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Question 1
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of morning sickness. She is 10 weeks pregnant. She can keep down oral fluid but has vomited twice in the previous 24 hours. There are no acid reflux symptoms, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding or urinary symptoms.
She takes folic acid and is not on any other medications.
On examination, her temperature is 36.8ÂşC. Blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urine B-HCG is positive and urine dipstick shows 1+ ketone only. There is no weight loss.
What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Commence on oral cyclizine
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy or hyperemesis gravidarum is antihistamines, specifically oral cyclizine. Second-line options include ondansetron and domperidone. Hospital admission may be necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medications or fluids, or if symptoms are not controlled with primary care management. There is no indication for oral omeprazole in this case as the patient has not reported any dyspeptic symptoms.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A diabetic woman attends for an ultrasound scan during her third trimester of pregnancy. The physician reporting the scan calculates an amniotic index >95th centile and diagnoses polyhydramnios.
What volume of amniotic fluid is considered to be consistent with polyhydramnios?Your Answer: >4–5 l of amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: >2–3 l of amniotic fluid
Explanation:Understanding Polyhydramnios: Excess Amniotic Fluid in Pregnancy
Polyhydramnios is a condition in which there is an excess of amniotic fluid in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. This excess fluid is produced by the fetal kidneys and is normally swallowed by the fetus. Diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made by ultrasound assessment of the amount of fluid. If the deepest vertical pool is greater than 8 cm or if the amniotic fluid index (AFI) is greater than the 95th percentile for the corresponding gestational age, polyhydramnios is diagnosed.
Polyhydramnios occurs in approximately 2% of all pregnancies and is associated with maternal diabetes and fetal anomalies resulting in gastrointestinal obstruction, such as esophageal atresia and poor fetal swallowing.
It is important to note that normal amniotic fluid varies and increases with gestational age, peaking at around 1 liter. An excess of 2 liters or more is considered consistent with polyhydramnios. Understanding this condition can help healthcare providers monitor and manage pregnancies for the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her pregnancy. She is currently at 30 weeks gestation and reports that her pregnancy has been going smoothly thus far. However, over the past few days, she has noticed a decrease in fetal movement. She denies any recent illnesses or feeling unwell and has no significant medical history. On obstetric abdominal examination, there are no notable findings and the patient appears to be in good health. What is the recommended initial management in this case?
Your Answer: Handheld Doppler
Explanation:When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements after 28 weeks of gestation, the first step recommended by the RCOG guidelines is to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the fetal heartbeat. If the heartbeat cannot be detected, an ultrasound should be offered immediately. However, if a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation. Referral to a fetal medicine unit would only be necessary if no movements had been felt by 24 weeks.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old primigravida patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of light per-vaginal spotting. Based on her last menstrual period date, she is 8 weeks and 4 days gestation and has not yet undergone any scans. She reports no abdominal pain or flooding episodes and has no prior medical history. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a closed cervical os with a single intrauterine gestational sac, a 2 mm yolk sac, and a crown-rump length measuring 7.8mm, without cardiac activity. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Missed miscarriage
Explanation:A diagnosis of miscarriage can be made when a transvaginal ultrasound shows a crown-rump length greater than 7mm without cardiac activity. In this case, the patient has experienced a missed miscarriage, as the ultrasound revealed an intrauterine foetus of a size consistent with around 6 weeks gestation, but without heartbeat. The closed cervical os and history of spotting further support this diagnosis. A complete miscarriage, inevitable miscarriage, and partial miscarriage are not applicable in this scenario.
Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman on day one postpartum who is breastfeeding is concerned about the safety of her pain medication. When you arrive, you find that the patient was prescribed acetaminophen for pain relief, but when she was offered this, she told the midwife it cannot be used as it can have detrimental effects for her baby. She wants to know if there are any other options. You explain that acetaminophen is safe to use while breastfeeding. Which of the following analgesics is another safe first line treatment to use in women who are breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Safe Pain Relief Options for Breastfeeding Mothers: A Guide to Medications
Breastfeeding mothers often experience pain and discomfort, and it is important to know which pain relief options are safe to use while nursing. Paracetamol and ibuprofen are considered safe and can be used as first-line medication for analgesia. Codeine and other opiates can be used sparingly as third-line medication, but caution must be taken as some women may be slow metabolizers and it can cause drowsiness and respiratory depression in the infant. Aspirin is contraindicated due to the risk of Reye’s disease and other side-effects. Naproxen is generally safe, but paracetamol and ibuprofen should be the mainstay of analgesia. Tramadol can be used with caution and should be prescribed by a specialist. It is important to advise the woman on the safe use of medication and to monitor for any signs of toxicity in the infant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes becomes pregnant.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: The mortality rate from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in pregnancy is similar to that in non-pregnant patients
Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of polyhydramnios
Explanation:Misconceptions about Diabetes in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, diabetic patients are at an increased risk of developing polyhydramnios, which is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid index is >25 cm or if the deepest vertical pool is >8 cm. Contrary to popular belief, fetal macrosomia is a risk of a diabetic pregnancy, rather than microsomia. All patients should be treated with insulin because this has no teratogenic effects, in contrast to oral hypoglycaemics. The mortality rate from DKA in pregnant patients approaches 50%, so very close monitoring and counselling about the importance of good diabetic control are essential. Hypertension in pregnancy may be treated with other anti-hypertensives, eg labetalol or methyldopa, as ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy because they are associated with oligohydramnios.
Debunking Common Myths about Diabetes in Pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant presents to the labour suite with sporadic contractions. She had noticed a mucous plug in her underwear earlier in the day. Upon examination, she appears to be breathing heavily and experiencing some discomfort. The cardiotocography is normal and progressing smoothly. During a vaginal examination, her cervix is estimated to be dilated at 2 cm. What phase of labour is she currently in?
Your Answer: Latent 2nd stage
Correct Answer: Latent 1st stage
Explanation:The correct stage of labour for a woman with a cervix that is just beginning to ripen and dilate is the latent phase of the 1st stage. This stage is characterized by a cervix dilation of 0-3 cm. The active phase of the 1st stage, which is characterized by a cervix dilation of 3-10 cm and more regular contractions, is not applicable in this scenario. The active 2nd stage is also not a descriptive stage of labour, as it only refers to the general stage that ends with the expulsion of the foetus.
Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.
During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady comes in who is pregnant with her first child. She feels unwell, has upper abdominal pain near her epigastrium, and thinks that her ankle swelling has been much worse over the last few days. You assess her and your findings are as follows:
Symphysis–fundal height (SFH): 39 cm
Presentation: breech
Lie: longitudinal
Blood pressure (BP): 152/93
Fetal movements: not palpable
Which of these investigations is most likely to lead you to a diagnosis?Your Answer: Blood tests for liver function
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to various complications and is a leading cause of maternal death. Risk factors include nulliparity, previous history of pre-eclampsia, family history, and certain medical conditions. Diagnosis is made by testing for proteinuria and monitoring blood pressure. Treatment involves close monitoring, medication, and delivery of the baby. Complications can include HELLP syndrome and eclampsia. Testing for liver function and performing a CTG can aid in management, but will not lead to the diagnosis. Early identification and management are crucial in preventing adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 1 month ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help. Sarah has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for her to commence?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Breastfeeding women can safely take sertraline or paroxetine as their preferred SSRIs. These medications are known to have minimal to low levels of exposure to infants through breast milk, and are not considered harmful to them. Therefore, if a mother is diagnosed with postnatal depression and requires antidepressant treatment, she should not be advised to stop breastfeeding.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Prescribe promethazine
Explanation:Promethazine is the appropriate medication to prescribe for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as it is a first-line antiemetic. Metoclopramide should be avoided due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects if used for more than 5 days. While alternative methods such as ginger and acupressure bands may be discussed, as the patient has requested medication, it is appropriate to prescribe promethazine. It is also important to support the patient’s decision to continue working if that is her preference.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a significant obstetric hemorrhage due to uterine atony. What is the initial medical management after stabilization and general measures?
Your Answer: Syntocinon
Explanation:To treat postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony, medical options include oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol.
The leading cause of primary postpartum haemorrhage is uterine atony. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.52) for managing primary PPH due to uterine atony. The first-line treatment recommended is 5U of IV Syntocinon (oxytocin), followed by 0.5 mg of ergometrine.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman in her fifth pregnancy has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 28 weeks and presents for a fetal growth scan, as per the gestational diabetes protocol. She has had three normal vaginal deliveries, but the last time, she needed an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation. The sonographer calls you into the room to see the patient because the placenta is seen to involve more than half of the myometrium.
