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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother, who reports that the child has been feeling unwell for the past day. The mother explains that the girl has a fever and has not been eating properly. The child has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the child appears pale and flushed. There is a widespread maculopapular rash on her chest and back, and small white papules are visible on the inside of her cheeks.
What is the most common complication associated with the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Encephalitis
Correct Answer: Otitis media
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of fever, maculopapular rash, and koplik spots suggest a diagnosis of measles. The most common complication of measles is otitis media, which can cause unilateral ear pain, fever, and redness/swelling of the tympanic membrane. While bronchitis and encephalitis are possible complications of measles, they are less common than otitis media. Meningitis is also a serious complication of measles, but it typically presents with different symptoms such as neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash. Orchitis, which causes scrotal pain, is a complication of mumps rather than measles.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 16-year-old female visits her GP seeking to begin taking the contraceptive pill. The GP takes into account the Fraser Guidelines before approving the prescription. What is one of the requirements that must be met?
Your Answer: The young person's physical or mental health, or both, are likely to suffer if the contraceptive pill is not prescribed
Explanation:If a young person is denied access to contraception, their physical and mental health may be negatively impacted. While it is not mandatory for them to inform their parents, it is recommended to encourage them to seek support from their parents. The age of 16 is not a requirement for the young person to stop having sex. While providing information leaflets is not a Fraser guideline, it can still be helpful for the young person. It is not necessary to have a relative or friend present when determining the best interests of the young person.
Understanding the Fraser Guidelines for Consent to Treatment in Minors
The Fraser guidelines are a set of criteria used to determine whether a minor under the age of 16 is competent to give consent for medical treatment, particularly in relation to contraception. To be considered competent, the young person must demonstrate an understanding of the healthcare professional’s advice and cannot be persuaded to inform or involve their parents in the decision-making process. Additionally, the young person must be likely to engage in sexual activity with or without contraception, and their physical or mental health is at risk without treatment. Ultimately, the decision to provide treatment without parental consent must be in the best interest of the young person. These guidelines are important in ensuring that minors have access to necessary medical care while also protecting their autonomy and privacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A multiparous woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the labour ward after an artificial rupture of membranes. During four-hourly vaginal examinations, the midwife suddenly palpates the umbilical cord vaginally. The woman is placed on cardiotocography, which reveals late decelerations. What should be the midwife's next immediate step in managing the situation?
Your Answer: Push the umbilical cord back in
Correct Answer: Push presenting part of the foetus back in
Explanation:In the case of an umbilical cord prolapse, it is important to push the presenting part of the fetus back into the uterus to prevent compression of the cord and subsequent fetal distress. This can be aided by retro-filling the bladder with saline and positioning the mother on all fours. Administering oxytocin infusion or tocolytics to stop uterine contractions is not recommended as they can worsen the situation. The McRoberts manoeuvre is also not applicable in this scenario. It is crucial to manage the situation promptly to prevent further harm to the fetus.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with end-stage renal disease due to adult polycystic kidney disease complained of worsening lower back and sacral pain for the past 5 months. He looked emaciated and had lost a significant amount of weight. Despite taking regular paracetamol, his pain was excruciating. He is currently awaiting additional tests.
What analgesics would be more effective in managing his pain?Your Answer: Morphine sulfate
Correct Answer: Oxycodone
Explanation:Patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure can safely use oxycodone as it is primarily metabolized in the liver. However, NSAIDs such as naproxen should be avoided as they can lead to acute renal failure, interstitial nephritis (especially with ibuprofen and naproxen), volume overload, and worsening hypertension due to sodium retention caused by the inhibition of prostaglandin, which affects sodium excretion.
Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.
Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased pain from his metastatic prostate cancer. He has been taking morphine sulphate modified release tablets orally at a dose of 60 mg twice a day, but the registrar has recommended switching to subcutaneous administration due to his inability to tolerate oral tablets and vomiting.
