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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old woman who is well known to the community mental health team...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman who is well known to the community mental health team is brought into the psychiatric hospital by her worried friends. She has not been eating more than a few mouthfuls of food a day for the last two weeks and refuses to speak more than a few words. She remains awake all night and rocks in her chair. She even refuses to drink more than a cupful of water per day despite numerous attempts by her friends, doctors and psychiatrists. She is refusing all oral medications. After a brief conversation, you feel she has capacity to make decisions. You learn she has a long history of depression which has been very severe at times.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for a patient with severe depression who is refusing to eat or drink is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT involves 12 sessions and can be effective for patients with a high risk of suicide, psychotic features, catatonic stupor, food refusal, severe weight loss or dehydration, and those who have not responded to antidepressants. If the patient is unable to consent, their capacity must be assessed and treatment may be given under the Mental Health Act. NG tube insertion, emergency antidepressants, lithium, and cognitive behavioural therapy are not appropriate options for this acute situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his lithium dosage and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (4 hours ago). In how many hours should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?

      Your Answer: 12 hours

      Correct Answer: 8 hours

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance, after being...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance, after being found confused by members of the public for the fifth time in the past month. Upon review, he tells you that he came here by bicycle after spending the afternoon with his friends doing shopping, and then later tells you he spent today in the pub with his new dog. He smells strongly of alcohol and you notice a near-empty bottle of unlabelled spirit with him.
      On examination, he has an ataxic gait, dysdiadochokinesia and horizontal nystagmus.
      When you go back later to see him, he has forgotten your previous interaction.
      Which of the following explains his signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The individual who arrived at the emergency department is exhibiting symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a result of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. These symptoms include cerebellar signs, eye signs, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Additionally, the individual is carrying a bottle of alcohol and is inconsistent in their recollection of recent events.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which leads to damage and bleeding in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often develops after untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended dose increase. When should her levels be re-checked?

      Your Answer: In 1 week

      Explanation:

      Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, if the levels remain stable, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old Indigenous male with a lengthy history of heavy alcohol use is...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old Indigenous male with a lengthy history of heavy alcohol use is hospitalized after experiencing a seizure upon stopping alcohol consumption. The physician observes that the patient is experiencing memory difficulties, as evidenced by his detailed recollection of events from the previous day in the hospital that are completely different from what actually occurred. The patient does not appear to have any intention of deceiving the doctor.
      What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormality?

      Your Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      Common Terms in Psychiatry

      Confabulation is the act of unintentionally reporting false memories that seem plausible. This can occur in individuals with Alzheimer’s disease or Korsakoff syndrome. Concrete thinking is a type of thinking where a person has difficulty thinking abstractly and may interpret proverbs literally. Hallucinations are sensory experiences that are not caused by external stimuli. Thought blocking is when a person suddenly stops their train of thought. Thought insertion is a delusion where a person believes that their thoughts are being placed in their mind by an external force.

      These terms are commonly used in psychiatry to describe various symptoms and conditions. It is important to understand their meanings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients. Confabulation and concrete thinking may be indicative of cognitive impairment, while hallucinations and delusions may be symptoms of a psychotic disorder. Thought blocking may occur in individuals with schizophrenia, while thought insertion may be a symptom of delusional disorder. By these terms, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man visits his doctor six weeks after being diagnosed with generalised...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man visits his doctor six weeks after being diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). Despite undergoing cognitive behavioural therapy for a few sessions, his symptoms continue to significantly impact his daily routine. He inquires about the possibility of taking medication for his anxiety.
      What is the primary drug class used to treat GAD?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

      Explanation:

      The first-line pharmacological treatment for GAD, according to NICE, is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline. Benzodiazepines should only be used for a short period during a crisis due to their association with dependence and tolerance. If SSRIs or SNRIs cannot be tolerated, pregabalin may be considered as a third-line treatment. SNRIs like venlafaxine or paroxetine are recommended as a second-line treatment. Tricyclic antidepressants are not recommended for GAD but may be effective for panic disorder, although caution should be taken in patients with a history of self-harm or suicidal ideation due to their toxicity in overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of symptoms due to irregular medication intake, leading to his admission under section 2 of the Mental Health Act following a formal mental state assessment. He had been taking Risperidone orally once daily for several years, which had effectively stabilized his mental state while living in the community. Considering his non-adherence, what treatment option would be most appropriate for this individual?

