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  • Question 1 - A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
      On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
      Blood work shows:
      Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
      Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
      White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
      Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin A1c 12.2%

      Correct Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.

      Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.

      Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      190.9
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man presents with a tender nodule in the palm near the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a tender nodule in the palm near the middle finger, which eventually becomes painless and leads to the formation of a superficial cord. This is followed by the contraction of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints of the finger. Fibrous nodules also develop on the penis. What is the inheritance pattern of this condition, which is more common in men?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns of Genetic Disorders

      Genetic disorders can be inherited in different ways, depending on the specific condition. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in conditions such as Dupuytren’s contracture, which affects the palms and fingers. This condition is more common in men and can be passed down from one generation to the next with varying degrees of penetrance.

      X-linked recessive conditions, such as haemophilia A and B, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and typically affect males more severely than females. Duchenne muscular dystrophy and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency are also X-linked recessive disorders.

      Autosomal recessive conditions, such as cystic fibrosis and sickle-cell disease, require two copies of the mutated gene to be present for the disorder to manifest. Hereditary haemochromatosis is another autosomal recessive disorder that affects iron metabolism.

      X-linked dominant conditions, such as Alport syndrome and vitamin D-resistant rickets, are caused by mutations on the X chromosome and can affect both males and females.

      Polygenic conditions, such as essential hypertension and diabetes mellitus, are influenced by multiple genes and environmental factors. These conditions can be more complex to understand and manage than single-gene disorders.

      Understanding the inheritance patterns of genetic disorders can help individuals and families make informed decisions about their health and genetic testing options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      108.1
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  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a severe exacerbation of COPD. Despite full intervention, being intubated and ventilated, he fails to respond to treatment and continues to steadily deteriorate. It is believed that the patient is now brain dead.
      The patient is unconscious, fails to respond to outside stimulation and it is believed that his heart rate and breathing are only being maintained by the ventilator. The patient has agreed in the past to be an organ donor, and brainstem death verification is sought. The consultant with six years’ experience is present to certify brainstem death; however, a further person is needed for the process.
      Which of the following people is most appropriate to certify brainstem death along with the consultant?

      Your Answer: An ST4 doctor with five years full GMC registration

      Explanation:

      Certification of Brainstem Death: Who Can Verify and Who Cannot

      Brain death is the irreversible loss of brain function, including the brainstem. To diagnose brainstem death, all three criteria of apnoea, coma, and absence of brainstem reflexes must be present. The verification of brainstem death is typically done in the ICU, where patients are mechanically ventilated.

      According to the guidelines set by the Academy of Medical Royal Colleges, two doctors must verify brainstem death. Both doctors must have at least five years of full medical registration and be trained and competent in performing the assessment. At least one of the two doctors must be a consultant. They must both agree that all three criteria are met and that there is no reversible cause that can be treated.

      It is important to note that any doctor who has received training in death certification can certify a death following cardiorespiratory arrest. However, only doctors who meet the above criteria can verify brainstem death.

      The coroner is not involved in death verification unless the circumstances of the death are suspicious or meet strict referral criteria.

      Nursing staff should not verify death unless they have received specific training. In certifying brainstem death, two qualified doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, and both of whom must have been fully registered with the GMC for at least five years, must perform the tests.

      Relatives and next of kin should not be involved in the verification of death. They can be informed of the death as soon as it is confirmed by medical practitioners.

      Who Can Verify Brainstem Death? A Guide to Certification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      18.8
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old boy spills boiling water on his hand. The lesion is wet,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy spills boiling water on his hand. The lesion is wet, pink, highly tender and blistered. How would you describe this burn?

      Your Answer: Deep dermal/partial-thickness burn

      Correct Answer: Superficial dermal burn

      Explanation:

      Types of Burns and Their Characteristics

      Burns are classified based on the depth of tissue damage and can help determine the severity and prognosis of the injury. Here are the different types of burns and their characteristics:

      1. Superficial Dermal Burn: This type of burn damages the epidermis and part of the dermis, resulting in pale pink, painful, small blisters. It usually heals within 2-3 weeks with minimal scarring.