What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?Your Answer: 30 mg
Correct Answer: 60 mg
Explanation:Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Morphine
When converting a patient from oral morphine to subcutaneous morphine, it is important to calculate the total dose of oral morphine taken in 24 hours and divide it by two. This will give you the correct dosage for subcutaneous morphine. For example, if a patient is taking 60 mg of oral morphine twice a day, the total daily dose would be 120 mg. Dividing this by two would give you a subcutaneous morphine dosage of 60 mg. It is important to note that if the patient were to be converted to subcutaneous diamorphine, the dosage would be different. Underdosing or overdosing the patient can have serious consequences, so it is crucial to calculate the correct dosage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old African-Caribbean woman presents to Gynaecology Outpatients with heavy periods. She has always experienced heavy periods, but over the past few years, they have become increasingly severe. She now needs to change a pad every hour and sometimes experiences leaking and clots. The bleeding can last for up to 10 days, and she often needs to take time off work. Although there is mild abdominal cramping, there is no bleeding after sex. She is feeling increasingly fatigued and unhappy, especially as she was hoping to have another child. She has one child who is 7 years old, and she had a vaginal delivery. Her periods are regular, and she is not using any contraception. On examination, she appears well, with a soft abdomen, and a vaginal examination reveals a uterus the size of 10 weeks. Her blood tests show a haemoglobin level of 9, and the results of a pelvic ultrasound scan are pending.
What is the most appropriate management option based on the clinical information and expected ultrasound results?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Correct Answer: Myomectomy
Explanation:Treatment options for menorrhagia caused by fibroids in a patient hoping to conceive
Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be caused by fibroids in the uterus. In a patient hoping to conceive, treatment options must be carefully considered. One option is myomectomy, which involves removing the fibroids while preserving the uterus. However, this procedure can lead to heavy bleeding during surgery and may result in a hysterectomy. Endometrial ablation, which destroys the lining of the uterus, is not suitable for a patient hoping to have another child. Tranexamic acid may help reduce bleeding, but it may not be a definitive treatment if the fibroids are large or in a problematic location. Laparoscopic hysterectomy, which removes the uterus, is a definitive treatment for menorrhagia but is not suitable for a patient hoping to conceive. The Mirena® intrauterine system is an effective treatment for menorrhagia but is not suitable for a patient hoping to conceive. Ultimately, the best treatment option for this patient will depend on the size and location of the fibroids and the patient’s desire to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman complains of deep pain in her leg bones that has been gradually worsening over the past 4 months. She has no significant medical history. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
- Calcium: 1.6 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 0.5 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4)
- ALP: 160 u/L (normal range: 30-100)
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH): 100 pg/mL (normal range: 14-65)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia is the likely diagnosis for an older woman experiencing bone pain, as indicated by low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP, and raised PTH. This condition is caused by severe vitamin D deficiency, which impairs calcium and phosphate absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and kidneys. As a result, PTH secretion increases to compensate for low calcium, leading to increased bone resorption and elevated ALP levels. Osteitis fibrosis cystica, osteopetrosis, and osteoporosis are less likely diagnoses, as they present with different metabolic blood results.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.
Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.
Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.
Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency Department with abnormal blood test results. He reports a history of alcoholic liver disease and abdominal swelling. However, no documentation is available. The blood results show a haemoglobin level of 129 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a WCC of 4.5 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l), platelets of 89 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l), a sodium level of 133 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 6.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), and a creatinine level of 87 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l). The patient reports starting a new medication for his abdominal swelling. What is the likely causative agent of his biochemical abnormality?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Diuretics and Blood Pressure Medications: Uses and Side Effects
Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is commonly used to treat hypertension and conditions associated with edema. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption and causing natriuresis and diuresis, while conserving potassium. Spironolactone is the first-line treatment for ascites caused by liver disease, but it can cause hyperkalemia and other side effects such as dizziness and gastrointestinal disturbance.
Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is used to treat hypertension and angina. It causes peripheral arterial vasodilation and dilation of coronary arteries. Common side effects include flushing, headaches, and peripheral edema.
Bumetanide and furosemide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption. Bumetanide is more potent than furosemide and does not cause hyperkalemia. Furosemide is often used as an adjunct to spironolactone in the treatment of ascites caused by liver cirrhosis, but it can cause hypokalemia.
Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is used to manage hypertension, heart failure, and as secondary prophylaxis following a myocardial infarction. It causes vasodilation but can also cause hyperkalemia and other side effects such as chronic cough and angioedema.