What is the correct diagnosis?Your Answer: Placenta increta
Explanation:Placental Abnormalities: Understanding the Spectrum of Disease
Placental abnormalities can range from mild to severe, with varying degrees of risk to both mother and baby. Placenta increta is a condition where the placenta infiltrates into the myometrium, while placenta percreta is the most severe form where the placental fibres invade beyond the myometrium and require a hysterectomy for management. Placenta accreta is a milder form where the placental fibres attach to the superficial layer of the myometrium. Placenta praevia is a common cause of antepartum haemorrhage, where the placenta lies low and covers part of the internal cervical os. Vasa praevia is a condition where fetal vessels run across or over part of the internal cervical os, increasing the risk of bleeding and fetal distress.
Risk factors for these conditions include previous Caesarean section, myomectomy, multiparity, maternal age >35, placenta praevia, and uterine anomalies. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound, with MRI used in severe cases. Management may involve a Caesarean section for delivery in a controlled setting, or in severe cases, a hysterectomy. Women with vasa praevia or placenta praevia are advised to have an elective Caesarean section to reduce the risk of complications. Understanding the spectrum of placental abnormalities is crucial for appropriate management and reducing the risk of maternal and fetal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone an anomaly scan and is undergoing a routine review. During the consultation, she expresses her concern about not feeling any fetal movement yet, despite experiencing it by 18 weeks gestation in her previous pregnancies.
At what point in her gestation would it be appropriate to refer her to the maternal fetal medicine unit for further evaluation?Your Answer: 22 weeks
Correct Answer: 24 weeks
Explanation:Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if fetal movements have not been felt by 24 weeks, as reduced movements can be a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia. While most women feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks, it can happen earlier in some cases. Although singular episodes of reduced movements may not be harmful, they can also indicate stillbirths and restricted growth. The absence of movements is particularly concerning and requires further investigation. The RCOG has set the 24 week cut off as a guideline.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a 2-day history of worsening headache despite taking painkillers. She has no significant medical history. Her pregnancy has been uneventful, but she reports increasing swelling in her hands and feet over the past week. Her blood pressure at her last prenatal visit two weeks ago was 120/80 mmHg. On examination, her blood pressure is 162/110 mmHg, heart rate 108 beats per minute, and temperature 37.2°C. Urine dipstick reveals protein ++++. What is the most appropriate medication to manage her condition?
Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate
Explanation:Management of Severe Pre-eclampsia: Medications to Consider and Avoid
Severe pre-eclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, can lead to eclamptic seizures and other complications. To prevent seizures, magnesium sulphate is administered as a loading dose followed by an infusion. Labetalol is the first-line medication for controlling blood pressure, but nifedipine and methyldopa can be used if labetalol is contraindicated. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, and amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, are not recommended in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Atenolol, a beta blocker, is not the agent of choice for pre-eclampsia management. Aspirin may be given prophylactically to women at risk of pre-eclampsia. Delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for severe pre-eclampsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old primiparous woman who is 10 weeks pregnant is curious about iron supplementation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 110 g/L. What is the appropriate Hb cut-off for initiating treatment in this patient?
Your Answer: 100
Correct Answer: 110
Explanation:During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A woman presents to the Emergency Department 45 days after giving birth by Caesarean section. She complains of persistent vaginal bleeding. Her temperature is 38.5 ÂşC, pulse 88 bpm and blood pressure 110/76.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Endometritis
Explanation:Post-Caesarean Section Complications: Causes and Symptoms
One common complication following a Caesarean section is endometritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the endometrial lining. This condition is usually caused by an infection and can lead to vaginal bleeding. Immediate treatment with antibiotics is necessary to prevent further complications.
Other post-Caesarean section complications that may cause fever include mastitis, wound infections, and haematomas. However, these conditions are not typically associated with prolonged vaginal bleeding.
Retained products of conception are rare following a Caesarean section since the surgical cavity is thoroughly checked during the operation. On the other hand, wound infections and haematomas may cause fever but are not usually accompanied by prolonged vaginal bleeding.
It is important to monitor any symptoms following a Caesarean section and seek medical attention if any complications arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is seen in the epilepsy clinic. She has been effectively managing her epilepsy with carbamazepine 400 mg twice daily. She is expecting a baby girl soon and is eager to breastfeed. What guidance should be provided to the patient?