      Your Answer: Switching to a once monthly IM anti-psychotic depo injection

      Explanation:

      Patients who struggle with taking their antipsychotic medication as prescribed may benefit from receiving a once monthly intramuscular depo injection. It is important to maintain a stable mental state and overall well-being for these patients, and switching medications can increase the risk of relapse and recurring symptoms. The goal is to provide the least restrictive treatment possible and minimize hospitalization time as outlined by the Mental Health Act. While daily visits from a home treatment team to administer medication may be a temporary solution, it is not a sustainable long-term option. Similarly, a once-daily intramuscular injection may not be practical or feasible for the patient.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18 paracetamol tablets three hours earlier. She had a row with her husband and took the tablets as she was angry and upset. She called her husband after she took the tablets, who rang for an ambulance.
      This is the first time she has ever done anything like this, and she regrets the fact that she did it. She is currently studying at university, and only drinks recreationally. She is normally fit and well and has no history of mental health conditions.
      Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of a further suicide attempt in someone who has already made a suicide attempt?

      Your Answer: Alcohol or drug abuse, history of violence and single, divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Suicide Attempts

      Individuals who have previously attempted suicide are at an increased risk of making another attempt. Factors that contribute to this risk include a history of previous attempts, personality disorders, alcohol or drug abuse, previous psychiatric treatment, unemployment, lower social class, criminal record, history of violence, and being between the ages of 25 and 54, as well as being single, divorced, or separated. Rates of further suicide attempts in the year following an attempt are high, ranging from 15 to 25 percent. However, being married or having short stature does not appear to be a significant risk factor for repeated suicide attempts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the psychiatric ward with paranoid delusions, auditory hallucinations and violent behaviour. There was no past medical history. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia and given intramuscular haloperidol regularly. Four days later, she became febrile and confused. The haloperidol was stopped, but 2 days later, she developed marked rigidity, sweating and drowsiness. She had a variable blood pressure and pulse rate. Creatine phosphokinase was markedly raised.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: A Potentially Life-Threatening Reaction to Neuroleptic Medication

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare but serious reaction to neuroleptic medication. It is characterized by hyperpyrexia (high fever), autonomic dysfunction, rigidity, altered consciousness, and elevated creatine phosphokinase levels. Treatment involves stopping the neuroleptic medication and cooling the patient. Medications such as bromocriptine, dantrolene, and benzodiazepines may also be used.

      It is important to note that other conditions, such as cerebral abscess, meningitis, and phaeochromocytoma, do not typically present with the same symptoms as NMS. Serotonin syndrome, while similar, usually presents with different symptoms such as disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, tachycardia, hypertension, and tachypnea.

      If you or someone you know is taking neuroleptic medication and experiences symptoms of NMS, seek medical attention immediately. Early recognition and treatment can be life-saving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past 6 months. On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa often have normal BMI, despite purging behavior. Symptoms associated with vomiting include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who desires social connections but is too shy to form relationships due to fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is associated with decreased dietary intake, with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. They also suffer from early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating, without purging behavior. Patients with binge eating disorder often experience distress and weight gain.

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is characterized by a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social transition (living as their preferred gender) or medical transition (hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming).

      Understanding Common Mental Health Disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old unemployed man is evaluated by the Community Psychiatry Team due to...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old unemployed man is evaluated by the Community Psychiatry Team due to a decline in his schizophrenia. The patient was initiated on medication two months ago after being diagnosed with the condition. However, he was unable to tolerate the initial treatment prescribed, and the patient's mother reports that her son's psychotic symptoms have persisted and may have even slightly worsened, despite starting a different type of medication. What is the most potent antipsychotic for stubborn psychotic symptoms?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medications: Types and Side Effects

      Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. There are different types of antipsychotics, including typical and atypical medications. Here are some of the commonly used antipsychotics and their side effects:

      Clozapine: This medication is effective for resistant psychotic symptoms, but it is not used as a first-line treatment due to potential adverse effects. It requires haematological monitoring and can cause serious side effects such as neutropenia and thromboembolism. Common side effects include sedation, constipation, and weight gain.

