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old diabetic man is scheduled for an elective incision and drainage of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic man is scheduled for an elective incision and drainage of a groin abscess in the day surgery unit. He is typically well-managed on metformin. How should his diabetic control be managed during this procedure?

      Your Answer: Commence variable rate insulin infusion on the day of surgery

      Correct Answer: Continue her normal regimen

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely that this patient, who is a diabetic taking oral medication, will require a sliding scale regimen for an incision and drainage procedure, unless it is a major surgery. In the case of significant surgery, the patient would typically be admitted the night before and put on a variable rate infusion. It is generally not recommended to postpone surgery unless there are significant reasons to do so. As this is likely to be a day case surgery, the patient can continue taking their regular metformin medication.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has suddenly become very unwell in the space of 10–15 minutes and is struggling to breathe. The nurse tells you he is on intravenous (IV) antibiotics for this exacerbation and has been on the ward for a few days.
      Which one of the following would be the most concerning observation after assessing this patient?

      Your Answer: Temperature 37.9 °C

      Correct Answer: Left-sided pleuritic chest pain

      Explanation:

      Assessing Symptoms and Vital Signs in a Patient with COPD Exacerbation

      When evaluating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing an infective exacerbation, it is important to consider their symptoms and vital signs. Left-sided pleuritic chest pain is a concerning symptom that may indicate pneumothorax, which requires urgent attention. However, it is common for COPD patients with exacerbations to be on non-invasive ventilation (NIV), which is not necessarily alarming. A slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate may also be expected in this context. An increased antero-posterior (AP) diameter on X-ray is a typical finding in COPD patients due to hyperinflated lungs. A borderline fever is also common in patients with infective exacerbations of COPD. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of symptoms and vital signs is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      82.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A father and his 6-year-old daughter visit your Child and Adolescent Mental Health...

    Incorrect

    • A father and his 6-year-old daughter visit your Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS) clinic, as she has recently been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). The father has already attended an educational program on ADHD and is feeling overwhelmed as his daughter's behavior is difficult to manage at home. He has heard that medication may be helpful. Based on previous interventions, what would be the next most suitable treatment for her ADHD?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      Methylphenidate is the recommended initial treatment for ADHD.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old retired librarian presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a feeling...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old retired librarian presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a feeling of fullness in her vagina. She states that this feeling is present at all times. On further questioning she also has a 1-year history of urinary frequency and has been treated for urinary tract infections in two instances in the past year. She has never smoked and is teetotal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cystocele

      Explanation:

      Common Vaginal Conditions: Symptoms and Management

      Cystocele: A weakening of pelvic muscles can cause the bladder to prolapse into the vagina, resulting in stress incontinence, frequent urinary tract infections, and a dragging sensation or lump in the vagina. Management ranges from conservative with pelvic floor exercises to surgery.

      Rectocele: Women with a rectocele experience pressure and a lump in the vagina, as well as difficulty with bowel movements. Treatment may involve pelvic floor exercises or surgery.

      Bartholin cyst: A blocked Bartholin gland can lead to a cyst that presents as a tender mass in the vaginal wall. Treatment involves incision and drainage, as well as antibiotics.

      Vaginal cancer: Symptoms include vaginal or postcoital bleeding, vaginal discharge, and persistent pelvic pain.

      Bladder cancer: Painless hematuria is a common symptom, with risk factors including smoking, working in the aniline dye industry, or previous infection with Schistosoma haematobium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke. He was prescribed multiple new medications during his hospitalization. He complains of experiencing diarrhea. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin is the Most Likely Medication to Cause Gastrointestinal Disturbances

      When it comes to medications that can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, there are several options to consider. However, out of all the medications listed, metformin is the most likely culprit. While all of the medications can cause issues in the digestive system, metformin is known for causing more frequent and severe symptoms. It is important to be aware of this potential side effect when taking metformin and to speak with a healthcare provider if symptoms become too severe. By the potential risks associated with metformin, patients can make informed decisions about their treatment options and take steps to manage any gastrointestinal disturbances that may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman fell off her horse while horse-riding and is now experiencing severe foot pain. Her foot was trapped in the stirrup during the fall. An x-ray revealed displacement of her second and third metatarsal from the tarsus. What is the name of this injury?