It is important to monitor patients on these medications for electrolyte imbalances and other adverse effects. Patients should also be advised on dietary restrictions and potential drug interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of increasing blood in his urine over the past two weeks. He denies any pain or difficulty while urinating but reports feeling fatigued and possibly losing some weight over the last few months. He has a history of smoking with a 48 pack-year history. On examination, he has a heart rate of 70 bpm, blood pressure of 155/78 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 97% on air, and a temperature of 37.0ºC. There is tenderness in the left renal angle, and a palpable mass is felt on the left side. His abdomen is soft without anterior tenderness. Digital rectal exam reveals a non-enlarged and non-tender prostate. The urine dip results show leucocytes ++, blood +++, protein +, nitrites negative, glucose trace, and ketones negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Frank haematuria can be caused by various conditions, including cancer, stones, and infection. However, in this case, the absence of lower urinary tract symptoms and pain makes infection or stones less likely. The patient’s constitutional symptoms and absence of sepsis signs suggest an underlying malignancy. Additionally, the absence of nitrites on the dip test rules out a urinary tract infection. The presence of a ballotable mass and renal angle tenderness is more indicative of renal cell carcinoma than bladder tumour.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at 36-weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She is conscious and responsive. During the physical examination, her heart rate was 110 bpm, blood pressure was 95/60 mmHg, and O2 saturation was 98%. Neurological examination revealed dilated pupils and brisk reflexes. Laboratory results showed Hb of 118 g/l, platelets of 240 * 109/l, WBC of 6 * 109/l, PT of 11 seconds, and APTT of 28 seconds. What underlying condition could best explain the observed physical exam findings?
Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Correct Answer: Cocaine abuse
Explanation:The symptoms described in the question suggest that the patient is experiencing placental abruption, which can be caused by cocaine abuse, pre-eclampsia, and HELLP syndrome. The presence of hyperreflexia on physical examination indicates placental abruption, while ruling out HELLP syndrome due to normal blood count results. Dilated pupils and hyperreflexia are consistent with cocaine abuse, while pinpointed pupils are more commonly associated with heroin abuse. Although pre-eclampsia can also lead to placental abruption, the physical exam findings suggest cocaine abuse as the underlying cause. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy is a complication of placental abruption, not a cause, and the normal PTT and APTT results make it less likely to be present.
Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, preterm labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are asked to assess a premature baby born at 34 weeks gestation who is experiencing respiratory distress. The delivery was uneventful. The baby's vital signs are as follows:
- Heart rate: 180 bpm (normal range: 100-180 bpm)
- Oxygen saturation: 95% (normal range: ≥ 96%)
- Respiratory rate: 68/min (normal range: 25-65/min)
- Temperature: 36.9°C (normal range: 36.0°C-38.0°C)
The baby is currently receiving 2 liters of oxygen to maintain their oxygen saturation. Upon examination, you notice that the baby is not cyanotic, but there are subcostal recessions and respiratory grunts. There are no added breath sounds on auscultation, but bowel sounds can be heard in the right lung field.
What is the most likely cause of the baby's symptoms?Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation:Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.
The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.
Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was a forceps delivery at 41+3 weeks’ gestation. The detailed examination is normal, except you notice slight reduced tone in the right leg and reduced Moro reflex on the right. The leg is resting in a slightly extended position. The examination is otherwise normal.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Refer to physiotherapy
Explanation:Assessing Erb’s Palsy in a Neonate: Appropriate Management and Investigations
Erb’s palsy is a neurological condition that commonly presents as reduced tone and movement in one arm, often due to shoulder dystocia during birth. In neonates, this can be identified by reduced Moro reflex and the arm resting in a waiter’s tip position. While Erb’s palsy is self-resolving, physiotherapy is recommended to strengthen the affected arm.
If there are no other neurological deficits, referral to a Paediatric Neurologist is not necessary. Cranial ultrasound and head MRI are also not appropriate investigations as they do not provide relevant information for this condition. Similarly, a shoulder X-ray is not necessary as the issue is neurological in nature. Overall, appropriate management and investigations for Erb’s palsy in a neonate involve physiotherapy and observation for resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the broken hip that she sustained as a result of falling down stairs. Upon discharge to a nursing home 10 days later, she is unable to ambulate fully and, about a month later, she dies suddenly.