      Olanzapine: This atypical antipsychotic is commonly used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Its major side effect is weight gain, and patients should have their lipids and blood sugars monitored regularly.

      Risperidone: This medication is helpful for acute exacerbations of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and irritability in autism. It is a qualitatively atypical antipsychotic with a relatively low risk of extrapyramidal side effects.

      Haloperidol: This typical antipsychotic is used for schizophrenia, tics in Tourette’s, mania in bipolar disorder, and nausea and vomiting. It should be avoided in Parkinson’s disease and can cause tardive dyskinesia, QT prolongation, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Quetiapine: This atypical antipsychotic is used for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and major depressive disorder. Common side effects include sleepiness, constipation, weight gain, and dry mouth.

      In conclusion, antipsychotic medications can be effective in treating psychotic symptoms, but they also come with potential side effects that need to be monitored. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to find the right medication and dosage for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with stiffness in his muscles, difficulty initiating movements such as getting up from a chair, slow movements and hand shaking, which started 5 weeks ago. He has a medical history of schizophrenia and has had good compliance with his medication for the past 3 months. He is taking haloperidol. On examination, his temperature is 37.5 °C, blood pressure 120/81 mmHg and pulse 98 bpm. On examination, there is decreased facial expression, pill-rolling tremor, cogwheel rigidity and festinating gait.
      Which of the following terms describes the symptoms of this patient?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Correct Answer: Bradykinesia

      Explanation:

      Common Neurological Side Effects of Medications

      Medications can sometimes cause neurological side effects that mimic symptoms of neurological disorders. One such side effect is called pseudo-parkinsonism, which is characterized by bradykinesia or slowness in movements. This can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotic medication, anti-emetics like metoclopramide, and some calcium channel blockers like cinnarizine.

      Another side effect is acute dystonia, which is the sudden and sustained contraction of muscles in any part of the body, usually following the administration of a neuroleptic agent. Akathisia is another symptom associated with antipsychotic use, which is characterized by restlessness and the inability to remain motionless.

      Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect that is characterized by involuntary muscle movements, usually affecting the tongue, lips, trunk, and extremities. This is seen in patients who are on long-term anti-dopaminergic medication such as antipsychotic medication (both typical and atypical), some antidepressants, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and others.

      Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a life-threatening condition associated with the use of antipsychotic medication. It is characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, changes in level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. Management is supportive, and symptoms generally resolve within 1-2 weeks.

      Understanding the Neurological Side Effects of Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A middle-aged man presents with persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. His expression appears...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man presents with persecutory delusions and auditory hallucinations. His expression appears to have a reduced affect. He has disorganised speech and thinking.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Psychiatric Conditions

      Schizophrenia is a prevalent psychiatric condition that affects individuals with positive and negative symptoms, as well as a breakdown in thinking. Positive symptoms include delusions and hallucinations, while negative symptoms refer to reduced mood and blunted affect. Agoraphobia, on the other hand, is an anxiety disorder where patients perceive the outside environment as unsafe. Frontotemporal dementia and early-onset dementia are unlikely presentations for a young patient with disorganized speech and thinking and reduced affect. Endogenous depression, which is more common in women, presents with sudden loss of energy or motivation in daily routines and neurotic thinking, such as anxiety, sleep disturbance, and mood swings. Understanding these conditions can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is evaluated by his psychiatrist, who has been...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is evaluated by his psychiatrist, who has been his doctor for more than a decade. During the consultation, the psychiatrist observes that the patient provides brief responses to all inquiries and appears to lack the spontaneous speech that would typically accompany such a response. For instance, when asked How have your grandchildren been since I last saw you?, the patient replies, Fine. Later on, the psychiatrist inquires, Which of your grandchildren are doing well? The patient responds, Samantha. It takes several more questions to determine that Samantha has been excelling in school and has recently won an award.

