00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo that has been present for the past 5 weeks after a recent respiratory tract infection. He reports feeling nauseous and unsteady on his feet, especially when turning over in bed. He denies any hearing loss or ringing in his ears. A cerebellar stroke was ruled out when he was initially evaluated at the hospital.

      During the examination, you observe fine-horizontal nystagmus. However, the neurological examination is otherwise unremarkable, and his hearing and otoscopy results are normal. You suspect that he may be suffering from vestibular neuronitis.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient to a balance specialist for consideration of vestibular rehabilitation exercises

      Explanation:

      Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms of vestibular neuronitis. While short-term use of oral prochlorperazine or antihistamines can provide relief, they should not be used for more than three days as they may hinder the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery.

      NICE CKS guidance advises against the use of corticosteroids, benzodiazepines, or antiviral medication as there is no evidence of their effectiveness.

      If symptoms persist for six weeks or more, patients should be referred to a specialist for further investigation and vestibular rehabilitation exercises. It is crucial to note that urgent referral is necessary if symptoms do not improve within one week of initial treatment to rule out other potential causes.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.

      Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      116.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He reports a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Explanation:

      Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary unless there are red flag features or evidence of a septic joint. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's wedding. She is aware of the risk of Zika virus and uses an insect repellent containing DEET on all exposed areas. What additional precautions should she take upon returning to the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of foetus

      Explanation:

      There is compelling evidence that Zika virus can cause congenital microcephaly and other neurological developmental disorders in fetuses. The National Travel Health Network and Centre (NaTHNaC) has issued guidelines for pregnant women traveling to areas affected by Zika virus, advising them to postpone non-essential travel until after pregnancy and to avoid becoming pregnant while in these areas and for eight weeks after returning home, regardless of whether they experienced symptoms of Zika infection or not. Pregnant women who have traveled to a Zika virus area should seek immediate medical attention, and regular ultrasound scans throughout pregnancy are recommended to detect microcephaly. Asymptomatic women do not need routine testing for Zika virus PCR via blood, urine, or amniotic fluid. However, women who develop Zika virus symptoms during or within two weeks of traveling to a Zika virus area should be tested for Zika virus PCR, and their fetuses should be monitored through serial ultrasounds. If microcephaly is detected on ultrasound, amniocentesis may be considered to check for Zika PCR, but only after weighing the risks and benefits. Chorionic villous sampling, fundal height measurements, and cardiac monitoring are not useful for testing for Zika virus.

      Understanding Zika Virus

      Zika virus is a type of infection that is transmitted through mosquito bites. It belongs to the flavivirus genus and Flaviviridae family, and was first discovered in 1947 in Uganda. While most people who contract the virus do not experience any symptoms, those who do may experience a mild fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, muscle pain, headache, and itching. In rare cases, Zika virus has been linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome in adults. However, the most concerning aspect of Zika virus is its potential to cause birth defects in babies born to infected mothers. The virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta, and has been linked to microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities. Due to this risk, the World Health Organization has declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. It is important to take precautions to avoid mosquito bites in areas where Zika virus is present, and for pregnant women to take extra care to protect themselves from infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old boy complains of abdominal pain that has been causing him to...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy complains of abdominal pain that has been causing him to miss school for the past two months. What factor suggests an organic cause rather than a functional one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frequent diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common issue among children that can disrupt their daily activities. It is often not accompanied by any organic pathology and tends to occur frequently, with at least three episodes in three months. The pain is usually located in the central abdomen and can be severe enough to affect the child’s activities.

      While there are many possible organic causes for recurrent abdominal pain, diagnostic investigations are only recommended for children with alarm symptoms or signs. These include involuntary weight loss, slowing of linear growth, gastrointestinal blood loss, significant vomiting, chronic severe diarrhea or constipation, unexplained fever, pain localized away from the central abdomen, or a family history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      It is important to note that persistent right-upper or right-lower-quadrant pain should raise more concern. Headache is more likely to occur in children with non-organic recurrent abdominal pain, and pain relieved by defecation is usually a feature of irritable bowel syndrome and doesn’t match the features in this scenario.

      Recurrent abdominal pain can lead to increased functional impairment in everyday life, such as school absences. Therefore, it is crucial to understand the distinction between organic disease, functional disorders, and emotional factors to provide appropriate care for children experiencing this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past week. The patient has around 5 small shallow ulcers scattered around her gums and inside her cheeks. The ulcers have been present for 2 days, and she is having difficulty eating and drinking. The patient has no significant medical history and is generally healthy. She smokes 5-10 cigarettes daily.