Which of the following is most likely to be the immediate cause of death found at post-mortem examination?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Likely Cause of Sudden Death in an Elderly Patient with Fracture
Immobilisation after a fracture in elderly patients increases the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. In the case of a sudden death, pulmonary embolism is the most likely cause. Pneumonia with pneumococcus is also a risk for elderly patients in hospital, but the absence of signs and symptoms of infection makes it less likely. Tuberculosis is also unlikely as there were no signs of an infectious disease. Congestive heart failure is a possibility in the elderly, but it is unlikely to cause sudden death in this scenario. While malignancy is a risk for older patients, immobilisation leading to pulmonary thromboembolism is the most likely cause of sudden death in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer: 24-hour urine cortisol
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:
Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.Echocardiogram
While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.24-Hour Urine Cortisol
This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.Plasma Metanephrines
This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.Renal Ultrasound
This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of progressive weakness over the past few months. She reports difficulty getting up from a chair and climbing stairs, which worsens throughout the day and especially with prolonged walking. She has no significant medical history but is a smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. During the review of her systems, she mentions a loss of appetite and weight loss, as well as a worsening cough that led to one episode of haemoptysis two weeks ago. On examination, there are no clear signs of ptosis, diplopia, or dysarthria. The doctor considers a list of differential diagnoses.
Which antibody is most likely to be involved?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their associated conditions
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is an autoimmune condition affecting skeletal muscle and can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung. The causative autoantibody is against voltage-gated calcium channels. Clinical features include insidious and progressive onset of proximal muscular weakness, particularly in the legs, and autonomic involvement.
Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) is associated with anti-RNP antibodies. Common presenting features include general malaise and lethargy, arthritis, pulmonary involvement, sclerodactyly, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and myositis.
Myasthenia gravis is a long-term autoimmune disease affecting skeletal muscle associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. It causes fatigable weakness, and oculopharyngeal and ocular muscles are usually prominently affected.
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a vasculitic condition associated with c-ANCA antibodies. It often presents with renal impairment, upper airway disease, and pulmonary haemorrhage and pneumonia-like infiltrates.
Thyrotropin receptor antibody is an indicator for Graves’ disease, which causes hyperthyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is referred to rheumatology outpatients with increasing pain in the left leg. On examination, the left leg is slightly larger than the right and appears slightly deformed. An X-ray demonstrates cortical expansion and coarsening of trabeculae in keeping with Paget’s disease of bone.
What is likely to be found on serum biochemistry?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised ALP, normal calcium, normal phosphate
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results for Paget’s Disease and Other Conditions
Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder that affects bone turnover and can lead to bone pain and deformity. When interpreting blood test results, a raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level is a key indicator of Paget’s disease, while normal levels of calcium and phosphate are typical. However, if calcium is raised along with ALP, other conditions such as parathyroid disease or cancer may be the cause. If ALP and calcium are both raised, osteitis fibrosa cystica may be the culprit, while raised levels of all three (ALP, calcium, and phosphate) may indicate vitamin D intoxication or Milk alkali syndrome. Treatment for Paget’s disease typically involves analgesia, with bisphosphonates as a secondary option if needed. It’s important to seek specialist input for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Biochemistry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old female visits her GP due to concerns about memory loss. She has been experiencing forgetfulness and absent-mindedness for the past three weeks. She cannot recall conversations that occurred earlier in the day and has forgotten to lock her front door. Additionally, she has been feeling fatigued and has lost interest in her usual activities, such as going out for walks. Living alone, she is worried about the potential risks associated with her memory loss. Although initially appearing cheerful, she becomes emotional and starts crying while discussing her symptoms. The following blood test result is obtained: TSH 2 mU/L. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Depression and dementia can be distinguished based on their respective characteristics. Depression typically has a short history and a sudden onset, which can cause memory loss due to lack of concentration. Other symptoms include fatigue and loss of interest in usual activities. Hypothyroidism can be ruled out if TSH levels are normal. On the other hand, dementia progresses slowly and patients may not notice the symptoms themselves. It is usually others who notice the symptoms, and memory loss is not a concern for patients with dementia. Finally, there is no indication of bipolar disorder as there is no history of manic episodes.
Differentiating between Depression and Dementia
Depression and dementia are two conditions that can have similar symptoms, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. However, there are certain factors that can suggest a diagnosis of depression over dementia.
