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  • Question 1 - Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following breast tumors is most commonly linked to the risk of spreading to the opposite breast?

      Your Answer: Atypical ductal hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A classic characteristic of invasive lobular carcinoma is the possibility of metastasis to the opposite breast.

      Understanding Lobular Carcinoma of the Breast

      Lobular carcinoma of the breast is a less common type of breast cancer that presents differently from ductal carcinoma. The mass is usually more diffuse and less obvious on imaging tests like ultrasound and mammography, which can result in inadequate treatment if the disease is understaged. For women with invasive lobular carcinoma, an MRI scan of the breast is usually recommended before breast conserving surgery is performed to ensure the safest approach.

      Lobular carcinomas are also more likely to be multifocal and metastasize to the opposite breast. In some cases, lobular carcinoma in situ may be diagnosed incidentally on core biopsies. Unlike ductal carcinoma in situ, lobular carcinoma in situ is less strongly associated with foci of invasion and is usually managed through close monitoring. Understanding the differences between lobular and ductal carcinoma can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for patients with breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - A female patient comes in with a history of struggling to conceive for...

    Incorrect

    • A female patient comes in with a history of struggling to conceive for two and a half years. Upon further examination with an ultrasound, it is discovered that fibroids are present and may be hindering embryo implantation. Where is the most probable location of these fibroids?

      Your Answer: Uterus- intramural

      Correct Answer: Uterus- submucosal

      Explanation:

      When it comes to fibroids and difficulty conceiving, submucosal fibroids are the most likely culprit. These fibroids are located in the uterine cavity and can interfere with the implantation of an embryo. Intramural and subserosal fibroids are less likely to cause fertility issues, but they can cause symptoms such as increased urinary frequency and constipation due to their size and location. It’s important to note that fibroids are typically found within the uterus and not outside of it.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are believed to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility, but this is rare.

      Diagnosis is usually done through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is necessary. For menorrhagia, treatment options include the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, oral progestogen, and injectable progestogen. Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids includes GnRH agonists and ulipristal acetate, while surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, and complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia have been mentioned previously. Another complication is red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour and commonly occurs during pregnancy. Understanding uterine fibroids is important for women’s health, and seeking medical attention is necessary if symptoms arise.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 3 - A 25 year old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast. She mentions that she has noticed it for about 3 months and is worried because it hasn't disappeared. During the physical examination, a 1.5cm lump is found in the left breast. It is smooth, movable, and not attached to the skin. There are no changes in the nipple or skin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      The most frequent breast lumps in women aged 15-25 are fibroadenomas. These lumps are usually firm, mobile, and less than 3 cm in size. They are not a cause for concern and typically disappear within a few years.

      Fat necrosis is a condition that occurs after breast trauma, such as a sports injury or core needle biopsy. The affected area may be tender and show bruising. However, it usually resolves on its own and is unlikely to persist for an extended period.

      Overview of Benign Breast Lesions

      Benign breast lesions are non-cancerous growths that can occur in the breast tissue. There are several types of benign breast lesions, each with their own unique features and treatment options.

      Fibroadenomas are one of the most common types of benign breast lesions, accounting for 12% of all breast masses. They develop from a whole lobule and are typically mobile, firm breast lumps. While they do not increase the risk of malignancy, surgical excision is usually recommended if the lesion is larger than 3 cm. Phyllodes tumors, a rare type of fibroadenoma, should be widely excised or removed with a mastectomy if the lesion is large.

      Breast cysts are another common type of benign breast lesion, with 7% of all Western females presenting with one. They usually present as a smooth, discrete lump and may be aspirated. However, if the cyst is blood-stained or persistently refills, it should be biopsied or excised.

      Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions can cause mammographic changes that mimic carcinoma. However, they are considered a disorder of involution and do not increase the risk of malignancy. Biopsy is recommended, but excision is not mandatory.

      Epithelial hyperplasia is a disorder that consists of increased cellularity of the terminal lobular unit, and atypical features may be present. Those with atypical features and a family history of breast cancer have a greatly increased risk of malignancy and may require surgical resection.

      Fat necrosis can occur in up to 40% of cases and usually has a traumatic cause. Physical features may mimic carcinoma, but imaging and core biopsy can help diagnose the lesion.

      Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy if they are large. However, they do not increase the risk of malignancy.