      What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aphthous ulcers are more common in non-smokers

      Explanation:

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a facial rash that has been present for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a facial rash that has been present for a few weeks. The rash appears erythematous, greasy, and has a fine scale on her cheeks, nasolabial folds, eyebrows, nasal bridge, and scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often the culprit behind an itchy rash that appears on the face and scalp. This condition is characterized by its distribution pattern, which affects these areas. It can be distinguished from acne rosacea, which typically doesn’t involve the nasolabial folds and is marked by the presence of telangiectasia and pustules.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who has been experiencing fatigue. All his full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and thyroid function tests were normal. The fasting plasma glucose result is provided below:

      Fasting plasma glucose 6.2 mmol/l

      What is the most suitable conclusion to draw from this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prediabetes - high risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The individual with a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level ranging from 6.1-6.9 mmol/l is identified as having impaired fasting glycaemia and should be treated as having prediabetes.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A client visits the clinic seeking a 'sick note'. When should you provide...

    Incorrect

    • A client visits the clinic seeking a 'sick note'. When should you provide a Statement of Fitness for Work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After they have been off work for more than 7 calendar days

      Explanation:

      Patients have the ability to self-certify for a maximum of 7 consecutive days.

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are requested to assess a 63-year-old man who has castrate-resistant prostate cancer....

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 63-year-old man who has castrate-resistant prostate cancer. He has widespread bony metastases in multiple lumbar vertebrae, left ilium, and left proximal femur. The patient is experiencing increased hip pain while on his current dose of modified release morphine sulphate tablets (MST Continus). He is currently taking 50 mg twice daily and has taken an additional 40 mg of PRN oramorph for breakthrough pain in the last 24 hours.

      What is the most appropriate approach to manage his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase MST to 70 mg twice daily

      Explanation:

      To determine the correct dosage, one can calculate the total daily amount of morphine needed. For example, if the total daily amount required is 140mg, the appropriate dosage would be 70 mg taken twice daily. However, if this calculation results in a dosage exceeding 50 mg, an alternative approach may be necessary.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few months she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, mood changes and pain on intercourse. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) has been > 40 ”IU/l on two separate occasions, and her serum oestradiol level is low. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin are normal. Fasting blood glucose is normal. Pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Symptoms

      Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a condition that affects at least 1% of women under the age of 40 years. It is characterized by elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), low oestradiol, and prolonged amenorrhoea. In most cases, no underlying cause is identified, but familial history, autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, infections, and iatrogenic causes such as surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy may contribute to the condition. Spontaneous recovery of fertility is unlikely.

      Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour, hypopituitarism, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and thyrotoxicosis are incorrect diagnoses for POI. Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour is rare and presents with hirsutism, acne, and clitoral enlargement. Hypopituitarism is caused by anterior pituitary tumours and may result in pressure features, ACTH deficiency, TSH deficiency, GH deficiency, ADH deficiency, and gonadotrophin deficiency. PCOS is unlikely due to the raised FSH and lack of hyperandrogenism. Thyrotoxicosis is ruled out by the normal TSH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are requested by district nurses to visit a patient at home to...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested by district nurses to visit a patient at home to assess his medication. He is an 80-year-old man with terminal prostate cancer and widespread metastases. His pain is currently well managed by taking Morphine Sulphate SR tablets, 60mg twice a day. However, his overall condition has deteriorated, and he is experiencing difficulty swallowing the tablets, as well as increased agitation. Your recommendation is to initiate a syringe driver containing Diamorphine and a small dose of Midazolam subcutaneously to replace the oral Morphine tablets. What would be the appropriate dosage of sc Diamorphine to prescribe over a 24-hour period?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      Converting Oral Morphine to SC Diamorphine: A Guide

      When converting oral Morphine to SC Diamorphine, it is important to remember that the 24-hour total SC Diamorphine dose required will be approximately one-third of the 24-hour total oral Morphine dose. This means that the ratio of Morphine PO to Diamorphine SC is 3:1.

      For example, if a patient is taking MST SR 60 mg bd, which is a total of 120 mg/24 hrs PO, the 24-hour total Diamorphine SC dose required will be 120/3 = 40 mg. It is crucial to double-check the direction of your conversion to avoid calculation errors.