One of the key factors is the duration and onset of symptoms. Depression often has a short history and a rapid onset, whereas dementia tends to develop slowly over time. Additionally, biological symptoms such as weight loss and sleep disturbance are more commonly associated with depression than dementia.
Patients with depression may also express concern about their memory, but they are often reluctant to take tests and may be disappointed with the results. In contrast, patients with dementia may not be aware of their memory loss or may not express concern about it.
The mini-mental test score can also be variable in patients with depression, whereas in dementia, there is typically a global memory loss, particularly in recent memory.
In summary, while depression and dementia can have overlapping symptoms, careful consideration of the duration and onset of symptoms, biological symptoms, patient concerns, and cognitive testing can help differentiate between the two conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to an Orthopaedic Outpatient Clinic with a knee injury sustained during a football game. He cannot recall the exact cause of the injury. During the examination, you note a positive McMurray's's test and tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. What imaging modality would be the most beneficial for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI scan of the knee
Explanation:Best Imaging Modality for Knee Injury: MRI Scan
When a patient presents with knee pain, a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. In this case, a young patient with a positive McMurray’s’s test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint suggests a lateral meniscal tear. The best imaging modality for this patient is an MRI scan of the knee. This scan allows for visualization of soft tissues in the knee, making it more sensitive than a CT scan or X-ray. An ultrasound scan may also be useful for diagnosing soft tissue injuries, but a joint aspirate would not be indicated. A CT scan with contrast would not be helpful in this situation. Overall, an MRI scan is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing a knee injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset blurring of vision in both eyes and light sensitivity. He is a known type II diabetic with well-controlled blood sugars through diet. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6 °C, BP 191/127 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm, respiratory rate 19, and O2 saturations 99% on room air. Dilated fundoscopy reveals swollen optic discs with widespread flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton-wool spots. What is the initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) labetalol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hypertensive Retinopathy: Understanding the Appropriate Interventions
Hypertensive emergency with retinopathy requires careful management to avoid complications such as watershed infarcts in the brain. Intravenous (IV) labetalol is a suitable option for lowering blood pressure (BP) slowly, with the aim of reducing diastolic BP to 100 mmHg or 20-25 mmHg/day, whichever is lesser. However, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injection is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. Oral amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is also not useful in an acute setting of hypertensive emergency. Similarly, pan-retinal photocoagulation or any laser treatment for the eye is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy, but rather for proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Lastly, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray, although capable of reducing blood pressure, is typically used in patients with angina and acute coronary syndrome (ACS). Understanding the appropriate interventions for hypertensive retinopathy is crucial for effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. After workup, including blood tests, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a chest X-ray, a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected.
In which situation might a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan be preferred to a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to confirm a diagnosis of PE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal impairment
Explanation:Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism: Considerations and Limitations
When evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), choosing the appropriate imaging test can be challenging. Several factors need to be considered, including the patient’s medical history, clinical presentation, and available resources. Here are some examples of how different patient characteristics can influence the choice of imaging test:
Renal impairment: A V/Q scan may be preferred over a CTPA in patients with renal impairment, as the latter uses radiocontrast that can be nephrotoxic.
Abnormal chest X-ray: If the chest X-ray is abnormal, a V/Q scan may not be the best option, as it can be difficult to interpret. A CTPA would be more appropriate in this case.
Wells PE score of 3: The Wells score alone does not dictate the choice of imaging test. A D-dimer blood test should be obtained first, and if positive, a CTPA or V/Q scan may be necessary.
Weekend admission: Availability of imaging tests may be limited during weekends. A CTPA scan may be more feasible than a V/Q scan, as the latter requires nuclear medicine facilities that may not be available out of hours.
History of COPD: In patients with lung abnormalities such as severe COPD, a V/Q scan may be challenging to interpret. A CTPA would be a better option in this case.
In summary, choosing the right imaging test for suspected PE requires careful consideration of the patient’s characteristics and available resources. Consultation with a radiologist may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. She has been suffering from a sore throat over the past few days, and now her parents have noticed that she has become increasingly drowsy and is complaining of a headache and neck stiffness. On examination, she is pyrexial at 38.2 °C. She has marked signs of meningism.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 15.2 × 109/l 5.0–12.0 × 109/l
Platelets 110 ×109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 29–53 µmol/l
Lumbar puncture Gram positive diplococci identified
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Bacterial Causes of Meningitis: A Comparison
Meningitis is a serious condition that can be caused by various bacterial pathogens. In this case, the symptoms of meningism suggest a diagnosis of S. pneumoniae meningitis, which is most common in the very young and the very old. While resistance testing has shown some resistance to ceftriaxone/penicillin, the majority of isolates are still sensitive to cefotaxime.