Your Answer: Increase the dose of carbamazepine by 50%
Correct Answer: No changes required
Explanation:There is no need to increase the dose of medication as the patient’s epilepsy is well controlled on the current regimen. Switching from carbamazepine to lamotrigine is also unnecessary and not safer.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum check-up. She did not breastfeed and had a normal delivery. She wants to begin using contraception but is worried about any potential delay in her ability to conceive again within the next 1-2 years. What factor is most likely to cause a delay in her return to normal fertility?
Your Answer: Progesterone only injectable contraception
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a patient on the Pediatric Ward who is suffering from severe eclampsia. Two hours previously, she began to bleed profusely from her cannula site. After checking her coagulation screen, you are suspicious she has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Which one of the following test result would you expect in a diagnosis of DIC?Your Answer: Elevated antithrombin III
Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time (PT)
Explanation:Understanding DIC: Symptoms and Diagnostic Tests
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by abnormal clotting and bleeding at the same time. This widespread disorder of clotting is caused by both thrombin and plasmin activation. Acutely, haemorrhage often occurs as the clotting factors are exhausted. The severity of the condition is variable but can lead to severe organ failure.
To diagnose DIC, doctors typically perform a full blood picture, coagulation screen, and a group-and-save test. Tests for DIC include elevated prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts in DIC are typically low, especially in acute sepsis-associated DIC, but may be increased in malignancy-associated chronic DIC. Fibrinogen level is also tested, as it falls in DIC.
Symptoms of DIC include abnormal bleeding, such as from the gums or nose, and bruising easily. Patients may also experience organ failure, such as kidney or liver failure. Treatment for DIC typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as sepsis or cancer, and providing supportive care, such as blood transfusions or medications to prevent clotting.
In summary, DIC is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms of abnormal bleeding or organ failure, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman undergoes a vaginal delivery and is examined on the ward after the placenta is delivered. The examination shows a minor tear on the perineum without any muscle involvement. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Suture on the ward or in theatre
Correct Answer: No repair required
Explanation:A first-degree perineal tear typically does not need suturing.
In the case of this woman, she has a first-degree perineal tear that only affects the surface of the perineum and does not involve any muscles. Therefore, no repair is necessary as these types of tears usually heal on their own.
The answer glue on the ward is incorrect because first-degree perineal tears do not require closure and should be left to heal naturally. Additionally, glue is not suitable for use in the perineal area and is only appropriate for small, straight, superficial, low-tension wounds.
Similarly, staples in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears do not require repair and will heal on their own. Staples are not recommended for use in the perineal region.
The answer suture in theatre is also incorrect as first-degree perineal tears typically do not require suturing and can be left to heal on their own. If suturing is necessary for a first-degree tear, it can be done on the ward by a trained practitioner. Only third or fourth-degree tears require repair in a theatre setting under regional or general anaesthesia.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 25-year-old primiparous patient is seen at home by the community midwife for a routine antenatal visit. She is 34 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. On examination, she is well and has a symphysis fundal height of 33 cm. Her blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg and she has 2++ protein in the urine.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension in Pregnancy
Hypertension in pregnancy can be a serious condition that requires urgent assessment and management. Pre-eclampsia, characterized by both hypertension and proteinuria, is a common diagnosis. Early detection and management can prevent complications.
Normal blood pressure during pregnancy typically drops slightly in the first and second trimesters and rises back to pre-pregnancy levels in the third trimester. However, some patients may have chronic hypertension that was previously undiagnosed.
White-coat hypertension, where blood pressure is elevated in a clinical setting but normal at home, should be ruled out before a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension is made. This type of hypertension occurs after week 20 of pregnancy but without proteinuria. Regular screening for proteinuria is necessary in these cases.
In cases of mild to moderate hypertension, patients may be admitted to the hospital and monitored or started on oral labetalol. Severe hypertension requires immediate hospitalization and treatment. Overall, understanding hypertension in pregnancy is crucial for the health and well-being of both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 16 weeks gestation visits her doctor with concerns about a new rash on her 6-year-old daughter's arm that appeared 2 days ago. The rash looks vesicular, and the mother reports that there is a chickenpox outbreak at school. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox in her childhood.