      Overall, benign breast lesions can have varying presentations and treatment options. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old primigravid woman visits the antenatal clinic for her 20-week scan. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravid woman visits the antenatal clinic for her 20-week scan. She is informed that the combined test results indicate a high probability of her fetus having Down's syndrome.

      What were the probable outcomes of her combined test?

      Your Answer: ↓ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, decreased amount of nuchal fluid

      Correct Answer: ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, increased amount of nuchal fluid

      Explanation:

      The presence of ↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, and a thickened nuchal translucency is indicative of Down’s syndrome. The combined screening test, which includes an ultrasound scan and blood test, is used to assess the risk of the fetus having Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome, and Patau’s syndrome. However, a diagnostic test such as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling is required to confirm the diagnosis. Advanced maternal age is also a significant risk factor for Down’s syndrome. The answer choices ‘↑ HCG, ↑ PAPP-A, increased amount of nuchal fluid’, ‘↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, normal amount of nuchal fluid’, and ‘↓ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, decreased amount of nuchal fluid’ are incorrect as they do not match the typical indicators of Down’s syndrome.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The quadruple test should be offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results of both tests return either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ result. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she will be offered a second screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA from placental cells in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, with private companies offering screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old woman visits her general practice for her regular cervical screening. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman visits her general practice for her regular cervical screening. During the screening, a sample of cells is collected from the endocervix and sent to the laboratory for analysis. The initial screening reveals the detection of high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV).

      What is the subsequent step in the screening process for this patient?

      Your Answer: Take a further smear for cytological examination

      Correct Answer: Cytological examination of the current smear

      Explanation:

      When a cervical smear sample tests positive for high-risk HPV (hrHPV), it undergoes cytological examination to check for abnormal cellular changes that may indicate early cervical cancer. In the UK, cervical screening is offered to women between the ages of 25 and 65, with those aged 25-50 offered a smear every 3 years and those aged 50-65 offered a smear every 5 years. The aim of the screening programme is to detect cervical changes early on. HPV, a sexually transmitted virus, is present in almost all sexually active individuals, and HPV 16 or 18 is present in almost all cases of cervical cancer. If hrHPV is not detected, no further testing is required, and the patient can return to routine screening. Repeating the smear is not necessary following the presence of hrHPV, but a repeat smear may be required if the laboratory report an inadequate sample. Prior to colposcopy investigation, the sample must be positive for hrHPV and dyskaryosis.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with urinary incontinence. Where is Onuf's nucleus expected...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with urinary incontinence. Where is Onuf's nucleus expected to be located?

      Your Answer: Micturition centre in the Pons

      Correct Answer: Anterior horn of S2 nerve roots

      Explanation:

      The Onufs nucleus, which is responsible for providing neurons to the external urethral sphincter, is located in the anterior horn of S2. In females, the sphincter complex at the bladder neck is not well-developed, making the external sphincter complex more important. It is innervated by the pudendal nerve, and damage to this nerve due to obstetric events can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The bladder is innervated by the pudendal, hypogastric, and pelvic nerves, which also carry autonomic nerves. Sympathetic nerves cause detrusor relaxation and sphincter contraction during bladder filling, while parasympathetic nerves cause detrusor contraction and sphincter relaxation. The Pons is responsible for centrally mediating control of micturition.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with significant pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with significant pain in her right iliac region and slight vaginal bleeding. She reports having missed her period for the past seven weeks, despite previously having regular 28-day cycles. Upon examination, tenderness is noted in her lower abdomen near the site of pain. A quantitative urine pregnancy test is ordered to detect which hormone?

      Your Answer: β- human chorionic gonadotrophin

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy can be detected through urine tests that identify the beta subunit of the human chorionic gonadotrophin. This hormone increases during the first trimester of pregnancy to support progesterone production by the corpus luteum. Although the alpha subunit of this hormone is identical to that of other hormones, such as luteinising hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, and thyroid stimulating hormone, it is the beta subunit that is recognized and used as a marker for pregnancy. The pituitary gland secretes luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone in all humans, but these hormones are not indicative of pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. In fact, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the tubal region, with the majority in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of cells that forms the placenta, invades the tubal wall. This invasion can cause bleeding, which may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy includes absorption and tubal abortion, with the latter being the most common. In tubal abortion, the embryo is expelled from the tube, resulting in bleeding and pain. In tubal absorption, the tube may not rupture, and the blood and embryo may be shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications.

