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Question 1
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You are on call overnight for orthogeriatrics when you receive a bleep to see a patient who is two days post-op from a left total hip replacement. You are not familiar with this patient. Upon arrival, you notice that the patient is drowsy and confused, and has a very fast heart rate. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals peaked T-waves, a PR interval of 230 ms, and a wide QRS. The patient's potassium level on ABG is 6.4 mmol. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Your Answer: Give calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml by slow iv injection
Explanation:Managing Hyperkalaemia: Immediate Treatment Steps
Hyperkalaemia is a serious condition that requires immediate treatment. The first step is to administer 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection to protect the cardiac myocytes from excess potassium. Next, 10 Units of Actrapid should be given in 100 ml of 20% glucose to draw potassium intracellularly. Salbutamol nebulisers can also be used. Finally, calcium resonium 15g orally or 30 g rectally can be given to mop up excess potassium in the gastrointestinal tract. It is important to note that this condition is life-threatening and requires immediate management, so waiting for a registrar is not an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary tract infection. She has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), for which she takes inhalers. Her abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) was 8/10 on admission. A midstream urine sample was sent for microbiology and the report indicates a pure growth of Escherichia coli sensitive to trimethoprim and co-amoxiclav. After receiving 48 hours of intravenous co-amoxiclav, she is now on appropriate oral antibiotic therapy.
You are called to the ward at 0100 h as Mrs Johnson is increasingly agitated and confused. She now has an AMTS of 2/10 and is refusing to stay in bed. Her vital signs are normal, and respiratory, cardiovascular, abdominal and neurological examinations reveal some fine crepitations at both lung bases, but no other abnormality. Her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 14.
What is the most appropriate next management option?Your Answer: Arrange a full septic screen, including chest X-ray, repeat urinalysis, inflammatory markers and blood cultures
Correct Answer: Advise nursing in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation
Explanation:Managing Acute Delirium in Mrs Smith: Nursing in a Well-Lit Environment with Frequent Reassurance and Reorientation
Acute delirium is a common condition that can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, metabolic problems, hypoxia, intracranial vascular insults, and toxins. When assessing a patient with acute delirium, it is crucial to exclude life-threatening or reversible causes through a thorough history, clinical examination, and appropriate investigations.
In the case of Mrs Smith, who has new confusion with preserved consciousness, there is no evidence of acute clinical illness, and she is receiving appropriate treatment for a urinary tract infection. Therefore, the most appropriate management is to nurse her in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation. Sedating medication, such as lorazepam or haloperidol, should only be considered as a last resort if the patient is at risk of harm due to delirium.
It is not necessary to arrange an urgent CT head or a full septic screen unless there are specific indications. Instead, optimizing the patient’s environment can help resolve delirium and improve outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute delirium in patients like Mrs Smith.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 3
Correct
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You are with the on-call anaesthetist who has been asked to see a 30-year-old man blue-lighted into the Emergency Department. The patient complains of being stung by a wasp while running and reports his arm becoming immediately swollen and red. He kept running but, within a few minutes, began to feel very light-headed and had difficulty breathing. On examination, the patient looks flushed and has a widespread wheeze on auscultation. Blood pressure 76/55 mmHg, heart rate 150 bpm, respiratory rate 32 breaths/minute.
Which of the following is the best initial treatment?Your Answer: Intramuscular (IM) 1 : 1000 adrenaline 500 micrograms
Explanation:Management of Anaphylaxis: Initial Treatment and Beyond
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. The Resuscitation Council has established three criteria for diagnosing anaphylaxis: sudden onset and rapid progression of symptoms, life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulatory problems, and skin changes. The initial management for anaphylaxis is IM 1 : 1000 adrenaline 500 micrograms, even before equipment or IV access is available. Once expertise and equipment are available, the airway should be stabilized, high-flow oxygen given, the patient fluid-challenged, and IV hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine given. Ephedrine has no role in anaphylaxis, and IV adrenaline is not the first-line management. Prompt intubation may be necessary, but IM adrenaline must be given before a full ABCDE assessment is made. Nebulized adrenaline may help with airway swelling, but it will not treat the underlying immunological phenomenon. Proper management of anaphylaxis requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Correct
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A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following a road traffic collision. On admission, he has a GCS score of 10 and a primary survey reveals asymmetric pupils, an open right forearm fracture, absent breath sounds on the right side, extensive RUQ pain, a painful abdomen, and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg. When prioritizing intervention and stabilization of the patient, which injury should be given priority?
Your Answer: Absent breath sounds on the right side
Explanation:Prioritizing Management in a Trauma Patient: An ABCDE Approach
When managing a trauma patient, it is important to prioritize interventions based on the severity of their injuries. Using an ABCDE approach, we can assess and address each issue in order of priority.
In the case of absent breath sounds on the right side, the priority would be to assess for a potential tension pneumothorax and treat it with needle decompression and chest drain insertion if necessary. Asymmetric pupils suggest an intracranial pathology, which would require confirmation via a CT head, but addressing the potential tension pneumothorax would still take priority.
RUQ pain and abdominal tenderness would fall under ‘E’, but if there is suspicion of abdominal bleeding, then this would be elevated into the ‘C’ category. Regardless, addressing the breathing abnormality would be the priority here.
An open forearm fracture would also fall under ‘E’, with the breathing issue needing to be addressed beforehand.
Finally, the underlying hypotension, potentially caused by abdominal bleeding, falls under ‘C’, and therefore the breathing abnormality should be prioritized.
In summary, using an ABCDE approach allows for a systematic and prioritized management of trauma patients, ensuring that the most life-threatening issues are addressed first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28 year old patient is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department. He is a known intravenous drug user and is currently presenting with mild respiratory depression, reduced level of consciousness, and pinpoint pupils. What would be the most appropriate medication for initial management?
Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Medication Antidotes: Understanding the Role of Naloxone, Flumazenil, N-acetyl-L-cysteine, Adrenaline, and Atropine
Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Pinpoint pupils, reduced level of consciousness, and respiratory depression are common symptoms of opioid toxicity. Naloxone should be administered in incremental doses to avoid full reversal, which can cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.
Flumazenil is a specific antidote for benzodiazepine sedation. However, it would not be effective in cases of pupillary constriction.
N-acetyl-L-cysteine is the antidote for paracetamol overdose, which can cause liver damage and acute liver failure.
Adrenaline is used in cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis, but it has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity.
Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease and depression underwent bypass surgery last night. His depression has responded well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and there is no past history of psychosis. His blood pressure is also well controlled with medications. The following morning, he develops confusion, agitation and irritability, tries to remove his intravenous (iv) lines and wants to run away from hospital. His level of consciousness fluctuates, and at times he forgets who he is. He is given a neuroleptic drug and appears much improved.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Dementia
Correct Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Differentiating Delirium from Other Psychiatric Disorders in Postoperative Patients
Delirium is a common complication that can occur after surgery and general anesthesia. It is characterized by acute changes in mental status, including waxing and waning levels of consciousness, agitation, irritability, and psychosis. While delirium is self-limited and can be managed with low-dose neuroleptics, it is important to differentiate it from other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms.
Schizophrenia, for example, typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior, and tends to start at a younger age than the acute symptoms seen in postoperative patients. It is also characterized by a progressive deterioration in functioning. Adjustment disorder, on the other hand, can result from any psychosocial or biological stressor, and may present with anxiety, irritability, and depressive mood. However, fluctuating levels of consciousness are not typically seen in this disorder.
Dementia can also present with irritability, confusion, and agitation, but it follows an insidious course and does not have a fluctuating course like delirium. Finally, severe depression can present with psychotic features, suicidal ideation, and irritability, but the patient’s history of good response to SSRIs and lack of prior history of psychosis can help differentiate it from delirium.
In summary, while delirium is a common complication of surgery and anesthesia, it is important to consider other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 7
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A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has vague abdominal pain, and a particularly keen junior surgeon takes her to theatre for an appendectomy; the appendix is removed and is normal. In recovery, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic and does not respond as expected to fluid replacement. On examination, she is very well tanned and slim; her blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Urea 9.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 165 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 98 g/l (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
Free T4 6.2 pmol/l (low) 11–22 pmol/l
Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer: iv hydrocortisone is the initial treatment of choice
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for patients experiencing an adrenal crisis is intravenous hydrocortisone. This is because the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, which can lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. The most common causes of an adrenal crisis include undiagnosed adrenal insufficiency with associated major stress, abrupt cessation of glucocorticoid therapy, and bilateral infarction of the adrenal glands. Symptoms of an adrenal crisis can include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, renal impairment, and normochromic normocytic anemia, as well as non-specific symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness, fever, and lethargy. The patient’s tan may be due to increased melanocyte activity caused by raised levels of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. Intravenous T3 replacement may be effective in treating the patient’s low free T4 levels, which are likely a result of adrenal insufficiency. Fluid replacement alone will not be sufficient to treat the patient’s shock, which is the main manifestation of an adrenal crisis. Normochromic normocytic anemia can be treated with corticosteroid replacement, and the patient’s deranged renal function is likely a result of sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm
Explanation:When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old backpacker had embarked on a climbing expedition to Mount Everest. He had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day. To avoid the predicted bad weather, he and his team left the base camp the following day. They reached an altitude of 6000 m on day four. He complained of occasional dull headaches and feeling light-headed, which he attributed to his dehydration. The next day, he set off alone, but was discovered by the search party ten hours later. He was found to be confused, unable to walk in a straight line, irritable, and extremely fatigued. His symptoms significantly improved after receiving dexamethasone and resting in a portable hyperbaric chamber.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: High-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE)
Correct Answer: High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for High-Altitude Illness in a Patient with AMS Symptoms
High-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE) is a serious complication of acute mountain sickness (AMS) that can lead to ataxia, confusion, and even coma. In this patient, the symptoms progressed from mild AMS to HACE, as evidenced by the alleviation of symptoms following dexamethasone and hyperbaric treatment. Hypoglycaemia can mimic HACE symptoms, but the rapid ascent to high altitude and progression of symptoms point to a diagnosis of HACE. Alcohol intoxication can also mimic AMS and HAPE symptoms, but the patient’s response to treatment excludes this differential diagnosis. High-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE) is another potential complication, but the absence of respiratory symptoms rules it out in this case. Overall, a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat high-altitude illness in patients with AMS symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has suddenly become very unwell in the space of 10–15 minutes and is struggling to breathe. The nurse tells you he is on intravenous (IV) antibiotics for this exacerbation and has been on the ward for a few days.
Which one of the following would be the most concerning observation after assessing this patient?Your Answer: He is also on non-invasive ventilation (NIV)
Correct Answer: Left-sided pleuritic chest pain
Explanation:Assessing Symptoms and Vital Signs in a Patient with COPD Exacerbation
When evaluating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing an infective exacerbation, it is important to consider their symptoms and vital signs. Left-sided pleuritic chest pain is a concerning symptom that may indicate pneumothorax, which requires urgent attention. However, it is common for COPD patients with exacerbations to be on non-invasive ventilation (NIV), which is not necessarily alarming. A slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate may also be expected in this context. An increased antero-posterior (AP) diameter on X-ray is a typical finding in COPD patients due to hyperinflated lungs. A borderline fever is also common in patients with infective exacerbations of COPD. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of symptoms and vital signs is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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