What should be the next step in managing this situation?Your Answer: Check the patient's varicella-zoster antibodies
Explanation:The first step in managing chickenpox exposure during pregnancy is to confirm the patient’s immunity by checking her varicella-zoster antibodies. If the woman is unsure about her past exposure to chickenpox, this test will determine if she has antibodies to the virus. If the test confirms her immunity, no further action is necessary. Administering the varicella-zoster vaccine or IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this situation. Neglecting to check the patient’s immunity status can put her and her unborn child at risk.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?Your Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk
Explanation:Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants
Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test, despite having an intrauterine system. She is urgently referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat. The patient has never been pregnant before but desires to have a family in the future. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Salpingectomy
Explanation:For women without other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the preferred first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingostomy. This is the case for a patient with visible foetal heartbeat and pain, as expectant management would be inappropriate and methotrexate is not suitable. Misoprostol is also not appropriate as it is used for incomplete miscarriages, which is not the case for this patient.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with G4P3 at 39 weeks gestation presents to the labour ward following a spontaneous rupture of membranes. She delivers a healthy baby vaginally but experiences excessive bleeding and hypotension. Despite attempts to control the bleeding, the senior doctor decides to perform a hysterectomy. Upon examination, the pathologist observes that the chorionic villi have deeply invaded the myometrium but not the perimetrium.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Placenta increta
Explanation:The correct answer is placenta increta, where the chorionic villi invade the myometrium but not the perimetrium. The patient’s age and history of multiple pregnancies increase the risk of this abnormal placentation, which can be diagnosed through pathological studies. Placenta accreta, percreta, and previa are incorrect answers, as they involve different levels of placental attachment and can cause different symptoms.
Understanding Placenta Accreta
Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.
There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old G1P0 28 weeks pregnant African American woman presents for her antenatal screening. Her BMI is 23 kg/m², her BP is 136/82 mmHg, her symphysis-fundal height is 29cm and her urine dipstick results are as follows:
Test Results
Ketones negative
Blood negative
Protein negative
Glucose trace
Nitrites negative
Leukocytes negative
What would be the most suitable course of action next?Your Answer: Arrange for a fasting glucose test
Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:During pregnancy, hormonal changes can lead to increased blood flow to the kidneys and an increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), allowing for more efficient filtering of the blood. The patient’s symphysis-fundal height is within the expected range, indicating that the baby is not macrosomic. The patient does not exhibit symptoms of gestational diabetes, such as polyuria, polydipsia, or nocturia, and does not have any risk factors for the condition. Therefore, arranging for a fasting glucose test is not the best option for diagnosing or excluding gestational diabetes. Instead, an OGTT should be considered the gold standard. Prescribing labetalol is not necessary as the patient does not exhibit any concerning signs of pre-eclampsia. Similarly, prescribing metformin is not indicated as the patient has not been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and does not require medication for diabetes at this time.
Physiological Changes During Pregnancy
The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.
The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.
The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.
The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.
Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.
The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been worsening with physical activity for the past month. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had normal prenatal testing. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her lungs are clear bilaterally without cardiac murmur. Mild dependent oedema is noted in her lower extremities. What is the probable cause of her dyspnoea?
Your Answer: Reduced functional residual capacity
Correct Answer: Increased minute ventilation
Explanation:Physiological Changes During Pregnancy and Breathlessness: Understanding the Relationship
During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes numerous physiological changes that can affect her respiratory system. One of the most significant changes is an increase in tidal volume, which leads to an overall increase in minute ventilation. This increased respiratory workload can result in a feeling of breathlessness, which is experienced by up to 75% of pregnant women, particularly during the first trimester. However, it is important to note that this feeling of breathlessness is typically not indicative of any underlying cardiac or pulmonary issues.
While some degree of dependent leg edema is normal during pregnancy, it is important to understand that other respiratory changes, such as a decrease in residual volume or a reduction in functional residual capacity, do not typically contribute to the feeling of breathlessness. Respiratory rate usually remains unchanged during pregnancy.
Overall, understanding the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy and their impact on the respiratory system can help healthcare providers better manage and address any concerns related to breathlessness in pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. Upon staging, it was found that she has a small malignant tumour that is only visible under a microscope and measures 6mm in width. The depth of the tumour is 2.5mm, and there is no evidence of nodal or distant metastases, classifying her disease as stage IA1. She expresses a desire to preserve her fertility as she has not yet started a family.