      Which symptom of schizophrenia is the patient exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Alogia

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Alogia, affective flattening, anhedonia, apathy, and formal thought disorder are all symptoms of schizophrenia. Alogia is characterized by a lack of spontaneous speech, where the individual fails to elaborate on their answers in a way that is expected. Affective flattening refers to the loss of a normal range of emotional expression, where the individual may not react appropriately to events. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Apathy is a sense of indifference and lack of interest in things that would normally be of interest. Formal thought disorder can manifest in various ways, such as circumstantiality, tangentiality, or derailments. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s ability to function in daily life and can be distressing for both the individual and their loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 33-year-old woman who has never given birth before comes for her first...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman who has never given birth before comes for her first prenatal visit at 29 weeks gestation. She is currently taking fluoxetine and lactulose and is concerned about the potential risks to her baby. What is a possible danger of using fluoxetine during the third trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Persistent pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, it is important to assess the potential benefits and risks. While using SSRIs during the first trimester may slightly increase the risk of congenital heart defects, using them during the third trimester can lead to persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Additionally, paroxetine has a higher risk of congenital malformations, especially during the first trimester.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his partner reported he ingested multiple tablets of paracetamol after an argument. The patient is currently medically stable and can give a history to the attending emergency physician. He reports that he regrets taking the tablets and that this is the first time he has committed such an act. He claims that he acted in a moment of anger after the argument and never planned for this to happen. He suffers from moderate depression which has been managed by his general practitioner with sertraline. He consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and denies any abuse of recreational drugs. He has no family history of mental illness.
      Which one of the following is an important dynamic risk factor to consider when managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Self-harm plans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Static and Dynamic Risk Factors for Suicide Risk Assessment

      Suicide risk assessment involves evaluating both static and dynamic risk factors. Static risk factors, such as age, sex, and previous history of self-harm, cannot be changed. Dynamic risk factors, such as drug use, self-harm plans, and income/employment status, can potentially be modified to reduce future risk of suicide.

      Having a well-thought-out plan for self-harm is a major risk factor for suicide. Asking patients about their suicide plans can identify those at highest risk and allow for early intervention. Self-harm plans are a dynamic risk factor that can be acted upon to mitigate future risk of suicide.

      A history of drug abuse and alcohol misuse are static risk factors for suicide. While interventions are available to manage current drug and alcohol misuse, a history of misuse cannot be modified.

      A history of self-harm is also a risk factor for suicide, as individuals who have previously attempted suicide are more likely to do so in the future. However, a history of self-harm is a static risk factor and should not be considered a dynamic risk factor for suicide risk assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old bipolar woman has been readmitted to the hospital after attempting to harm herself. She is currently stable. What form of psychotherapy would be most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Psychotherapy Options for Schizophrenia

      There are several psychotherapy options available for individuals with schizophrenia. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a structured, goal-directed, problem-focused, and time-limited therapy that combines principles of both behavioural and cognitive therapy. It focuses on the environment, behaviour, and cognition simultaneously. Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy primarily relies on insight, bringing unconscious or unclear material into awareness, and linking past and present experiences to address the patient’s difficulties. Interpersonal therapy is derived partially from a psychodynamic perspective and focuses primarily on the patient’s interpersonal relationships. It is fairly non-directive and addresses issues such as grief, role transitions, interpersonal role disputes, and interpersonal deficits as they relate to the patient’s current symptoms.

      Family therapy is another option that helps family members learn about the disorder, solve problems, and cope more constructively with the patient’s illness. There is evidence that family interventions can reduce relapse rates in schizophrenia. Systemic desensitisation is an exposure-based behavioural treatment that utilises gradual, systematic, repeated exposure to the feared object or situation to allow patients with anxiety disorders to become desensitised to the feared stimulus.

      The decision between CBT and family therapy would be highly influenced by patient preference. However, if only CBT is presented as an option, it would be the appropriate choice. It is important to consider the different psychotherapy options available and choose the one that best suits the patient’s needs and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local shopping centre late at night. Apparently, he has attended the Emergency Department on two previous occasions, one when he made a number of cuts to his forearms with a knife, and another when he was drunk and disorderly. When you question him in the Emergency Department, he tells you that he is a spy, that the TVs in the local department store are reading his thoughts and that voices are telling him to kill his mother as she is informing on him. He mentions that this has been going on for two months. He rambles when you talk to him and seems to have created a number of new words to describe his mission.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.6 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 203 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 31 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Schizophrenia from Other Mental Health Conditions

      The patient’s disordered speech, derogatory hallucinations, and delusions about the television reading his thoughts are indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are often accompanied by thoughts of persecution or paranoia, which are known as first rank symptoms.