      Your Answer: Jones Fracture

      Correct Answer: Lisfranc Injury

      Explanation:

      Common Foot Injuries and Their Characteristics

      Lisfranc injury is a type of foot injury that occurs when one or more metatarsal bones are displaced from the tarsus. This injury is usually caused by excessive kinetic energy being placed on the midfoot, such as in a traffic collision. There are two types of Lisfranc injuries: direct and indirect. A direct injury occurs when the foot is crushed by a heavy object, while an indirect injury occurs when there is sudden rotational force on a plantar flexed foot.

      March fracture is another common foot injury that is caused by repetitive stress on the distal third of one of the metatarsal bones. This injury is often seen in soldiers and hikers who walk long distances. The onset of foot pain is gradual and progressive, and there is often trauma associated with it.

      Hallux Rigidus is a degenerative arthritis that causes bone spurs at the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe, making it painful and stiff. Jones fracture is a fracture in the meta-diaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal of the foot. Proximal fifth metatarsal avulsion fracture is caused by forcible inversion of the foot in plantar flexion, such as when stepping on a kerb or climbing steps.

      These different foot injuries have their own unique characteristics and causes. these injuries can help individuals take preventative measures to avoid them and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with signs of pneumonia....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with signs of pneumonia. Upon examination, a right middle lobe pneumonia is detected on his chest X-ray. Where is the optimal location to auscultate breath sounds from the affected lobe?

      Your Answer: Posteriorly, just to the right of the midline

      Correct Answer: Mid-axillary line, 5th intercostal space

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are divided into lobes by the pleura, with the right lung having three lobes and the left lung having two. The lobes are separated by the oblique and horizontal fissures. The oblique fissure separates the inferior and superior lobes and runs from the spine of T3 to the sixth rib. The horizontal fissure is only present in the right lung and separates the superior and middle lobes. It starts in the oblique fissure near the back of the lung and runs horizontally forward, cutting the front border at the level of the fourth costal cartilage.

      Auscultation of the lungs is similar on both sides of the posterior chest wall, with the lower two-thirds corresponding to the inferior lobes and the upper third corresponding to the superior lobe. On the anterior chest wall, the area above the nipples corresponds to the superior lobes, with the apices being audible just above the clavicles. The area below the nipples corresponds to the inferior lobes. The middle lobe of the right lung is the smallest and is wedge-shaped, including the lower part of the anterior border and the anterior part of the base of the lung. It is best heard in the axilla, but can also be heard in the back or at the lateral margin of the right chest (anterior axillary line).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is seen in a specialist clinic with his mother. She asks the doctor if there is a treatment to slow the progression of the disease.

      Which treatment slows the progression of muscle weakness in DMD?

      Your Answer: Steroids

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic condition that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting due to the lack of the dystrophin protein. While there is currently no cure for DMD, there are several treatment options available to manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

      Steroids are the mainstay of pharmacological treatment for DMD. They can slow the decline in muscle strength and motor function if started before substantial physical decline and if the side-effects of long-term steroid use are effectively managed.

      Ataluren is a medication that restores the synthesis of dystrophin in patients with nonsense mutations. It is used in patients aged less than five years with nonsense mutations who are able to walk and slows the decline in physical function.

      Immunoglobulin therapy is sometimes used for autoimmune myositis, but has no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Gene therapy seeks to manipulate the expression of a gene for therapeutic use in genetic conditions. Although there are currently clinical trials underway, gene therapy is not currently available for use in DMD.

