-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old regular gym attendee has been using growth hormone injections to enhance his muscle mass. What potential risks is he now more susceptible to?
Your Answer: Hypercholesterolaemia
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus type II
Explanation:Excessive growth hormone can elevate the likelihood of developing type II diabetes mellitus. This is due to the hormone’s ability to release glucose from fat reserves, which raises its concentration in the bloodstream. As a result, the pancreas must produce more insulin to counteract the heightened glucose levels.
Additional indications of surplus growth hormone may involve thickened skin, enlarged extremities, a protruding jaw, carpal tunnel syndrome, fatigue, muscle frailty, and high blood pressure.
Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions
Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.
GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.
In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A medical resident has been instructed by the geriatric consultant to review the medication chart of an elderly patient with a history of hypertension, heart failure, and biliary colic. The resident noticed a significant drop in systolic blood pressure upon standing and discontinued a medication that may have contributed to the postural hypotension. However, a few hours later, the patient's continuous cardiac monitoring showed tachycardia. Which medication cessation could have caused the tachycardia in this elderly patient?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Abruptly stopping atenolol, a beta blocker, can lead to ‘rebound tachycardia’. None of the other drugs listed have been associated with this condition. While ramipril, an ace-inhibitor, may have contributed to the patient’s postural hypotension, it is not known to cause tachycardia upon cessation. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can worsen postural hypotension by causing volume depletion, but it is not known to cause tachycardia upon discontinuation. Aspirin and clopidogrel, both antiplatelet drugs, are unlikely to be stopped abruptly and are not associated with either ‘rebound tachycardia’ or postural hypotension.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.
Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 27-year-old individual diagnosed with schizophrenia has a history of cannabis misuse and has discontinued their medication. They are currently experiencing auditory hallucinations where multiple voices are conversing about them. The voices are making derogatory comments, accusing the individual of being a paedophile and deserving punishment.
What is the best description of this hallucination?Your Answer: Third person hallucination
Explanation:Types of Auditory Hallucinations
There are different types of auditory hallucinations that individuals may experience. One type is third person hallucinations, where patients hear voices talking about them in the third person. This is considered a first rank symptom of schizophrenia, but it can also occur in other psychiatric disorders such as mania. Another type is extra-campine hallucinations, which are perceived as coming from outside of the normal sensory field, such as from several miles away. Functional hallucinations, on the other hand, are triggered by stimuli within the same sensory field, such as hearing a phone ring that triggers a voice. Lastly, imperative hallucinations involve the auditory hallucination giving instructions to the patient.
the Different Types of Auditory Hallucinations
Auditory hallucinations can be a distressing experience for individuals who hear voices that are not there. It is important to note that there are different types of auditory hallucinations, each with their own unique characteristics. Third person hallucinations involve hearing voices talking about the individual in the third person, while extra-campine hallucinations are perceived as coming from outside of the normal sensory field. Functional hallucinations are triggered by stimuli within the same sensory field, and imperative hallucinations involve the auditory hallucination giving instructions to the patient. the different types of auditory hallucinations can help individuals and healthcare professionals better identify and manage these experiences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man presents to the physician complaining of fatigue, dark urine, and swelling in his lower extremities that has been ongoing for the past two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. He denies using tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. During the physical examination, symmetric pitting oedema is observed in his lower extremities, and his blood pressure is 132/83 mmHg with a pulse of 84/min.
Laboratory results reveal a urea level of 4mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and a creatinine level of 83 µmol/L (55 - 120). Urinalysis shows 4+ proteinuria and microscopic hematuria. Electron microscopy of the kidney biopsy specimen reveals dense deposits within the glomerular basement membrane, and immunofluorescence microscopy is positive for C3, not immunoglobulins.
What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism underlying this patient's condition?Your Answer: Cell-mediated injury
Correct Answer: Persistent activation of alternate complement pathway
Explanation:The cause of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, type 2, is persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway, which leads to kidney damage. This condition is characterized by IgG antibodies, known as C3 nephritic factor, that target C3 convertase. In contrast, Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with anti-GBM antibodies, while rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis may involve cell-mediated injury. Immune complex-mediated glomerulopathies, such as SLE and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, are caused by circulating immune complexes, while non-immunologic kidney damage is seen in diabetic nephropathy and hypertensive nephropathy.