      Prescribing medication can be a complex process, and it is important to take the necessary precautions to ensure accuracy and patient safety. By following this guide, healthcare professionals can confidently convert oral Morphine to SC Diamorphine with ease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old retired teacher who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old retired teacher who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer. Some ten years ago, he was treated with surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder cancer. His brother had oesophageal cancer, aged 66, and another brother had prostate cancer in his 70s. His 55-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with breast cancer.
      What is the most likely explanation for the cancers in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exposure to tobacco smoke

      Explanation:

      Possible causes of multiple malignancies

      Exposure to tobacco smoke and other factors that increase cancer risk

      It is not uncommon for a person to develop more than one cancer in their lifetime. In this case, the most likely explanation is exposure to tobacco smoke, which is a known carcinogen for both lung and bladder cancer. Other factors that can increase cancer risk include exposure to asbestos, aniline dyes, and certain chemicals, as well as a hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome. However, there is no evidence of these factors in this case, except for a family history of common cancers. It is also possible, although less likely, that the second tumor is a late complication of chemotherapy, which has been linked to some types of secondary cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Please review the death certificate below:

    1a Congestive cardiac failure
    1b Essential hypertension
    1c
    2 Advanced age,...

    Incorrect

    • Please review the death certificate below:

      1a Congestive cardiac failure
      1b Essential hypertension
      1c
      2 Advanced age, type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Which one of the statements regarding this certificate is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure is the direct cause of death

      Explanation:

      If the underlying cause is stated, it is acceptable to use a type of organ failure in 1a. However, section 2 should be used to record Type 2 diabetes mellitus as it doesn’t lead to essential hypertension.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You see a 38-year-old lady who has come to you for help reducing...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 38-year-old lady who has come to you for help reducing her weight. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. She has tried joining a local dieting group and increasing her physical activity but is still finding it difficult to lose weight. After discussion, it is decided to start her on orlistat. She manages to lose 2Kg after 3 months treatment. She wants to know how much longer she is allowed to be on this medication.

      Following an initial weight loss at 3 months, what is the restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Orlistat Prescription Guidelines

      Orlistat is a medication that inhibits pancreatic lipase and is prescribed to patients with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more (or 28 kg/m2 with an associated risk factor). Patients are expected to lose 5% of their initial body weight at 3 months for the prescription to be continued. However, for patients with diabetes, a 3% loss of body weight at 3 months is recommended.

      Beyond the initial weight loss at 3 months, there is no restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed. The decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be undertaken to assess the benefits, risks, and costs of treatment. According to NICE, For people who have lost the recommended amount of weight, there is no restriction on how long orlistat may be prescribed. This should be reviewed at regular intervals.

      In summary, orlistat is a medication that can be prescribed for an extended period of time, but the decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be conducted to ensure that the medication is still appropriate for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has become ill while at a family gathering. He feels itchy and has red blotchy skin and swollen lips and eyelids. He has an inspiratory stridor and wheeze, and an apex beat of 120/minute. He feels faint on standing and his blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg.
      Select from the list the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaphylactic Reactions and Emergency Treatment

      Anaphylactic reactions occur when an allergen triggers specific IgE antibodies on mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other mediators. This can cause capillary leakage, mucosal edema, shock, and asphyxia. The severity and rate of progression of anaphylactic reactions can vary, and there may be a history of previous sensitivity to an allergen or recent exposure to a drug.

      Prompt administration of adrenaline and resuscitation measures are crucial in treating anaphylaxis. Antihistamines are now considered a third-line intervention and should not be used to treat Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilization, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms. Corticosteroids are no longer advised for the routine emergency treatment of anaphylaxis.

      The incidence of anaphylaxis is increasing, and it is not always recognized. It is important to understand the causes and emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions to ensure prompt and effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

      NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that has been troubling him for the last six months. His wife has brought him in as he has coughed up small amounts of blood on several occasions and has lost about a stone in weight over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker of 40 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years and has developed noisy breathing over the last few days. He also complains of a persistent headache and feeling a little dizzy. On examination, he has a soft stridor at rest and dilated veins on his chest wall. His oxygen saturations are 98% in room air, blood pressure is 128/88 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 regular. He is alert, oriented, and afebrile with clear chest sounds on auscultation. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)

      Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by extraluminal compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.

      The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncopal attacks, and headache due to pressure effect. Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO is considered a medical emergency.

      Management of SVCO involves treatment with steroids and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy and stent insertion may also be indicated. It is important to address the underlying cause of SVCO to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes a decade ago. Although his control has not always been optimal, he has no cardiovascular risk factors except for his diabetes. His blood pressure has consistently been within the normal range, and he is not taking any medication for it. However, his most recent yearly urine albumin: creatinine ratio was elevated, and microalbuminuria has been verified with two additional samples. What course of action should be advised now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diuretic

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Microalbuminuria

      In cases of confirmed microalbuminuria, even if the patient is normotensive, it is recommended by NICE guidance to start an ACE inhibitor. The dose should be gradually increased until the full dose is reached. If the patient experiences poor tolerance, an Angiotensin receptor blocker can be used as an alternative. It is important to maintain blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg (140/80 if there is no kidney involvement).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.

      Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.

      The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.

      What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.

      This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.

      Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.

      If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.

      It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.

    A diagnosis of measles is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old girl presents with rash and high fever.

      A diagnosis of measles is suspected.

      Which one of the following statements is true concerning measles infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The erythematous maculopapular rash usually starts on the hands

      Explanation:

      Measles: Key Points to Remember

      – Prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles.
      – Koplik spots are a unique symptom of measles.
      – Erythromycin doesn’t reduce the duration of measles.
      – The MMR vaccine is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age.
      – The rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious complications, particularly in young children. It is important to remember that prophylactic antibiotics are not effective in treating measles, and erythromycin doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. One unique symptom of measles is the presence of Koplik spots, which are small white spots that appear on the inside of the mouth. The MMR vaccine is the most effective way to prevent measles and is typically given to children between 12-15 months of age. Finally, it is important to note that the rash associated with measles is widespread and different from the vesicular rash of Chickenpox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered that she is pregnant,...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered that she is pregnant, around 10 weeks. She has come to seek advice on what to do about her cervical screening, which is due at this time. Sophie had a normal smear test 2 years ago and has not experienced any unusual bleeding or discharge since then.

      What is the best course of action regarding her cervical screening?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delay screening until she is 3 months postpartum

      Explanation:

      Typically, cervical screening is postponed until 3 months after giving birth, unless there was a missed screening or previous abnormal results. Smear tests are not conducted while pregnant, and there is no reason to refer for colposcopy based on the patient’s history. It is standard practice to delay smear tests until 3 months after delivery.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK

      Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.

      The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.

      In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.

      While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion began as a small red papule and has now grown to form a blood-tinged pustule-like lesion measuring 2 cm in diameter over the course of a week. He reports some lymphadenopathy but is otherwise asymptomatic.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orf

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections: Orf, Cat Scratch Disease, Ringworm, Pompholyx, and Lyme Disease

      Orf, also known as contagious pustular dermatitis, is a skin infection caused by a poxvirus that is typically acquired from sheep or goats. The infection begins with a small, firm, red or reddish-blue lump that develops into a flat-topped, blood-tinged pustule or blister after an incubation period of 5-6 days. The lesion is usually 2-3 cm in diameter but can be as large as 5 cm. Although it may appear to contain pus, incising the lesion will reveal firm, red tissue underneath. Orf can also cause erythema multiforme and typically resolves within 6 weeks.

      Cat scratch disease is a mild infectious disease that primarily affects children and is caused by the intracellular bacterium Bartonella henselae. Symptoms may include fever and a papule at the site of the scratch, as well as regional lymphadenopathy.

      Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal infection that causes a slowly enlarging scaly lesion with central clearing. Pompholyx, on the other hand, is a type of eczema that presents with multiple vesicles on the palms and soles.

      Finally, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through tick bites. It causes a slowly spreading erythematous rash at the site of the bite, accompanied by flu-like symptoms.

      In summary, these common skin infections can present with a variety of symptoms and should be diagnosed and treated by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following accurately characterizes the role of latanoprost in treating primary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following accurately characterizes the role of latanoprost in treating primary open-angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases uveoscleral outflow

      Explanation:

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During which phase of clinical trials is the drug's effectiveness specifically evaluated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase IIb

      Explanation:

      Phases of Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.

      The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.

      The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.

      The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.

      Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she thinks she...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she thinks she is experiencing a lot of pain in her mouth. Upon conducting a thorough assessment of the healthy child, you observe a swollen and tender upper gum with no other abnormalities and diagnose her with teething. What would be the most appropriate advice to give in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and advice simple analgesia and cooling treatments

      Explanation:

      Teething is a natural process where baby teeth emerge through the gums, usually starting around 6 months of age. Symptoms are generally mild and include pain, increased biting, drooling, gum-rubbing/sucking, irritability, wakefulness, and possibly a slight increase in temperature. The recommended initial management is to provide reassurance and advise on self-care measures such as gentle gum rubbing and allowing the child to bite on a clean and cool object. Paracetamol or ibuprofen suspension can be given to infants 3 months or older. It is not recommended to use choline salicylate gels, topical anaesthetics, or complementary therapies like herbal teething powder. A further dental opinion is not necessary as teething is a normal process.

      Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options

      Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.

      During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

      It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.