      Methotrexate and other disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs may be used in the treatment of myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Biological therapies such as rituximab are often used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis, as well as myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Managing Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath, nocturnal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath, nocturnal cough and wheezing for the past week. He reports that these symptoms began after he was accidentally exposed to a significant amount of hydrochloric acid fumes while working in a chemical laboratory. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or any other relevant medical history. He is a non-smoker.
      What initial investigation may be the most useful in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peak flow

      Correct Answer: Methacholine challenge test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)

      Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms after exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, several tests may be performed to exclude other pulmonary diagnoses and confirm the presence of the condition.

      One of the diagnostic criteria for RADS is the absence of pre-existing respiratory conditions. Additionally, the onset of asthma symptoms should occur after a single exposure to irritants in high concentration, with symptoms appearing within 24 hours of exposure. A positive methacholine challenge test (< 8 mg/ml) following exposure and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests can also confirm the diagnosis. While a chest X-ray and full blood count may be requested to exclude other causes of symptoms, they are usually unhelpful in confirming the diagnosis of RADS. Peak flow is also not useful in diagnosis, as there is no pre-existing reading to compare values. The skin prick test may be useful in assessing reactions to common environmental allergens, but it is not helpful in diagnosing RADS as it occurs after one-off exposures. In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests can help confirm the diagnosis of RADS and exclude other pulmonary conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Since...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Since yesterday, she has developed a fever (38.5ºC) and become progressively short of breath. On examination, she appears unwell with stridor and drooling. Her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable.
      What is the most probable causative organism for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae B

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae B (HiB) bacteria. It is characterized by a sudden onset of fever, stridor, and drooling due to inflammation of the epiglottis. It is important to keep the affected child calm and seek specialist input from anaesthetics and paediatrics. In the UK, the current vaccination against HiB has made epiglottitis uncommon. Bordetella pertussis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Parainfluenza virus are incorrect answers as they do not produce the same presentation as acute epiglottitis.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      48.6
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman has a vaginal delivery of her first child. Although the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a vaginal delivery of her first child. Although the birth was uncomplicated, she suffers a tear which extends from the vaginal mucosa into the submucosal tissue, but not into the external anal sphincter. Which degree tear is this classed as?

      Your Answer: Third degree

      Correct Answer: Second degree

      Explanation:

      – First degree: a tear that only affects the vaginal mucosa
      – Second degree: a tear that extends into the subcutaneous tissue
      – Third degree: a laceration that reaches the external anal sphincter
      – Fourth degree: a laceration that goes through the external anal sphincter and reaches the rectal mucosa

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.6
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  • Question 30 - A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with right upper quadrant pain, fever and chills for the last two days. His past medical history is significant for gallstone disease which has not been followed up for some time. He is febrile, but his other observations are normal.
      Physical examination is remarkable for jaundice, scleral icterus and right upper-quadrant pain. There is no abdominal rigidity, and bowel sounds are present.
      His blood test results are shown below.
      Investigation Results Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 18.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 97 mg/dl 0–10 mg/l
      Bilirubin 40 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Cholangitis: Next Steps

      Acute cholangitis (AC) is a serious infection of the biliary tree that requires prompt management. The patient typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. The next steps in management depend on the patient’s clinical presentation and stability.

      Intravenous (IV) antibiotics are the first-line treatment for AC. The patient’s febrile state and elevated inflammatory markers indicate the need for prompt antibiotic therapy. Piperacillin and tazobactam are a suitable choice of antibiotics.

      Exploratory laparotomy is indicated in patients who are hemodynamically unstable and have signs of intra-abdominal haemorrhage. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to drain the gallbladder that is typically reserved for critically unwell patients. It is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen is likely to be required to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction. However, IV antibiotics should be commenced first.

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) may be required to remove common bile duct stones or stent biliary strictures. However, this is not the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC.

      In summary, the next best step in management for a febrile patient with AC is prompt IV antibiotics followed by abdominal imaging to identify the cause of the biliary obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      41.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (1/5) 20%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Passmed