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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman has a solitary thyroid nodule that is confirmed to be...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has a solitary thyroid nodule that is confirmed to be a medullary thyroid tumour on histology. Which type of cells secrete the biochemical tumour marker used to monitor for recurrence?

      Your Answer: Parafollicular cells

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Thyroid Cells

      Thyroid cancer can be detected and monitored through the use of tumor markers, which are substances produced by cancer cells. Different types of thyroid cells produce different tumor markers.

      Parafollicular cells, also known as clear cells or C cells, produce calcitonin, which is a tumor marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC). Elevated levels of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of MTC and can also be used to monitor for recurrence after treatment.

      Follicular cells produce thyroglobulin, which is a tumor marker for papillary and follicular thyroid tumors. Monitoring thyroglobulin levels can help detect the presence of these types of thyroid cancer and monitor for recurrence.

      Pericytes, colloid cells, and endothelial cells do not produce any tumor markers and therefore cannot be used for cancer detection or monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A patient with rectal cancer in their 60s is seen by the colorectal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with rectal cancer in their 60s is seen by the colorectal nurse specialist and is told about a special blood test to monitor their disease.
      Which of the following is this most likely to relate to?

      Your Answer: CA-125

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers: Types and Uses

      Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to diagnose cancer, monitor treatment response, and detect recurrence. Here are some common tumour markers and their uses:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): This glycoprotein is found in normal mucosal cells but increases in adenocarcinoma, particularly colorectal cancer. It is used to monitor disease, rather than as a diagnostic tool.

      CA-19-9: This intracellular adhesion molecule is highly specific for pancreatic and biliary tract cancers but may also be elevated in other cancers. It has a role in predicting metastatic disease.

      Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): This tumour marker is used for hepatocellular carcinoma and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours. It can be used to screen for hepatocellular carcinomas, especially in high-risk patients.

      C-reactive protein (CRP): This marker indicates acute inflammation and is not specific to cancer.

      CA-125: This glycoprotein is a marker for ovarian cancer but can also be elevated in other intra-abdominal cancers and non-malignant conditions. It is mainly used for monitoring after treatment and if ovarian cancer is suspected.

      In conclusion, tumour markers have various uses in cancer diagnosis and management. However, they should always be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and imaging findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of stage III endometrial cancer and mucinous...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of stage III endometrial cancer and mucinous pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. The pain has been ongoing for the last four weeks but has worsened in the last three days as she has run out of her analgesia. She denies nausea or vomiting and she has been opening her bowels regularly. She has not been able to get an appointment with the general practitioner so that the pain medication could be prescribed. She was admitted to a hospice last week for end-of-life care.
      Examination reveals a distended abdomen. There is shifting dullness present. Bowel sounds are present. The abdomen is mildly tender to touch. Her legs are also oedematous.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Paracentesis

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Procedures for a Hospice Patient

      When a patient is admitted to hospice care, their medical treatment shifts towards end-of-life measures and comfort. In this context, certain procedures may not be appropriate or beneficial for the patient.

      Paracentesis is a procedure that may be helpful for a hospice patient experiencing pain due to ascites. This condition is often caused by low albumin levels, which can be due to malabsorption or liver disease.

      Colonoscopy and exploratory laparotomy are invasive procedures that require sedation and post-operative pain management. These procedures are unlikely to provide added benefit to a patient with a terminal diagnosis who is on comfort measures.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a simpler procedure that may be used to investigate for colon masses in patients with iron deficiency anemia.

      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy may be considered for symptom relief, but is not typically indicated for a hospice patient.

      In summary, the appropriateness of a medical procedure for a hospice patient should be carefully considered in the context of their end-of-life care plan.

      Appropriate Procedures for a Hospice Patient

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his tongue, which has failed to heal for over three months and is becoming increasingly bothersome. The patient is otherwise well, with a history of mild osteoarthritis of the knees, but nil else of note. He is a builder, and smokes 30 cigarettes a day for the past 30 years. He drinks around 30 units of alcohol a week.
      Following examination, the patient is referred urgently as a case of suspected cancer of the tongue.
      Which one of the following statements is correct about tongue cancer?

      Your Answer: It may be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting: Tongue Cancer Risk Factors

      Tongue cancer is a rare form of oral carcinoma, accounting for only 2% of overall cancers. While it can be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV), there are several misconceptions about its risk factors. Contrary to popular belief, smoking and alcohol are known risk factors, while coconut ingestion is not. Betel nut ingestion, on the other hand, is associated with an increased risk of tongue cancer. It is important to note that tongue cancer usually metastasises to the upper cervical and submandibular nodes, not the lower cervical nodes. However, early detection and treatment with a combination of surgery and chemoradiotherapy can often lead to a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old patient with breast carcinoma is discovered to have a 1.5 cm tumour in the upper outer quadrant (OUQ) of her left breast. One local axillary node is positive, and no metastases are detected on imaging.
      What is the accurate TNM (Tumour, Nodes, and Metastases) staging for her?

      Your Answer: T1, N1, M0

      Explanation:

      TNM Staging and Examples

      TNM staging is a system used to describe the extent of cancer in a patient’s body. It takes into account the size of the tumor (T), whether it has spread to nearby lymph nodes (N), and whether it has metastasized to distant organs (M). The categories are further subdivided to provide more detailed information. Based on the TNM categories, cancers are grouped into stages, which help determine the most appropriate treatment options.