      In summary, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pelvic pain...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pelvic pain on the left side and absence of menstruation. During the physical examination, the doctor discovers tenderness in the pelvic area. A pregnancy test confirms a positive result, and a transvaginal ultrasound is conducted, revealing a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a fetal heartbeat. As a result, a laparoscopic salpingectomy is carried out.

      In which anatomical structure is this condition most likely located?

      Your Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      The Broad ligament is where the Fallopian tubes are located. If a tubal ectopic pregnancy is detected with a fetal heartbeat, the recommended treatment is a laparoscopic salpingectomy. This surgical procedure involves removing the affected Fallopian tube by accessing it within the Broad ligament. However, if there are other risk factors for infertility, a laparoscopic salpingotomy may be performed instead.

      On the other hand, the Cardinal ligament contains the uterine vessels and is not involved in ectopic pregnancy. It may be operated on in cases of uterine fibroids through a laparoscopic myomectomy.

      The Ovarian ligament attaches the ovaries to the uterus but does not contain any structures. Meanwhile, the Round ligament attaches the uterine fundus to the labia majora but also does not contain any structures.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic pain, deep dyspareunia, and heavy and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. The Gynaecology team is consulted and performs a work-up for suspected pelvic inflammatory disease, including urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity, blood cultures, and a high vaginal swab. What organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      If Chlamydia trachomatis is not treated, PID may develop in a significant number of patients. This can lead to serious consequences such as infertility, chronic pain, and ectopic pregnancy caused by scarring.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old primigravida, at 8 weeks gestation presents for her prenatal check-up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida, at 8 weeks gestation presents for her prenatal check-up. She reports taking a daily vitamin and denies any use of tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. On examination, her blood pressure is 118/66 mmHg and pulse is 78/min. Bimanual examination reveals a 10-week-sized non-tender uterus with no adnexal masses or tenderness. Ultrasound shows two 8-week intrauterine gestations with normal heartbeats, a single placenta, and no dividing intertwine membrane.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Heterotopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Monochorionic monoamniotic twins

      Explanation:

      Twin Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Twin pregnancies occur in approximately 1 out of 105 pregnancies, with the majority being dizygotic or non-identical twins. Monozygotic or identical twins, on the other hand, develop from a single ovum that has divided to form two embryos. However, monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with increased risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and twin-to-twin transfusions. The incidence of dizygotic twins is increasing due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilisation, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean.

      Antenatal complications of twin pregnancies include polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and antepartum haemorrhage. Fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations, especially in monozygotic twins. Labour complications may also arise, such as postpartum haemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement.

      Management of twin pregnancies involves rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labour, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most are induced at 38-40 weeks. Overall, twin pregnancies require close monitoring and management to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and babies.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 11 - A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy is feeling self-conscious about being one of the shortest in his class and not having experienced a deepening of his voice yet. His mother takes him to see the GP, who conducts a comprehensive history and examination. The doctor provides reassurance that the boy is developing normally and explains that puberty occurs at varying times for each individual. What are the cells in the testes that secrete testosterone?

      Your Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      Spermatogonia are male germ cells that are not yet differentiated and undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes. Leydig cells are interstitial cells found in the testes that secrete testosterone in response to LH secretion. Sertoli cells are part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes and are activated by FSH. They nourish developing sperm cells. Myoid cells are contractile cells that generate peristaltic waves. They surround the basement membrane of the testes.

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

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  • Question 12 - A woman in her early pregnancy has her kidney function assessed during a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early pregnancy has her kidney function assessed during a regular check-up. It is observed that her plasma urea and creatinine levels have decreased compared to her pre-pregnancy levels. What is the reason for this change?

      Your Answer: Increased renal filtration efficiency

      Correct Answer: Increased renal perfusion

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, plasma urea and creatinine levels decrease due to increased renal perfusion, which allows for more efficient clearing of these substances from the circulation. Additionally, the increased plasma volume dilutes these substances. This is a result of physiological changes in pregnancy, such as increased uterine size, cervical ectropion, and increased vaginal discharge. Cardiovascular and haemodynamic changes also occur, including increased plasma volume and decreased levels of albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects, such as muscle relaxation, can lead to decreased blood pressure, constipation, and bladder relaxation. It is important to note that the foetus does not have functioning kidneys, and the mother filters the blood for it.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

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  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman who has recently found out that she is pregnant presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who has recently found out that she is pregnant presents to you with concerns about her hypertension. She reports having chronic hypertension for the past two years and is currently taking lisinopril. She has no other medical issues. Her blood pressure reading today is 150/88 mmHg. She seeks your guidance on managing hypertension during pregnancy.