      A manic episode is less likely as there is no history of overspending, pressured speech, or flight of thoughts. Similarly, endogenous depression is unlikely as neologisms and incoherent speech are not common presenting symptoms.

      Drug-induced psychosis is also unlikely as neologisms and delusions about being a spy are not typical symptoms. Alcohol intoxication is also less likely as there is no evidence of alcohol involvement in this presentation or previous visits to Casualty.

      Therefore, based on the symptoms presented, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting wild again’. She drinks moderately about once a week. She is not sleeping much, talks incessantly about plans to travel the world and has made many impulsive and irrational purchases. She reports hearing voices but refuses to discuss this issue when questioned by the admitting psychiatrist. She begins a task but does not complete it, all the while making lists of things to be done. She has been starting tasks and not finishing them. She had a similar episode 3 years ago. She also has depressive episodes several times over the last few years and recovered in between them.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychotic Disorders: Differential Diagnosis

      Psychotic disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. However, differentiating between these disorders can be challenging. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with manic and psychotic symptoms:

      Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both manic symptoms and mood-congruent psychotic features. The patient’s lack of insight is characteristic of either mania or psychosis. The need to get a history from a third party is typical. What distinguishes this from schizophrenia is that the patient appears to have a normal mood state.

      Substance-induced psychosis: The use of substances in this scenario is far too little to account for the patient’s symptoms, ruling out psychosis secondary to substance abuse.

      Schizophreniform disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms of schizophrenia of <6 months' duration. Schizophrenia, paranoid type: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms for >6 months and multiple psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, bizarre delusions, and social impairment.

      Schizoaffective disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both mood disorder and schizophrenic symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is not expressing enough schizophrenic symptoms to establish a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder.

      In conclusion, accurate diagnosis of psychotic disorders requires careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms, history, and social functioning. A thorough understanding of the differential diagnosis is essential for effective treatment and management of these complex conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 47-year-old male comes to the GP with concerns about his difficulty falling...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male comes to the GP with concerns about his difficulty falling asleep. He believes that he may be suffering from chronic insomnia, which he has read about online.

      The patient reports that he has attempted various methods to help him sleep, such as meditation and taking a warm bath before bed. However, he feels that he has too many thoughts racing through his mind and cannot seem to turn them off. This occurs at least three times a week and has persisted for the past month.

      What indication would suggest that this individual has misdiagnosed himself?

      Your Answer: Chronic insomnia must be associated with other features, such as sleep apnoea

      Correct Answer: The duration of insomnia is too brief; it must be over 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep for at least three nights per week, they may be diagnosed with chronic insomnia after three months. This form of insomnia can occur alone or together with other sleep disturbances. The diagnosis of chronic insomnia is not limited by age and can be made in patients of any age.

      Insomnia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Insomnia is a common problem reported in primary care, often associated with other physical and mental health complaints. It is defined as difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, or early-morning awakening that leads to dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality, despite adequate time and opportunity for sleep, resulting in impaired daytime functioning. Insomnia may be acute or chronic, with chronic insomnia diagnosed if a person has trouble falling asleep or staying asleep at least three nights per week for 3 months or longer.

      Patients with insomnia typically present with decreased daytime functioning, decreased periods of sleep, or increased accidents due to poor concentration. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia, as management can differ. Risk factors for insomnia include female gender, increased age, lower educational attainment, unemployment, economic inactivity, widowed/divorced/separated status, alcohol and substance abuse, stimulant usage, poor sleep hygiene, chronic pain, chronic illness, and psychiatric illness.

      Diagnosis is primarily made through patient interview, looking for the presence of risk factors. Sleep diaries and actigraphy may aid diagnosis, while polysomnography is not routinely indicated. Short-term management of insomnia involves identifying potential causes, advising good sleep hygiene, and considering the use of hypnotic drugs only if daytime impairment is severe. The recommended hypnotics for treating insomnia are short-acting benzodiazepines or non-benzodiazepines, with the lowest effective dose used for the shortest period possible. Diazepam may be useful if insomnia is linked to daytime anxiety. It is important to review after 2 weeks and consider referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). Other sedative drugs are not recommended for managing insomnia.