      2. Superficial Epidermal Burn: This burn only damages the epidermis, causing redness and slight swelling without blistering. It heals within a week without scarring.

      3. Deep Dermal/Partial-Thickness Burn: Both the epidermis and dermis are damaged, resulting in red, blotchy, dry or moist, swollen, blistered burns that do not blanch and have reduced sensation due to nerve damage. It takes 3-8 weeks to heal with scarring.

      4. Mixed-Depth Burn: This burn is uniform without mixed features described.

      5. Full-Thickness Burn: This is the most severe type of burn, where all three layers of the skin are damaged. The skin is burnt away, and the tissue underneath is pale or blackened. The remaining skin is dry and white, brown, or black without blisters, and is leathery or waxy. It requires surgical repair and grafting.

      Understanding the different types of burns and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
      19.9
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her planned pregnancy, estimated to be at 6 weeks gestation. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her mild asthma is well-controlled with inhaled beclomethasone. The GP recommends taking folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
      What would warrant prescribing high-dose folic acid for this patient?

      Your Answer: Smoking status

      Correct Answer: Patient's body mass index (BMI)

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI of ≥30 kg/m² should be given a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects (NTD) in the first trimester of pregnancy. This is in addition to patients with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD. Folic acid should ideally be started before conception to further reduce the risk of NTD. However, a history of asthma, smoking, patient age, and Asian ethnicity are not indications for high-dose folic acid prescribing in pregnancy. Pregnant smokers should not be prescribed high-dose folic acid, although smoking during pregnancy is a risk factor for prematurity, low birth weight, and cleft lip/palate. There is currently no evidence to support high-dose folic acid prescribing for pregnant women with asthma or those at the extremes of maternal age. Additionally, all pregnant women should take vitamin D 10mcg (400 units) daily throughout their pregnancy, as recommended by NICE.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.7
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  • Question 6 - What virus is described as a picornavirus with a single stranded RNA genome,...

    Correct

    • What virus is described as a picornavirus with a single stranded RNA genome, transmitted through faecal-oral route, and has no chronic sequelae?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A

      Hepatitis A is a type of picornavirus that is responsible for approximately 40% of hepatitis cases worldwide. Unlike other hepatitis viruses, it has a single stranded RNA genome. The virus is commonly spread through poor sanitation and overcrowding, typically through the faecal-oral route. It can survive for months in both fresh and saltwater, and shellfish from polluted water can have a high infectivity rate.

      Early symptoms of hepatitis A can be similar to the flu, but some patients, particularly children, may not show any physical symptoms. The incubation period for the virus is typically two to six weeks, after which patients may experience general symptoms such as fever, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and jaundice. Fatigue and abdominal pain are also common symptoms.

      Diagnosis of hepatitis A is done by detecting HAV-specific IgM antibodies in the blood. Unfortunately, there is no medical treatment for hepatitis A. Patients are advised to rest and avoid fatty foods and alcohol. Symptomatic treatment, such as antiemetics, may be given if necessary.

      Overall, the symptoms and transmission of hepatitis A is important in preventing its spread. Proper sanitation and hygiene practices, as well as avoiding contaminated water and food, can help reduce the risk of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman suffers a deep cut to her right hand while cleaning...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman suffers a deep cut to her right hand while cleaning up broken glass. After being evaluated in the Emergency Department and determined to have no nerve damage, the wound is stitched up with the assistance of local anesthesia. What is the primary mode of action for local anesthetics?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of the propagation of impulses in Aα-fibres

      Correct Answer: Reversible sodium channel blockade in the nerve endings

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of Action of Local Anaesthetics

      Local anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels in nerve fibres, preventing depolarisation and propagation of action potentials. This blockade is reversible and can be enhanced by the addition of adrenaline, which causes vasoconstriction and reduces systemic absorption of the anaesthetic. Local anaesthetics do not block potassium channels or cause irreversible sodium channel blockade. They tend to block smaller pain fibres before larger motor fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his son, who...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his son, who is worried about his recent increase in confusion. The son also reports that his father has had multiple falls in the past few weeks. The patient has a history of chronic alcohol abuse, consuming approximately 70 units per week. Due to his confused state, obtaining a history from the patient is not possible. What is the underlying pathophysiological mechanism of the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rupture of bridging veins