      What recommendation would you make?

      Your Answer: Continue ramipril and start labetalol

      Correct Answer: Discontinue ramipril and start labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women should discontinue the use of ACE inhibitors like ramipril or AIIRA like losartan as they have been linked to negative fetal outcomes. Labetalol is typically the preferred medication for managing hypertension during pregnancy, unless there are medical reasons not to use it.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her primary care clinic with concerns about cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her primary care clinic with concerns about cervical cancer after reading an article about the disease. She is seeking information about the screening process for detecting cervical cancer and how it is performed.

      What guidance should be provided to the patient regarding screening for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 25-64

      Correct Answer: All women are initially screened for high-risk HPV between the ages of 25-64

      Explanation:

      The first step in screening for cervical cancer in women aged 25-64 is to test their cervical smear samples for high-risk HPV. If the test is positive, the same sample is then analyzed for abnormal cytology. The recommended frequency of smear tests is every 3 years for women aged 25-49 and every 5 years for women aged 50-64 in the UK screening programme. Therefore, the statements All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 18-64, All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 25-64, and All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 30-64 are incorrect as they either refer to the wrong screening test or age range.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of endometriosis, including pelvic pain...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of endometriosis, including pelvic pain and pain during bowel movements. Where is the probable site of blood accumulation resulting from the presence of endometrial tissue outside the pelvic region?

      Your Answer: Pouch of Douglas (rectouterine pouch)

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause of the woman’s pain during defecation is bleeding in either the bowel or the pouch of Douglas. Since the only given option is the latter, it is the correct answer. Bleeding into the ovaries can result in ‘chocolate cysts’ that can be observed during laparoscopy. None of the other options mentioned provide anatomical landmarks that could lead to bleeding in the spaces and pain during defecation.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours after giving birth. The delivery was uncomplicated. On examination, her pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and respirations are 24/min. Diffuse crackles are heard in all lung fields and pulse oximetry shows 85%. A chest x-ray reveals a peripheral wedge-shaped opacity. Despite appropriate interventions, she passes away. Autopsy findings reveal fetal squamous cells in the pulmonary blood vessels.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary thromboembolism

      Correct Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The presence of fetal squamous cells in the maternal blood vessels of a woman who died during or after labor suggests that she had amniotic fluid embolism instead of pulmonary thromboembolism.

      The patient displayed symptoms of pulmonary embolism shortly after giving birth, including acute shortness of breath, tachycardia, and tachypnea, as well as a wedge-shaped infarction on her chest x-ray. The resulting hypoventilation caused hypoxia. Given that pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, there is an increased risk of thrombus formation and subsequent embolization, making pulmonary thromboembolism the primary differential diagnosis.

      However, the histological findings during autopsy confirmed that the woman had amniotic fluid embolism, as fetal squamous cells were found in her maternal blood vessels. The risk of fetal and maternal blood mixing is highest during the third trimester and delivery, and fetal cells can act as thrombogenic factors. Although rare, this condition has a high mortality rate, and even those who survive often experience severe deficits, including neurological damage.

      Fat embolism typically occurs after long bone fractures or orthopedic surgeries, while air embolism is very rare but can cause immediate death. Cholesterol embolization is a common scenario after cannulation, such as angiography, where the catheter mechanically displaces the cholesterol thrombus, leading to emboli.

      Amniotic Fluid Embolism: A Rare but Life-Threatening Complication of Pregnancy

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but potentially fatal complication of pregnancy that occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a severe reaction. Although many risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unknown. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases occur during labor, but they can also occur during cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of amniotic fluid embolism include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. However, there are no definitive diagnostic tests for this condition, and diagnosis is usually made by excluding other possible causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires immediate critical care by a multidisciplinary team, as the condition can be life-threatening. Treatment is primarily supportive, and the focus is on stabilizing the patient’s vital signs and providing respiratory and cardiovascular support as needed. Despite advances in medical care, the mortality rate associated with amniotic fluid embolism remains high, underscoring the need for continued research into the underlying causes and potential treatments for this rare but serious complication of pregnancy.