What treatment option would be most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Cone biopsy and close follow-up
Explanation:If a woman with stage IA cervical cancer wants to maintain her fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins and close follow-up may be considered as the best option. Hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance would not preserve fertility. Radical trachelectomy, which involves removing the cervix, upper part of the vagina, and surrounding tissues, and checking for cancer spread in the pelvis, is an option for IA2 tumors that also preserves fertility.
Management of Cervical Cancer Based on FIGO Staging
Cervical cancer management is determined by the FIGO staging and the patient’s desire to maintain fertility. The FIGO staging system categorizes cervical cancer into four stages based on the extent of the tumor’s spread. Stage IA and IB tumors are confined to the cervix, with IA tumors only visible under a microscope and less than 7 mm wide. Stage II tumors have spread beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall, while stage III tumors have spread to the pelvic wall. Stage IV tumors have spread beyond the pelvis or involve the bladder or rectum.
The management of stage IA tumors involves a hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance. For patients who want to maintain fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins can be performed, but close follow-up is necessary. Stage IB tumors are managed with radiotherapy and concurrent chemotherapy for B1 tumors and radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymph node dissection for B2 tumors.
Stage II and III tumors are managed with radiation and concurrent chemotherapy, with consideration for nephrostomy if hydronephrosis is present. Stage IV tumors are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy, with palliative chemotherapy being the best option for stage IVB. Recurrent disease is managed with either surgical treatment followed by chemoradiation or radiotherapy followed by surgical therapy.
The prognosis of cervical cancer depends on the FIGO staging, with higher survival rates for earlier stages. Complications of treatments include standard surgical risks, increased risk of preterm birth with cone biopsies and radical trachelectomy, and ureteral fistula with radical hysterectomy. Complications of radiotherapy include short-term symptoms such as diarrhea and vaginal bleeding and long-term effects such as ovarian failure and fibrosis of various organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Labour Suite, 2 weeks post-due date, for induction of labour. She is assessed using the Bishop’s scoring system and is noted to have a score of 5.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Vaginal PGE2, then reassess 6 h later
Explanation:Induction of Labour: Methods and Indications
Induction of labour is a medical procedure that is carried out when the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the risks of delivery. It is usually done in the interest of foetal wellbeing, rather than maternal wellbeing. There are various methods of inducing labour, and the choice of method depends on the individual case.
Vaginal PGE2 is a commonly used method of induction. The Bishop’s score is assessed, and if it is less than 6, vaginal PGE2 is administered. The cervix is reassessed after 6 hours, and if the score is still less than 7, further prostaglandin is given.
Other methods of induction include artificial rupture of membranes, which is performed when the woman is in active labour and her waters have not broken. A membrane sweep is offered at the 40- and 41-week checks for nulliparous women and at the 41-week check for multiparous women. Anti-progesterone is rarely used in the induction of labour.
Induction of labour is indicated in cases of foetal indications such as post-due date of more than 10 days, foetal growth restriction, deteriorating foetal abnormalities, and deteriorating haemolytic disease. It is also indicated in cases of maternal indications such as pre-eclampsia, deteriorating medical conditions, certain diabetic pregnancies, and if treatment is required for malignancy.
If vaginal PGE2 fails and the woman is not in active labour, artificial rupture of membranes with Syntocinon® may be performed. The choice of method depends on the individual case and the judgement of the healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old female who is 28 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain. She is tachycardic but is otherwise stable. On examination, her uterus is tender and hard, but fetal lie is normal. Cardiotocography shows no signs of fetal distress.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Emergency caesarean section
Correct Answer: Admit her and administer steroids
Explanation:When managing placental abruption in a case where the fetus is alive, less than 36 weeks old, and not displaying any signs of distress, the appropriate course of action is to admit the patient and administer steroids. Admitting the patient is necessary for monitoring and providing necessary care. Steroids are given to aid in the maturation of fetal lungs. It is recommended to deliver the baby at 37-38 weeks due to the increased risk of stillbirth. Tocolytics are not routinely given due to their controversial nature and potential for maternal cardiovascular side effects. Discharging the patient with safety netting is not appropriate as the patient is symptomatic. Activating the major haemorrhage protocol, calling 2222, and performing an emergency caesarean section are not the most suitable options as the patient is not hypotensive and there are no signs of fetal distress.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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