N. meningitidis is another pathogen that can cause meningitis, but it is a Gram-negative bacteria and therefore not the cause in this case. M. pneumoniae, on the other hand, causes pneumonia, not meningitis. H. influenzae can cause meningitis, but it is a Gram-negative cocco-bacilli and not the causative pathogen in this case.
L. monocytogenes is a cause of meningitis in older adults, but it is uncommon in infants and children. Overall, it is important to identify the specific pathogen causing meningitis in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male comes to the emergency department (ED) after twisting his ankle while playing soccer. Upon arrival at the ED, he is unable to take more than two steps and experiences bony tenderness at the lateral malleolus. An x-ray is conducted, revealing an undisplaced fracture of the fibula, located just distal to the syndesmosis.
What is the appropriate course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Analgesia and encourage to weight-bear as tolerated with a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot
Explanation:Ankle Fractures and their Classification
Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.
Management of Ankle Fractures
The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of sweating, confusion, and agitation that have developed over the past hour. She has a history of schizophrenia, hay fever, and lower back pain and is currently taking sertraline, cetirizine, and olanzapine. The patient admits to occasional recreational use of cannabis and diazepam and also uses her partner's tramadol. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 39.0ºC, a heart rate of 105 bpm, and a blood pressure of 143/75 mmHg. The doctor notes hyperreflexia, rigidity, bilateral mydriasis, and bilateral ankle clonus. What is the most likely cause of her presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol use
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome is often caused by co-prescription of tramadol and SSRIs, and the patient in the vignette exhibits symptoms such as neuromuscular excitation, fever, agitation, and confusion.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old woman presents to your clinic to discuss the results of recent investigations for her lower back pain. Her blood results show:
- Bilirubin: 16 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 220 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 33 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 54 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)
Following these results, a lumbar spine x-ray was performed, which revealed mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions. Based on this likely diagnosis, what would be your first-line treatment recommendation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risedronate
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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For a 19-year-old male undergoing a unilateral Zadek's procedure, which local anaesthetic preparation would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ring block with 1% lignocaine alone
Explanation:To perform toenail removal, it is necessary to use a rapid-acting local anesthetic. It is important to avoid using adrenaline in this situation as it may lead to digital ischemia.
Local anaesthetic agents include lidocaine, cocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Lidocaine is an amide that is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and renally excreted. Toxicity can occur with IV or excess administration, and increased risk is present with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Cocaine is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice and is cardiotoxic. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lignocaine and is cardiotoxic, while levobupivacaine is less cardiotoxic. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic and is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no prior history of urinary issues. The physician used a gloved index finger to examine the patient's prostate gland, most likely by palpating it through the wall of which of the following structures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectum
Explanation:Anatomy and Digital Rectal Examination of the Prostate Gland
The prostate gland is commonly examined through a digital rectal examination, where a gloved index finger is inserted through the anus until it reaches the rectum. The anterior wall of the rectum is then palpated to examine the size and shape of the prostate gland, which lies deep to it. The sigmoid colon, which is proximal to the recto-sigmoid junction, cannot be palpated through this method and requires a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. The urinary bladder sits superior to the prostate and is surrounded by a prostatic capsule. The anus, which is the most distal part of the gastrointestinal tract, does not allow palpation of the prostate gland. The caecum, which is an outpouching of the ascending colon, is anatomically distant from the prostate gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles, difficulty initiating movements such as getting up from a chair, slow movements and hand shaking, which started 5 weeks ago. He has a medical history of schizophrenia and has had good compliance with his medication for the past 3 months. He is taking haloperidol. On examination, his temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure 120/81 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm. On examination, there is decreased facial expression, pill-rolling tremor, cogwheel rigidity and festinating gait.