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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 11 weeks pregnant. Upon examination, there is evidence of bleeding, but the size of the uterus is consistent with the given dates, and the cervical os is closed. What is the most appropriate term to describe this scenario?

      Your Answer: Septic miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. It is a common occurrence, with about 10-20% of pregnancies ending in miscarriage. In most cases, the cause of miscarriage is unknown, but it can be due to genetic abnormalities, hormonal imbalances, or health conditions such as diabetes or thyroid problems.

      There are different types of miscarriage, including complete, incomplete, inevitable, and septic. A complete miscarriage is when all fetal tissue has been passed, bleeding has stopped, the uterus is no longer enlarged, and the cervical os is closed. An incomplete miscarriage is when only some fetal parts have been passed, and the cervical os is usually open. An inevitable miscarriage means that a miscarriage is about to occur, with the fetus still possibly alive but the cervical os open and bleeding usually heavier. A septic miscarriage occurs when the contents of the uterus are infected, causing endometritis. Symptoms include offensive vaginal loss, tender uterus, and in cases of pelvic infection, abdominal pain and peritonism.

      Types of Miscarriage

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur during pregnancy. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. One type is threatened miscarriage, which is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. This type of miscarriage complicates up to 25% of all pregnancies.

      Another type is missed (delayed) miscarriage, which is characterized by a gestational sac that contains a dead fetus before 20 weeks without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge and the disappearance of pregnancy symptoms, but pain is not usually present. The cervical os is closed, and when the gestational sac is larger than 25 mm and no embryonic or fetal part can be seen, it is sometimes referred to as a blighted ovum or anembryonic pregnancy.

      Inevitable miscarriage is another type, which is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain. The cervical os is open in this case. Lastly, incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled. This type of miscarriage is characterized by pain and vaginal bleeding, and the cervical os is open. Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help individuals recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate medical attention.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 18 - A healthy 35-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal visit at 12 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 35-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal visit at 12 weeks of gestation. She is a non-smoker, non-drinker, and does not use illicit drugs. Her blood pressure is 112/68 mmHg and pulse is 68/min. During bimanual examination, a 14-week-sized non-tender uterus is noted with no adnexal masses or tenderness. An ultrasound reveals the presence of twins, which comes as a surprise to the patient. Due to a family history of a rare genetic disease, she opts for chorionic villus sampling to screen the twins. The results show karyotypes XX and XX, respectively, with no genetic disease detected.

      What is the most likely outcome if the oocyte divided on day 6 following fertilization?

      Your Answer: One chorion, one amnion, and monozygotic twins

      Correct Answer: One chorion, two amnions, and monozygotic twins

      Explanation:

      Monozygotic twins with one chorion and two amnions are the result of division between days 4 and 8 after fertilization. This type of twinning has diamniotic, monochorionic placentation. Division between days 8 and 12 after fertilization leads to monozygotic twins with monoamniotic, monochorionic placentation, while fertilization of two separate eggs with two separate sperm results in dizygotic twins with diamniotic, dichorionic placentation. It’s important to note that division between days 4 and 8 after fertilization does not result in dizygotic twins.

      Twin Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Twin pregnancies occur in approximately 1 out of 105 pregnancies, with the majority being dizygotic or non-identical twins. Monozygotic or identical twins, on the other hand, develop from a single ovum that has divided to form two embryos. However, monoamniotic monozygotic twins are associated with increased risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, prematurity, and twin-to-twin transfusions. The incidence of dizygotic twins is increasing due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilisation, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean.

      Antenatal complications of twin pregnancies include polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and antepartum haemorrhage. Fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations, especially in monozygotic twins. Labour complications may also arise, such as postpartum haemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement.

      Management of twin pregnancies involves rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labour, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most are induced at 38-40 weeks. Overall, twin pregnancies require close monitoring and management to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and babies.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman has remarried and desires to have children with her new...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has remarried and desires to have children with her new Caucasian husband. However, she already has a 5-year-old child with cystic fibrosis from her previous marriage. She is concerned about the likelihood of having another affected child with her new partner. Can you provide an estimated risk?