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s age, history of alcohol abuse, head injury, and insidious onset of symptoms, it is likely that they are suffering from a subdural hematoma. This condition is often caused by the rupture of bridging veins in the subdural space and can lead to confusion and decreased consciousness. While normal-pressure hydrocephalus can also cause confusion in elderly patients, it typically presents with additional symptoms such as urinary incontinence and gait disturbance. Diffuse axonal injury, on the other hand, is usually caused by rapid acceleration-deceleration and can result in coma. Extradural hematomas are more common in younger patients and are typically caused by trauma to the side of the head, while subarachnoid hemorrhages often present with a sudden, severe headache in the occipital area and are often caused by a ruptured cerebral aneurysm.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      56.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Of the following, which one is the most useful prognostic marker in aspirin...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which one is the most useful prognostic marker in aspirin overdose?

      Your Answer: ALT

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin time

      Explanation:

      Liver failure caused by paracetamol overdose can be indicated by an increased prothrombin time, which is a negative prognostic factor. Nevertheless, other factors such as arterial pH, creatinine levels, and encephalopathy can also indicate the necessity for liver transplantation.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency department after overdosing on a substance....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency department after overdosing on a substance. She reports experiencing tinnitus and displays signs of anxiety and sweating. Your task is to conduct an arterial blood gas (ABG) test. What are the probable ABG findings?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis followed by metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Based on the symptoms of tinnitus, anxiety, and diaphoresis, it is probable that the patient has overdosed on salicylates. Salicylate overdoses usually manifest with respiratory alkalosis at first, caused by hyperventilation, and then metabolic acidosis due to the buildup of lactic acid. Therefore, although options 1 and 3 are feasible, option 4 is the most probable.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of symptoms consistent with premenstrual syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of symptoms consistent with premenstrual syndrome. She reports experiencing severe pain that prevents her from working for 3-4 days before the start of her period each month. She has a regular 29-day cycle and has only recently started experiencing pain in the past year. She has never given birth and uses the progesterone-only pill for contraception. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trial of combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Patients experiencing secondary dysmenorrhoea should be referred to gynaecology for further investigation as it is often associated with underlying pathologies such as endometriosis, adenomyosis, fibroids, or pelvic inflammatory disease. While the combined oral contraceptive pill may provide relief, it is important to determine the root cause first. Fluoxetine is not appropriate for managing secondary dysmenorrhoea, as it is used for premenstrual dysphoric disorder. Intra-uterine devices may actually cause secondary dysmenorrhoea and should not be used. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for the management of secondary dysmenorrhoea, but rather for menorrhagia.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of the most severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of the most severe headache he has ever experienced. He explains that he was sitting with his wife when he suddenly felt excruciating pain at the back of his head. The pain quickly escalated to a 10/10 intensity, and he also feels nauseous, although he has not vomited yet.

      The patient has a medical history of adult dominant polycystic kidney disease and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. Upon examination, his Glasgow coma scale is 15/15, and there is no focal neurology.

      Due to concerns of an intracranial bleed, a non-contrast CT head is requested, which reveals hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space and ventricles. What is the most appropriate definitive intervention for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: External ventricular drain

      Correct Answer: Aneurysm coiling

      Explanation:

      After experiencing a sudden and severe headache known as a thunderclap headache, a subarachnoid haemorrhage was diagnosed through CT scans that revealed fresh blood in the subarachnoid space. Given the patient’s history of ADPKD, which is associated with Berry aneurysms, it is likely that the haemorrhage was caused by an aneurysm. The most appropriate treatment for such an aneurysm is now considered to be coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is a preferred method over neurosurgical procedures such as aneurysm clipping or haematoma evacuation via craniotomy, which are reserved for specific cases. Thrombectomy, on the other hand, is used to manage acute ischaemic stroke, while external ventricular drains are used to treat complications such as hydrocephalus and are not directly related to treating the aneurysm itself.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of fatigue, weight loss, frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of fatigue, weight loss, frequent urination, and excessive thirst. Her random plasma glucose level is 15 mmol/litre. The patient has a pre-existing condition since childhood that may be responsible for these symptoms. What is the most probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      The onset of diabetes in a young person, as described in this presentation, is a classic symptom and has been confirmed by a random blood glucose level of >11 mmol/L. Among the given options, only cystic fibrosis has the potential to cause the development of diabetes. Cystic fibrosis typically manifests in childhood with respiratory symptoms, but as the disease progresses, other symptoms may appear. If the pancreas is affected, it can lead to the development of diabetes mellitus. However, it may take some time for the pancreas to be affected enough to cause diabetes, which is why children with cystic fibrosis may develop diabetes later in life. While the other conditions listed may cause fatigue or weight loss, they do not typically result in polyuria or polydipsia.

      Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.

      It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      43.9
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:

      – Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
      – Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
      – Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
      – Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
      – Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the mechanism of action of ezetimibe in the management of hyperlipidaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of ezetimibe in the management of hyperlipidaemia?

      Your Answer: Reduced expression of LDL receptors in the liver surface

      Correct Answer: Prevent cholesterol absorption from the intestine

      Explanation:

      Ezetimibe and its Mechanism of Action

      Ezetimibe is a medication that works by reducing the absorption of cholesterol in the gut. Although the exact way it works is not fully understood, it is believed to decrease the activity of proteins in the brush border of enterocytes, which in turn reduces the absorption of lipids. Unlike other medications that bind to bile acids, ezetimibe is absorbed into the bloodstream.

      This medication is particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate statins, those who are not achieving their cholesterol targets with statins alone, or those who have experienced serious side effects from statin use. When taken alone at a dose of 10 mg per day, ezetimibe can reduce LDL cholesterol levels by approximately 20%. However, increasing the dosage beyond this point does not typically improve its effectiveness.

      When used in combination with statins, ezetimibe can lead to even greater reductions in LDL cholesterol levels. Overall, ezetimibe is a valuable medication for managing high cholesterol levels in patients who are unable to take or benefit from statins alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden abdominal pain. The pain started after he had fried chicken for lunch. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.7ºC, pulse 120/min, respiratory rate 30/min, blood pressure 87/72 mmHg, and his abdomen is tender with generalised guarding. Blood tests reveal abnormal levels of Na+, K+, urea, creatinine, bicarbonate, and lactate. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what would be the most appropriate definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy

      Explanation:

      While sodium chloride may be administered to increase the patient’s blood pressure, it is not considered the definitive treatment for their condition. In cases of ascending cholangitis, the preferred course of action involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), as the patient typically experiences symptoms such as jaundice, fever, and pain in the upper right quadrant. Similarly, for acute cholecystitis, the initial treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics and supportive care, with an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy recommended within a week of diagnosis to prevent recurrence, particularly if the patient presents with fever and pain in the upper right quadrant.

      Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when an artery supplying the small bowel is blocked, usually due to an embolism. The most common artery affected is the superior mesenteric artery. Patients with a history of atrial fibrillation are at a higher risk of developing this condition. The symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia include sudden and severe abdominal pain that is not consistent with physical exam findings.