Which of the following terms describes the symptoms of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradykinesia
Explanation:Common Neurological Side Effects of Medications
Medications can sometimes cause neurological side effects that mimic symptoms of neurological disorders. One such side effect is called pseudo-parkinsonism, which is characterized by bradykinesia or slowness in movements. This can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotic medication, anti-emetics like metoclopramide, and some calcium channel blockers like cinnarizine.
Another side effect is acute dystonia, which is the sudden and sustained contraction of muscles in any part of the body, usually following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, which is characterized by restlessness and the inability to remain motionless.
Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect that is characterized by involuntary muscle movements, usually affecting the tongue, lips, trunk, and extremities. This is seen in patients who are on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication such as antipsychotic medication (both typical and atypical), some antidepressants, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and others.
Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, changes in level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. Management is supportive, and symptoms generally resolve within 1-2 weeks.
Understanding the Neurological Side Effects of Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are on your general practice placement, and a pregnant woman attends for a routine antenatal check-up. You examine her abdomen and find that her abdomen is distended up to her umbilicus. Your general practitioner asks you how many weeks you think she is, but you do not have a measuring tape.
How many weeks would you estimate her gestation to be if she was in her mid-30s?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:Measuring Uterine Growth During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, the size of the uterus can be used to estimate the gestational age of the fetus. At around 20 weeks, the uterus reaches the level of the umbilicus. This can be measured using the symphysio-fundal height (SFH), which is usually equal to the number of weeks of gestation (± 2 cm). To measure the SFH, the fundus of the uterus is first palpated and the tape measure is placed at this point. The tape measure is then rolled over the longitudinal axis of the uterus until it reaches the pubic symphysis, and the length in centimeters is recorded.
At 16 weeks, the uterus would not be palpable at the level of the umbilicus. The fundus of the uterus can be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis. Similarly, at 18 weeks, the uterus would not be palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
By 22 weeks, the uterus would be past the level of the umbilicus. And by 24 weeks, the uterus would be higher in the abdomen than the umbilicus. Regular measurement of the SFH can help monitor fetal growth and ensure that the pregnancy is progressing normally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the mode of action of calcium carbonate in the management of osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enhance bone mineralisation
Explanation:Calcium and Vitamin D Supplementation for Osteoporosis
Calcium and vitamin D supplementation are often prescribed to patients with osteoporosis as an adjunct to other treatments such as bisphosphonates. While it is not considered an adequate treatment on its own, it can enhance bone mineralisation and promote calcium uptake from the gut. Calcium can be given orally in various forms such as calcium carbonate, calcium gluconate, or calcium lactates. However, calcium carbonate is the most commonly used preparation in osteoporosis, often combined with vitamin D in medications like Adcal D3 or Calcichew D3 forte.
Despite its benefits, oral calcium supplementation can have adverse effects such as a chalky taste that is poorly tolerated and gastrointestinal disturbances. Hypercalcaemia is a rare side effect, except in patients with other underlying conditions such as malignancy or hyperparathyroidism. On the other hand, vitamin D helps correct any deficiency or insufficiency and promotes calcium uptake from the gut. Vitamin D deficiency is common in elderly and institutionalised patients, and if severe, it can lead to osteomalacia with an elevated alkaline phosphatase on blood testing.
In summary, calcium and vitamin D supplementation are useful adjuncts to other treatments for osteoporosis. While calcium enhances bone mineralisation, vitamin D corrects any deficiency and promotes calcium uptake from the gut. However, oral calcium supplementation can have adverse effects, and vitamin D deficiency is common in certain patient populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of pain and swelling affecting the right knee and left ankle. On further questioning, he complained of dysuria and had woken with both eyes ‘stuck together’ for the last three days. He thinks that his urinary symptoms may be linked to the unprotected sex he had three weeks ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Reactive Arthritis Symptoms
A patient presents with arthropathy, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, which are classic symptoms of reactive arthritis. The probable underlying cause is chlamydial infection or gonorrhea, as the patient has had recent unprotected sex. Primary syphilis, genital herpes, trichomoniasis, and E. coli infection are unlikely differential diagnoses. Syphilis causes a painless sore on the genitals, while genital herpes presents with blisters and is not associated with arthropathy. Trichomoniasis is commonly asymptomatic and presents with dysuria, frequency, and balanitis in men. E. coli is a common cause of UTI, but the patient’s symptoms are broader than those of a typical UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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