      Your Answer: 1 in 500 chance

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100 chance

      Explanation:

      Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Individuals with only one copy of the mutated gene are carriers and typically do not show signs or symptoms of the condition.

      In the case of a female carrier for the CF gene, there is a 1 in 2 chance of producing a gamete carrying the CF gene. If her new partner is also a carrier, he has a 1 in 25 chance of having the CF gene and a 1 in 50 chance of producing a gamete with the CF gene. Therefore, the chance of producing a child with cystic fibrosis is 1 in 100.

      It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis to make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing. This knowledge can help individuals and families better understand the risks and potential outcomes of having children with this condition.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old woman presents with 6 months of gradually increasing abdominal distension, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with 6 months of gradually increasing abdominal distension, abdominal pain and feeling full quickly. She has also experienced recent weight loss. Upon examination, her abdomen is distended with signs of ascites. Her cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) level is elevated (550 IU/mL). An abdominal ultrasound reveals a mass in the left ovary. What is the most frequent histological subtype of the mass, based on the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometrioid

      Correct Answer: Serous

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ovarian Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Ovarian cancer is a type of cancer that affects women, with the peak age of incidence being 60 years. It is the fifth most common malignancy in females and carries a poor prognosis due to late diagnosis. Around 90% of ovarian cancers are epithelial in origin, with 70-80% of cases being due to serous carcinomas. Interestingly, recent studies suggest that the distal end of the fallopian tube is often the site of origin of many ‘ovarian’ cancers.

      There are several risk factors associated with ovarian cancer, including a family history of mutations of the BRCA1 or the BRCA2 gene, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity. Clinical features of ovarian cancer are notoriously vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms, early satiety, and diarrhea.

      To diagnose ovarian cancer, a CA125 test is usually done initially. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 should not be used for screening for ovarian cancer in asymptomatic women. Diagnosis is difficult and usually involves diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer usually involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. The prognosis for ovarian cancer is poor, with 80% of women having advanced disease at presentation and the all stage 5-year survival being 46%. It is traditionally taught that infertility treatment increases the risk of ovarian cancer, as it increases the number of ovulations. However, recent evidence suggests that there is not a significant link. The combined oral contraceptive pill reduces the risk (fewer ovulations) as does having many pregnancies.

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  • Question 21 - A young adult female complains of pelvic pain that occurs during her menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult female complains of pelvic pain that occurs during her menstrual cycle, with intense pain during sexual intercourse and discomfort while passing stool during this period. She reports having regular periods with minimal bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is endometriosis, as she exhibits the typical symptoms of vague pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia, and pain during defecation. These symptoms are caused by the presence of extra-pelvic endometrial tissue that bleeds and irritates the bowel or recto-vaginal pouch.

      Adenomyosis, on the other hand, typically presents with dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and menorrhagia, which are not present in this patient.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia, but it is usually chronic and not cyclical like the pain experienced by this patient. Pain during defecation is also not a common symptom.

      Fibroids may cause pelvic pain, but they do not typically cause dyspareunia or pain during defecation. Menorrhagia is a common symptom of fibroids.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 22 - A gravida 3, para 0 (G3P0) woman at 8 weeks gestation presents to...

    Correct

    • A gravida 3, para 0 (G3P0) woman at 8 weeks gestation presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of vomiting. She reports that she has been unable to keep anything down for the last 4 days and now feels extremely tired. She also reports 8 kg of weight loss since the start of her pregnancy, stating that she now weighs 57kg.

      During the examination, the patient's eyes are sunken, and her mucous membranes appear dry.

      A urine dip shows marked ketosis, but is otherwise unremarkable.

      What is a risk factor for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 23 - At 39 weeks, a fetus is diagnosed with transverse lie and despite undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • At 39 weeks, a fetus is diagnosed with transverse lie and despite undergoing External Cephalic Version at 37 weeks, the position remains unchanged. With only a few days left until the due date, what is the recommended mode of delivery for a fetus in transverse position?

      Your Answer: Ventouse- assisted delivery

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      When a fetus is in transverse lie, it means that its longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. If an ECV has been attempted to change this position and has been unsuccessful, it is advisable to schedule an elective Caesarean section. This is because attempting a natural delivery would be pointless as the baby cannot fit through the pelvis in this position, which could result in a cord prolapse, hypoxia, and ultimately, death.