      Immediate laparotomy is usually required for patients with advanced ischemia, such as peritonitis or sepsis. Delaying surgery can lead to a poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care Clinic with his daughter. He also has a history of mild dementia, congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He takes furosemide, lisinopril, amitriptyline, aspirin, metoprolol, olanzapine and simvastatin. He lives by himself in a house in which he has lived for 30 years and has help with all activities of daily living. On examination, he appears frail, has mild bruising over both knees from recent falls and has reduced proximal lower-extremity muscle strength.
      Which of the following interventions will decrease his risk of falling in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Balance and gait training physical exercises

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Interventions to Reduce Falls in the Elderly

      Balance and gait training exercises are effective interventions to reduce falls in the elderly. On the other hand, continuing olanzapine and commencing donepezil have not been proven to reduce the risk of falls. Diuretics, such as furosemide, can increase the likelihood of falls, so stopping them is recommended. Additionally, amitriptyline has anticholinergic side-effects that can lead to confusion and falls, so discontinuing it is a quick and potentially effective intervention. Overall, a multifactorial approach that includes balance and gait training, medication review, and fall risk assessment is the most appropriate strategy to reduce falls in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 18 - A 57-year-old woman without medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman without medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and vomiting that has been ongoing for 12 hours. Upon examination, she is found to be tender in the epigastrium and has a low-grade fever. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of gallstones, but no signs of cholecystitis. Blood tests are ordered and show the following results:

      - Hb: 121 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
      - Platelets: 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      - WBC: 15.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
      - Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
      - Amylase: 1056 U/L (normal range: 70 - 300)
      - Bilirubin: 5 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 92 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 33 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 41 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      As she awaits transfer to the ward, the patient's condition worsens. She becomes increasingly short of breath and tachypnoeic, and eventually develops central cyanosis. What is the most likely cause of her deterioration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s initial presentation is most likely due to acute pancreatitis, as evidenced by the elevated serum amylase levels. Her age (>55), low serum calcium levels (<2 mmol/L), and high white cell count (>15 x 109/L) indicate a Modified Glasgow Score of >3, putting her at risk of severe pancreatitis and its complications. Although the other options could also cause shortness of breath and cyanosis, the most probable explanation in this case is acute respiratory distress syndrome, a known complication of acute pancreatitis.

      Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.

      Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant for the past two days. He reports feeling like he has the flu and his wife says he has had a fever for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is 38.1ºC, blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and he is tender in the right upper quadrant. Additionally, his sclera have a yellow-tinge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice, and pain in the right upper quadrant indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which is commonly associated with ascending cholangitis. This combination of symptoms is not typically seen in cases of acute cholecystitis.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep. He reports experiencing paralysis upon waking up and occasionally when falling asleep, accompanied by what he describes as 'hallucinations' such as seeing another person in the room. These episodes are causing him increasing anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Paralysis

      Sleep paralysis is a condition that affects many people and is characterized by a temporary inability to move the skeletal muscles when waking up or falling asleep. It is believed to be linked to the natural paralysis that occurs during REM sleep. This phenomenon is recognized in various cultures and is often accompanied by hallucinations or vivid images.

      The paralysis occurs either before falling asleep or after waking up, and it can be a frightening experience for those who are not familiar with it. However, it is a relatively harmless condition that does not require medical attention in most cases. If the symptoms are particularly bothersome, medication such as clonazepam may be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms.

      In summary, sleep paralysis is a common occurrence that affects many people. It is characterized by temporary paralysis of the skeletal muscles and is often accompanied by hallucinations. While it can be a frightening experience, it is generally harmless and does not require medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - What virus has a single stranded RNA genome and a 3% vertical transmission...

    Incorrect

    • What virus has a single stranded RNA genome and a 3% vertical transmission rate through blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Hepatitis and CMV Infections

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a type of DNA herpes virus that infects 50-80% of adults. It is a common and widespread infection.

      Hepatitis A, on the other hand, is a picornavirus that spreads through the fecal-oral route. This virus has a single-stranded, positive-sense genome.

      Hepatitis B is a member of the Hepadnaviridae family and has a unique partially double-stranded circular genome. It has a high vertical transmission rate of 90%, meaning it can easily be passed from mother to child during childbirth.

      Lastly, Hepatitis D is an incomplete virus with a small RNA genome. It can only infect patients who are already infected with Hepatitis B (HBV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of pain in her left middle finger when she tries to bend it. She also experienced it getting 'stuck' once. During examination, a palpable nodule is found at the base of the finger. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigger finger

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigger Finger

      Trigger finger is a condition that affects the flexion of the digits, and is believed to be caused by a discrepancy in size between the tendon and pulleys through which they pass. This results in the tendon becoming stuck and unable to move smoothly through the pulley. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, trigger finger is more common in women than men and is associated with conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes mellitus.