      In summary, insomnia is a common problem that can significantly impact a person’s daily functioning. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia and manage it appropriately, with short-term management involving good sleep hygiene and the cautious use of hypnotic drugs. Referral for CBT may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and swollen legs for the past few months. She reported having a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), schizophrenia, and hypertension. Her current medications include tiotropium inhaler, ipratropium bromide inhaler, olanzapine, and nifedipine. She had previously taken bendroflumethiazide, which was discontinued two years ago, and had a 5-day course of 30mg oral prednisolone six months ago due to a COPD exacerbation. Her fasting blood tests revealed:
      Fasting plasma glucose 7 mmol/L (3.9-5.4)
      Random plasma glucose 12 mmol/L (<7.8)
      Which medication is likely responsible for her abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can cause metabolic side effects such as dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus. In this case, the patient’s persistent hyperglycaemia in both fasting blood tests and HBA1c tests has led to a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, likely caused by her regular medication, olanzapine. While the patient has also experienced swollen legs, this is likely due to nifedipine rather than the cause of her deranged blood result. A 5-day course of prednisolone given half a year ago is unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Ipratropium bromide is also an unlikely culprit, as it is not known to increase blood sugar levels. Thiazide diuretics, which can increase blood sugar levels, were stopped two years ago and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Other potential metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics include hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, dyslipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental...

    Incorrect

    • You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental state examination on one of the patients on the inpatient psychiatry ward, a 22-year-old man who was admitted 2 days ago.

      Whenever you ask him a question, you notice that he repeats the question back to you. You notice that he is also repeating some of the phrases you use.

      What form of thought disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Neologism

      Correct Answer: Echolalia

      Explanation:

      Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the questions being asked. Clang association is when someone uses words that rhyme with each other or sound similar. Neologism is the formation of new words. Perseveration is when ideas or words are repeated several times.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of insomnia. She reports feeling persistently anxious and unable to cease worrying about everything. The GP suspects she may have an anxiety disorder.
      What is the most effective tool to use in making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M SASQ)

      Correct Answer: Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7)

      Explanation:

      Common Screening Tools for Mental Health Conditions

      There are several screening tools used in healthcare settings to identify and monitor mental health conditions. These tools help healthcare professionals assess the severity of symptoms and determine appropriate treatment plans. Here are some commonly used screening tools:

      1. Generalised Anxiety Disorder Questionnaire (GAD-7): This questionnaire consists of seven questions and is used to screen for generalised anxiety disorder. It measures the severity of symptoms as mild, moderate, or severe.

      2. Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT): The AUDIT is a screening tool used to identify signs of harmful drinking and dependence on alcohol.

      3. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE): The MMSE is a questionnaire consisting of 30 questions used to identify cognitive impairment. It is commonly used to screen for dementia.

      4. Modified Single-Answer Screening Question (M SASQ): The M SASQ is a single-question alcohol-harm assessment tool designed for use in Emergency Departments. It identifies high-risk drinkers based on their frequency of consuming six or more units (if female, or eight or more if male) on a single occasion in the last year.

      5. Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9): The PHQ-9 is used in primary care to monitor the severity of depression and the response to treatment. It uses each of the nine Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth edition criteria for a diagnosis of depression and scores each domain depending on how often the patient experiences these symptoms.

      These screening tools are valuable resources for healthcare professionals to identify and monitor mental health conditions. By using these tools, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman goes to her GP to discuss symptoms she believes are...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman goes to her GP to discuss symptoms she believes are related to a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). She has been struggling with these symptoms for a few years, but they have worsened in recent months since she started working as a janitor. She experiences intrusive and persistent thoughts about germs, which lead her to repeatedly wash her hands, clothes, and clean her home. Her partner is worried about her, and they argue when he tries to encourage her to resist the urge to clean, as this exacerbates her anxiety symptoms. Which medication is approved for treating OCD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Medications for OCD: A Comparison of Sertraline, Venlafaxine, Citalopram, Diazepam, and Imipramine