      Examples of TNM staging include:

      – T1, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), one local axillary node is positive (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T0, Nx, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1). Nx would mean that spread to local lymph nodes was not assessed.
      – T1, N0, M1: There was one positive axillary lymph node (N1), and there are no distant metastases (M0).
      – T2, N1, M0: The tumor is ≤2 cm in size (T1), and there was one positive axillary lymph node (N1).
      – T1, N1, Mx: There are no distant metastases (M0).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history of pain under her right rib cage and 2 days history of yellow skin and pale stools. She has also experienced a weight loss of 2 stone over the last 6 months. What would be the appropriate tumour marker investigation for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CA 19–9

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Associated Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring certain types of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and the cancers they are associated with:

      – CA 19-9: This marker is associated with cholangiocarcinoma, but can also be positive in pancreatic and colorectal cancer.
      – CA 15-3: This marker is associated with breast cancer.
      – AFP: This marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and teratomas.
      – CEA: This marker is associated with colorectal cancer.
      – CA 125: This marker is associated with ovarian, uterine, and breast cancer.

      It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A pre-med student is preparing for her oncology rotation and is studying the...

    Correct

    • A pre-med student is preparing for her oncology rotation and is studying the use of tumour markers in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer.
      Which of the following tumour markers is accurately matched with the cancer it is linked to?

      Your Answer: Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Association with Specific Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. These markers can be used to screen for and monitor certain types of cancer. Here are some examples of tumor markers and their association with specific cancers:

      – Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma: AFP is raised in 80% of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. High-risk patients should be offered 6-monthly screening with a combination of hepatic ultrasound and AFP level.
      – CA 15-3 and breast cancer: CA 15-3 is associated with breast cancer.
      – CA 19-9 and pancreatic and biliary tract cancers: CA 19-9 is associated with pancreatic and biliary tract cancers.
      – CA 125 and ovarian cancer: CA 125 is associated with ovarian cancer.
      – Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostatic cancer: PSA is associated with prostatic cancer and benign prostatic hypertrophy.
      – Testicular cancer: Testicular cancer can be associated with AFP, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), depending on the tumor type.

      It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions. Therefore, tumor markers should always be interpreted in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old woman presented to the Oncology Clinic with chronic cough with haemoptysis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presented to the Oncology Clinic with chronic cough with haemoptysis, she has a long standing heavy smoking history. A bronchoscopy was performed which showed a tumour confined to the left main bronchus. A biopsy was taken and showed small cell lung cancer. She then had a staging computed tomography (CT) scan which showed a TNM grading of T2, N1, M0. She does not have any other medical co-morbidities and is usually independent in all daily activities.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Surgery

      Correct Answer: Chemotherapy and radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Small Cell Lung Cancer

      Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that is often treated with a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. According to NICE guidelines, concurrent chemoradiotherapy is the recommended first-line treatment for limited-stage disease. Radiotherapy alone is less effective than combination therapy.

      Surgery is not routinely recommended for limited disease, but may be considered for patients with very early stage disease. Interferon-alpha is no longer recommended for small cell lung cancer.

      For patients with extensive metastatic disease, palliative chemotherapy may be offered. However, this decision should be discussed with the patient. In the case of a patient without significant co-morbidities and no metastases, other treatment options may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 9 - A 53 year old female presents with a breast lump and is referred...

    Correct

    • A 53 year old female presents with a breast lump and is referred to the 2 week wait suspected cancer breast clinic. Biopsy confirms the presence of a HER-2 positive breast carcinoma. Which immunological therapy is appropriate for treatment?

      Your Answer: Trastuzumab

      Explanation:

      Immunological Therapies for Breast Cancer: A Comparison of Trastuzumab, Infliximab, and Rituximab

      Breast cancer is a prevalent disease among women, and HER-2 receptor positive breast cancers have a worse prognosis. Trastuzumab, a monoclonal antibody therapy, has improved the treatment and survival of HER-2 positive breast cancers. On the other hand, Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis factor alpha, is used to treat autoimmune diseases and has no role in breast carcinoma treatment. Rituximab, another immunological therapy, is primarily used in the management of rheumatoid disease. Tamoxifen, a hormonal therapy, is used in the treatment of breast cancer when the carcinoma is confirmed as oestrogen receptor positive (ER+). Doxorubicin, a chemotherapy agent, is used in the treatment of advanced breast cancer. Understanding the differences between these therapies is crucial in determining the best treatment plan for breast cancer patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell, with fever...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell, with fever and a cough. She had chemotherapy for her breast cancer 4 days ago. There are no known drug allergies. On examination:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Blood pressure (BP) 108/70 < 120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate (HR) 101 60–100 beats/min
      Respiratory rate (RR) 26 12–18 breaths/min
      Sats 96% on air 94–98%
      Temperature 38.7ºC 36.1–37.2°C
      There is some scattered crepitations at the right lung base. You check on the system and see that bloods were done 2 days ago, and showed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 120 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 3.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next-step management?

      Your Answer: Start IV piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)

      Explanation:

      Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Post-Chemotherapy Patient

      When a patient presents with neutropenic sepsis post-chemotherapy, it is crucial to start a broad-spectrum antibiotic immediately, without waiting for blood results or investigations. Tazocin is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE, but local hospital guidelines should be consulted if there is a known penicillin allergy. The Sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated promptly, and antibiotics should be administered within an hour of presentation. Once the patient is stabilized, an urgent chest X-ray can be performed. While granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) administration may have a role in selected patients, it is not routinely used in neutropenic sepsis. Consultation with the haematology team is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Oncology (8/10) 80%
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