      The condition typically affects the thumb, middle, or ring finger, and is characterized by stiffness and snapping when extending a flexed digit. A nodule may also be felt at the base of the affected finger. Management of trigger finger often involves steroid injections, which are successful in the majority of patients. A finger splint may be applied afterwards. Surgery is typically reserved for patients who have not responded to steroid injections. While there is some suggestion of a link between trigger finger and repetitive use, evidence to support this is limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe pain during...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe pain during bowel movements and passing fresh red blood while opening her bowels for the past 2 weeks. She is experiencing slight constipation but is otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN cream and laxatives

      Explanation:

      Management of Anal Fissure: Laxatives and GTN Cream

      An anal fissure is often the cause of pain during defecation and fresh red blood per rectum. To diagnose the fissure, a full blood count and digital examination per rectum may be necessary. However, initial management should involve a combination of laxatives to soften the stool and glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) cream. Drinking plenty of fluids is also advised. These measures are effective in 80% of cases. Surgery may be considered if medical management fails. Colonoscopy is not necessary in this scenario. Co-codamol is not recommended as it may worsen constipation and aggravate the fissure. While dietary advice is helpful, prescribing laxatives and GTN cream is the best course of action for healing the fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of itchy, red, and watery eyes. She reports that the symptoms started in her left eye four days ago and have since spread to her right eye. Upon examination, bilateral redness and watery discharge are observed in both eyes. The patient has a history of using reusable contact lenses and reports that her 4-year-old son had similar symptoms a week ago. What management advice should the GP provide for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not wear contact lenses until symptoms have resolved. Clean the eyelids with a wet cloth and apply a cold compress as needed to relieve symptoms

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to wear contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. The patient should refrain from using contact lenses until their symptoms have completely resolved. They can clean their eyelids with a wet cloth and use a cold compress as needed to alleviate discomfort. This is likely a case of viral conjunctivitis, which can be managed conservatively with good eye hygiene and cold compresses. Wearing contact lenses during this time can worsen symptoms as they may act as an irritant or carry infections. Administering chloramphenicol eye drops every 3 hours and using a cold compress is not appropriate for viral conjunctivitis. Continuing to wear contact lenses while using a cold compress is also not recommended. The patient should discard their current lenses, wait until their symptoms have resolved, and start using new lenses again.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old woman presents complaining of ‘flashbacks’. Seven months earlier, she had been...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presents complaining of ‘flashbacks’. Seven months earlier, she had been standing at a bus stop when a car swerved off the road into the queue, killing instantly a child standing near to her. Every day she experiences intrusive images of the child’s face as it saw the car mount the curb. She has not been able to go to that part of town since the day and she has avoided taking the bus anywhere. She feels she is always on edge and jumps at the slightest noise around the house. She thinks things are getting worse, rather than better, and asks you whether there are any psychological treatments that might help her.
      Which one of the following approaches is indicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: Focus on Trauma-Focused CBT

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a delayed and/or prolonged response to a traumatic event that can cause distress in almost anyone. Symptoms include intrusive flashbacks, avoidance of trauma-related triggers, emotional numbness, and hypervigilance. Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line treatment for PTSD, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) in the United Kingdom. Other therapies, such as psychodynamic therapy, supportive therapy, and hypnotherapy, may be helpful but are not first-line approaches. Watchful waiting is only appropriate for mild symptoms present for less than a month. It is important to seek help for PTSD, and trauma-focused CBT is a proven effective treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should be the immediate course of action to manage this adverse event?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporarily cease the donation, consider fluid replacement and elevate the donor's legs

      Explanation:

      Donor safety is important in blood donation. Fainting is a common adverse event and should be treated by stopping the donation and reviving the donor. Elevation of the legs and monitoring vitals is necessary. Donors should be counseled on pre-donation expectations and encouraged to drink fluids after recovery. Hemoglobin checks are no longer required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 27 - What is the most frequent micro-organism responsible for haematogenous osteomyelitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent micro-organism responsible for haematogenous osteomyelitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Radiographic Abnormalities in Haematogenous Osteomyelitis

      Haematogenous osteomyelitis is a condition where infection spreads to the bone through the bloodstream. When the infection reaches the periosteal membrane, it can create a cloaca that extends into nearby soft tissues. This can lead to cortical sequestration. In children, the metaphysis may become infected and spread to the epiphysis, resulting in involucrum formation. Staphylococcus is a common cause of single or multiple Brodie’s abscesses, which appear as areas of radiolucency with adjacent sclerosis on X-rays. The lucent region in the metaphysis may connect with the growth plate through a tortuous channel, known as the channel or tract sign. In the diaphysis, the abscess cavity can be located in central or subcortical areas or in the cortex itself and may contain a central sequestrum. In the epiphysis, a circular, well-defined osteolytic lesion is seen. A cortical abscess can resemble the appearance of an osteoid osteoma or a stress fracture. These radiographic abnormalities can aid in the diagnosis of haematogenous osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology clinic with complaints of vaginal bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Gynaecology clinic with complaints of vaginal bleeding. She reports that she underwent menopause at age 63 and has never engaged in sexual activity. Her height is 5 ft and she weighs 136 kg. Upon further investigation, malignancy is detected in the suspected organ. What is the typical histologic appearance of the epithelial lining of this organ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simple columnar cells

      Explanation:

      Types of Epithelial Cells in the Female Reproductive System

      The female reproductive system is composed of various types of epithelial cells that serve different functions. Here are some of the most common types of epithelial cells found in the female reproductive system:

      1. Simple columnar cells – These cells are found in the endometrial lining and have a pseudostratified columnar appearance. They are often associated with endometrial carcinoma.

      2. Glycogen-containing stratified squamous cells – These cells are found in the vagina and are responsible for producing glycogen, which helps maintain a healthy vaginal pH.

      3. Cuboidal cells – These cells are found in the ovary and are responsible for producing and releasing eggs.

      4. Stratified squamous cells – These cells are found in the cervix and provide protection against infections.

      5. Columnar ciliated cells – These cells are located in the Fallopian tubes and are responsible for moving the egg from the ovary to the uterus.

      Understanding the different types of epithelial cells in the female reproductive system can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various reproductive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following characteristics is not associated with cannabinoids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is not associated with cannabinoids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bioavailability after oral administration is about 80%

      Explanation:

      Cannabinoids and Their Effects

      Cannabinoids are compounds found in the resin of cannabis sativa, with 9-tetrahydrocannabinol (9-THC) being the most important active component. However, the oral bioavailability of THC, whether in pure form or as part of marijuana, is low and highly variable, with effects taking anywhere from 0.5 to 3 hours to occur. Smoking marijuana also does not significantly increase bioavailability, with rates rarely exceeding 10-20%.

      Interestingly, the analgesic effects of cannabinoids can be blocked by naloxone and other opioid receptor antagonists. Additionally, synthetic cannabinoids have been found to reduce inflammation caused by arachidonic acid by inhibiting eicosanoid production. Overall, the effects and limitations of cannabinoids is important for both medical and recreational use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 30 - A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth when speaking. Her mother gave the history of child’s irritation due to ear pain along with intermittent fever for the last 5 days. Her teacher reports that her speech is developmentally delayed. There is no past medical history or family history of illness. Audiogram shows conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis media with effusion

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is otitis media with effusion (OME), which is prevalent in younger children due to their shorter and more horizontal Eustachian tube, making it easier for bacteria to enter and harder for drainage. However, vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and otosclerosis are more likely to be diagnosed in middle-aged patients rather than young children. Foreign object insertion and perforated tympanic membrane are also possible causes of hearing loss, but not as common as OME in children. It is essential to identify the cause of hearing loss in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Plastics (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/4) 0%
Surgery (1/3) 33%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
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