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends cognitive behavioral therapy with exposure response therapy and/or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for managing OCD. Sertraline is an SSRI that is licensed for treating OCD. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), is not licensed for OCD treatment. Citalopram, another SSRI, is licensed for depression or panic disorder but not for OCD. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not licensed for OCD treatment due to the risk of dependence or tolerance. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is also not licensed for OCD treatment. The choice of medication or therapy should be based on the severity of symptoms and patient preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of depression comes in 2 months postpartum with symptoms of low mood, lack of energy, and loss of pleasure for the past 3 weeks. She is currently breastfeeding. She has previously taken fluoxetine and found it effective but stopped during pregnancy. After a conversation, she has decided to resume her medication.
      Which antidepressant would be the best choice to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 17-year-old boy visits his doctor complaining of low mood. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy visits his doctor complaining of low mood. He has been experiencing this for the past 5 weeks along with fatigue, anhedonia, and oversleeping. The doctor orders a set of blood tests and his PHQ-9 score indicates moderate depression. The patient has no medical history. He is not interested in cognitive behavioural therapy and wants to begin medication. What is the best medication for him to start with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine is the preferred SSRI for treating depression in children and adolescents.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old basketball player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament repair following an injury....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old basketball player undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament repair following an injury. He is advised by his medical team that he will need an extended period of rest and physiotherapy before he resumes competitive basketball. Following the surgery, he says he feels better and discharges himself. He later goes out with his friends and tells them that he will be back on the court next week.

      What type of coping is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoidance

      Explanation:

      Coping Mechanisms: Understanding Different Approaches to Dealing with Stress

      When faced with stress, individuals often employ coping mechanisms to manage their emotions and reactions. Here are some common coping mechanisms and their definitions:

      Avoidance: This coping mechanism involves denying the existence of a stressor and continuing with one’s usual behavior without making any changes. It is often used when the stressor is too overwhelming to deal with immediately.

      Appraisal: Appraisal involves assessing past events and experiences to make decisions for future arrangements. This coping mechanism can help individuals feel more in control of their situation.

      Projection: Projection is when an individual attributes unwanted thoughts and feelings onto someone else. This can be a way to avoid dealing with one’s own emotions.

      Problem-focused: This coping mechanism involves identifying the causes of a stressor and taking action to reduce or eliminate it. It is a proactive approach to dealing with stress.

      Emotion-focused: Emotion-focused coping involves managing the emotions that a stressor creates. This can involve using drugs or other methods to regulate one’s emotional response.

      Understanding these coping mechanisms can help individuals choose the most effective approach for dealing with stress in their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal behaviour in a police cell. He claimed that there was a conspiracy against him and started acting irrationally. After 36 hours of admission, the patient complains of visual hallucinations and experiences a grand-mal seizure. What is the probable reason behind the seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withdrawal from alcohol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Fits in a Patient with a History of Substance Abuse

      There are several possible causes of fits in a patient with a history of substance abuse. LSD withdrawal and amphetamine withdrawal are not known to cause seizures, but amphetamine withdrawal may lead to depression, intense hunger, and lethargy. Hypercalcaemia is not likely to be the cause of fits in this patient, but hyponatraemia due to water intoxication following ecstasy abuse is a possibility. Alcohol withdrawal is a well-known cause of fits in habitual abusers, along with altered behavior. Although idiopathic epilepsy is a differential diagnosis, it is unlikely given the patient’s history of substance abuse. Overall, there are several potential causes of fits in this patient, and further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines

      Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

      It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of developing schizophrenia or a similar psychotic disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being brought up in an institution

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Related Factors

      Nurture in an institution does not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. However, individuals from social classes IV and V are more prone to the condition. In the United Kingdom, the lifetime risk of schizophrenia is 1%, but this risk increases to 8-10% if there is an affected sibling. It is important to note that temporal lobe epilepsy can cause hallucinations that mimic schizophrenia. Additionally, amphetamines can induce a state that resembles hyperactive paranoid schizophrenia with hallucinations.

      Overall, while environmental factors may play a role in the development of schizophrenia, genetics and neurological conditions are also significant factors to consider. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (21/23) 91%
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