      Transverse lie is an abnormal foetal presentation where the foetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. It occurs in less than 0.3% of foetuses at term and is more common in women who have had previous pregnancies, have fibroids or other pelvic tumours, are pregnant with twins or triplets, have prematurity, polyhydramnios, or foetal abnormalities. Diagnosis is made during routine antenatal appointments through abdominal examination and ultrasound scan. Complications include pre-term rupture membranes and cord-prolapse. Management options include active management through external cephalic version or elective caesarian section. The decision to perform caesarian section over ECV will depend on various factors.

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  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old female is undergoing examination for an atypical cyst on her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female is undergoing examination for an atypical cyst on her left ovary. Her AFP levels are elevated. Upon biopsy, the following report is obtained:

      Biopsy report: Schiller-Duval bodies are present

      What type of ovarian tumor has developed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Granulosa cell tumour

      Correct Answer: Yolk sac tumour

      Explanation:

      Schiller-Duval bodies seen on histology are a characteristic feature of yolk sac tumor, making it a pathognomonic finding.

      1. Incorrect. Yolk sac tumor would not present with diffuse sheets, nests, and cords of large uniform tumor cells like testicular seminoma.

      2. Incorrect. Call-Exner bodies are not present in yolk sac tumor.

      3. Incorrect. Yolk sac tumor is not a metastasis from a diffuse-type gastric adenocarcinoma, which would have a signet cell histology appearance.

      4. Incorrect. Yolk sac tumor contains tissues from all three germ layers, including ectodermal, mesodermal, and endodermal tissues.

      5. Correct. Schiller-Duval bodies are a unique feature of yolk sac tumor, and it also secretes AFP.

      Types of Ovarian Tumours

      There are four main types of ovarian tumours, including surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastasis. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. These tumours can be either benign or malignant and include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour. Germ cell tumours are more common in adolescent girls and account for 15-20% of tumours. These tumours are similar to cancer types seen in the testicle and can be either benign or malignant. Examples include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma. Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma. Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and include Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma resulting from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.

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  • Question 25 - A 26-year-old, gravida 1 para 1, is interested in learning about the pros...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old, gravida 1 para 1, is interested in learning about the pros and cons of breastfeeding her upcoming newborn. She has been researching the benefits of breast milk online, but stumbled upon an article that presented a negative perspective on breastfeeding. As her healthcare provider, you inform her about the numerous advantages of breast milk, but also mention that there are some potential drawbacks.

      What is one recognized disadvantage of breast milk?

      Your Answer: Inadequate levels of vitamin K

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K levels in breast milk are insufficient, but lactoferrin levels are adequate and promote iron uptake and have antibacterial properties. Breastfeeding is also linked to lower rates of breast and ovarian cancer, ear infections, and type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy seeking advice on supplements or foods...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the pharmacy seeking advice on supplements or foods to take while trying to conceive with her partner. She has no history of pregnancy complications or birth defects and is looking for ways to support a healthy pregnancy. The practitioner informs her that while there is limited evidence to support most pregnancy supplements, there is one in particular that they recommend.

      What supplement could the practitioner be suggesting?

      Your Answer: Ferrous fumarate twice daily

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms folic acid

      Explanation:

      To promote a healthy pregnancy, it is recommended that women take 400mcg of folic acid daily for three months before conception and up to 12 weeks into gestation. However, pregnant women should avoid vitamin A supplements and liver-based products as they can be harmful to the developing fetus. While iron supplements may be recommended for those with iron deficiency anemia, they are not necessary for this patient. It is important for pregnant women to avoid all types of pâté, including vegetable pâtés, as they may contain listeria bacterium.

      Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women

      During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.

      Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended to reduce the risk of neural tube defects and ensure adequate bone health, respectively. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided due to its teratogenic effects. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and NRT may be used only after discussing the risks and benefits.

      Food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella should be avoided by avoiding certain foods. Pregnant women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits and consult with the Health and Safety Executive if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy. Air travel during pregnancy should also be avoided after a certain gestational age, and prescribed medicines should be avoided unless the benefits outweigh the risks.

      Over-the-counter medicines should be used as little as possible during pregnancy, and few complementary therapies have been established as being safe and effective during pregnancy. Pregnant women should also be informed that moderate exercise is not associated with adverse outcomes, but certain activities should be avoided. Sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes. By following these recommendations, pregnant women can ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old G2P1 woman who is 7-weeks pregnant presents to the obstetric emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old G2P1 woman who is 7-weeks pregnant presents to the obstetric emergency department with severe vomiting and nausea. The patient explains that their symptoms started around 3 weeks ago, and are now vomiting up to 12 times a day.