      In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is a risk factor that can contribute to the development and advancement...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor that can contribute to the development and advancement of diabetic retinal disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microalbuminuria

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Diabetic Retinal Disease

      Poor glycaemic control, raised blood pressure, increasing number of microaneurysms, duration of diabetes, microalbuminuria, raised triglycerides and lowered haematocrit, and pregnancy are all risk factors that have been shown to determine the development and progression of diabetic retinal disease, according to SIGN guidelines. Smoking is thought to be an independent risk factor in type 1 diabetes, but the evidence in type 2 diabetes is more controversial. It is important for individuals with diabetes to manage these risk factors in order to reduce their risk of developing diabetic retinal disease. By maintaining good glycaemic control, controlling blood pressure, and monitoring for microalbuminuria and other risk factors, individuals with diabetes can help protect their vision and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast....

    Incorrect

    • Jane, a 29-year-old female, has been experiencing a sore and inflamed left breast. She has been breastfeeding her newborn daughter for the past four weeks. During her visit to the GP, the doctor notes the inflammation and a temperature of 38.2ÂșC. The GP diagnoses mastitis and prescribes medication while encouraging Jane to continue breastfeeding.

      Which organism is most commonly responsible for causing mastitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mastitis: Symptoms, Management, and Risks

      Mastitis is a condition that occurs when the breast tissue becomes inflamed, and it is commonly associated with breastfeeding. It affects approximately 1 in 10 women and is characterized by symptoms such as a painful, tender, and red hot breast, as well as fever and general malaise.

      The first-line management of mastitis is to continue breastfeeding, and simple measures such as analgesia and warm compresses can also be helpful. However, if a woman is systemically unwell, has a nipple fissure, or if symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of effective milk removal, treatment with antibiotics may be necessary. The most common organism causing infective mastitis is Staphylococcus aureus, and the first-line antibiotic is oral flucloxacillin for 10-14 days. It is important to note that breastfeeding or expressing should continue during antibiotic treatment.

      If left untreated, mastitis can lead to the development of a breast abscess, which may require incision and drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen. By understanding the symptoms, management, and risks associated with mastitis, women can take proactive steps to address this condition and ensure their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You are summoned to the passing of an 85-year-old female on the geriatric...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the passing of an 85-year-old female on the geriatric care ward. She has a lengthy record of dyspnea linked to congestive heart failure and the nursing staff report that she experienced a sudden collapse and expired. No resuscitation was attempted. What is the most suitable single cause of death that you can record on the death certificate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart failure

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Filling Out Death Certificates

      When filling out a death certificate, it is important to accurately identify the underlying cause of death. Cardiac arrest, syncope, apnoea, respiratory arrest, heart, liver or kidney failure are not acceptable as modes of death. Instead, the cause of death should be a specific pathological condition, such as ischaemic heart disease or myocardial infarction.

      In rare cases, old age or frailty may be listed as the sole cause of death, but only if the healthcare provider has personally cared for the patient over a long period of time, observed a gradual decline in their health, and is certain that there is no identifiable disease or injury that contributed to the death. Even then, it is important to note that coroners, crematorium referees, registrars, and healthcare organizations may request additional information to support this statement.

      If a death is certified as due to old age or senility alone, it will usually be referred to the coroner unless the deceased was 80 or older, all the conditions listed above are fulfilled, and there is no other reason for the death to be referred. It is important to be thorough and accurate when filling out death certificates to ensure that the cause of death is properly recorded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The surgery has just closed and you are finishing up work at the...

    Incorrect

    • The surgery has just closed and you are finishing up work at the end of the day when a teenager employed by the practice knocks on your door. She has just sustained a needlestick injury on a discarded used needle that had been left in a bin in the public toilet in reception. She is not a registered patient at your practice. You provide advice on appropriate immediate first aid of the wound and she washes the wound and follows this advice.

      What is the next most appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B booster vaccination should be administered

      Explanation:

      Risk Assessment for Bloodborne Pathogen Exposure

      Following immediate first aid and washing of a wound that may have exposed an individual to bloodborne pathogens, a risk assessment must be conducted to determine the level of exposure and the need for further treatment. This assessment should be performed by a qualified individual with knowledge of the process and can advise on necessary treatment. Typically, this assessment is done by the occupational health department or A&E department at a hospital, depending on local protocol and availability.

      It is crucial to conduct the risk assessment as soon as possible, as HIV post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be started within one hour of the injury. However, it can still be administered up to 48-72 hours after the exposure. Therefore, prompt assessment and treatment can significantly reduce the risk of infection and ensure the best possible outcome for the individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Passmed