      Her weight is recorded by the doctor, which shows a decrease of 5.5% from her usual weight.

      Investigations show the following results:

      Na+ 131 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Cl- 92 mmol/L (98-106)
      Urea 4.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 115 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Serum ketones 0.1 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L)

      What would be the expected results on an arterial blood gas (ABG)?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum causes significant electrolyte disturbances, leading to hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypochloraemia, and metabolic alkalosis. This is due to the severe nausea, vomiting, and weight loss experienced during pregnancy. While metabolic acidosis may occur in rare cases, it is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum, as blood tests do not indicate elevated ketone levels. A mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis is also not expected in these patients, as it is more commonly seen in those with COPD.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 28 - A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that...

    Correct

    • A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that she has not yet started her periods.

      The 14-year-old has breast bud development, but no signs of menstruation. A pregnancy test comes back negative.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea occurs when a girl has not started menstruating by the age of 15, despite having normal secondary sexual characteristics like breast development. In girls with no secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhoea is defined as the absence of menstruation by the age of 13. Possible causes of primary amenorrhoea include hypothyroidism and imperforate hymen, but not endometriosis, which typically causes heavy and/or painful periods. While delayed menarche can occur spontaneously before the age of 18, this girl’s symptoms are not within the normal range of variation. Malnutrition or extreme exercise are more likely to cause primary amenorrhoea than obesity-induced amenorrhoea, which typically results in secondary amenorrhoea where periods stop for 6 months or more after menarche has occurred.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman seeking to become pregnant is worried about experiencing two miscarriages. She is seeking guidance on how to improve her chances of a successful pregnancy. What factors are linked to miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Older paternal age

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is not caused by a single factor, but rather by a combination of risk factors. Women over the age of 35 and men over the age of 40 are at a significantly higher risk of experiencing a miscarriage. It is important to note that activities such as exercise, emotional stress, consuming spicy foods, and engaging in sexual intercourse do not increase the risk of miscarriage.

      Miscarriage: Understanding the Epidemiology

      Miscarriage, also known as spontaneous abortion, refers to the natural expulsion of the products of conception before the 24th week of pregnancy. It is a common occurrence, with approximately 15-20% of diagnosed pregnancies ending in miscarriage during the early stages. To avoid any confusion, the term miscarriage is often used instead of abortion.

      Studies show that up to 50% of conceptions fail to develop into a blastocyst within 14 days. This highlights the importance of early detection and monitoring during pregnancy. Additionally, recurrent spontaneous miscarriage affects approximately 1% of women, which can be a distressing and emotionally challenging experience.

      Understanding the epidemiology of miscarriage is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for women who experience this loss. With proper medical attention and emotional support, women can navigate through this difficult time and move forward with hope and healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her initial prenatal visit. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her initial prenatal visit. She has a history of four previous pregnancies and is a smoker. Her body mass index is 33kg/m² and her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg. Considering the number of risk factors she has, what is the most suitable approach to managing her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Start her on warfarin immediately until 6 weeks postnatal

      Correct Answer: Commence low molecular weight heparin immediately and continue 6 weeks postnatal

      Explanation:

      A pregnant woman who has 3 risk factors should receive LMWH from 28 weeks until 6 weeks after giving birth. If she has more than 3 risk factors, she should start LMWH immediately and continue until 6 weeks postnatal.

      The risk factors for thromboprophylaxis include age over 35, a body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      In this particular case, the woman has 4 risk factors, including being 36 years old, a smoker, having a parity over 3, and a body mass index of 33. Therefore, she needs to begin taking low molecular weight heparin immediately and continue until 6 weeks after giving birth.

      While all pregnant women should be advised to stay mobile and hydrated, this woman requires medical treatment due to her increased risk factors.

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), which is why it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and take appropriate prophylactic measures. A risk assessment should be conducted at the time of booking and on any subsequent hospital admission. Women with a previous VTE history are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, along with input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, comorbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy. If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of DVT is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the preferred treatment for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided. By taking these measures, the risk of developing VTE during pregnancy can be reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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