Understanding Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, also known as mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis, is a kidney disease that can present as nephrotic syndrome, haematuria, or proteinuria. Unfortunately, it has a poor prognosis. There are three types of this disease, with type 1 accounting for 90% of cases. It is caused by cryoglobulinaemia and hepatitis C, and can be diagnosed through a renal biopsy that shows subendothelial and mesangium immune deposits of electron-dense material resulting in a ‘tram-track’ appearance under electron microscopy.
Type 2, also known as ‘dense deposit disease’, is caused by partial lipodystrophy and factor H deficiency. It is characterized by persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway, low circulating levels of C3, and the presence of C3b nephritic factor in 70% of cases. This factor is an antibody to alternative-pathway C3 convertase (C3bBb) that stabilizes C3 convertase. A renal biopsy for type 2 shows intramembranous immune complex deposits with ‘dense deposits’ under electron microscopy.
Type 3 is caused by hepatitis B and C. While steroids may be effective in managing this disease, it is important to note that the prognosis for all types of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is poor. Understanding the different types and their causes can help with diagnosis and management of this serious kidney disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which serum protein is most likely to increase in a patient with severe sepsis?
Your Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:During an acute phase response, ferritin levels can significantly rise while other parameters typically decrease.
Acute Phase Proteins and their Role in the Body’s Response to Infection
During an infection or injury, the body undergoes an acute phase response where it produces a variety of proteins to help fight off the infection and promote healing. These proteins are known as acute phase proteins and include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, ceruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.
CRP is a commonly measured acute phase protein that is synthesized in the liver and binds to bacterial cells and those undergoing apoptosis. It is able to activate the complement system and its levels are known to rise in patients following surgery. Procalcitonin is another acute phase protein that is used as a marker for bacterial infections. Ferritin is involved in iron storage and transport, while fibrinogen is important for blood clotting. Alpha-1 antitrypsin helps protect the lungs from damage, and ceruloplasmin is involved in copper transport. Serum amyloid A and serum amyloid P component are involved in inflammation, while haptoglobin binds to hemoglobin to prevent its breakdown. Complement is a group of proteins that help to destroy pathogens.
During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins, including albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. These proteins are important for maintaining normal bodily functions, but their production is decreased during an infection or injury to allow for the production of acute phase proteins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old male presents for a preoperative evaluation for an inguinal hernia repair. During the assessment, you observe a loculated left pleural effusion on his chest x-ray. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he worked as a builder three decades ago. What is the probable reason for the effusion?
Your Answer: Silicosis
Correct Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Due to his profession as a builder, this individual is at risk of being exposed to asbestos. Given the 30-year latent period and the presence of a complex effusion, it is highly probable that the underlying cause is mesothelioma.
Understanding Mesothelioma
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the mesothelial layer of the pleural cavity, which is commonly linked to asbestos exposure. Although it is rare, other mesothelial layers in the abdomen may also be affected. Symptoms of mesothelioma include dyspnoea, weight loss, chest wall pain, and clubbing. In some cases, patients may present with painless pleural effusion. It is important to note that only 20% of patients have pre-existing asbestosis, but 85-90% have a history of asbestos exposure, with a latent period of 30-40 years.
Diagnosis of mesothelioma is typically made through a chest x-ray, which may show pleural effusion or pleural thickening. A pleural CT is then performed to confirm the diagnosis. If a pleural effusion is present, fluid is sent for MC&S, biochemistry, and cytology. However, cytology is only helpful in 20-30% of cases. Local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield of around 95%. If an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT, an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used.
Management of mesothelioma is mainly symptomatic, with industrial compensation available for those who have been exposed to asbestos. Chemotherapy and surgery may be options for those who are operable. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is poor, with a median survival of only 12 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old child is brought back to the hospital following a seizure. The medical team suspects that the child may have an enzyme deficiency affecting fructose-1,6 bisphosphatase, an essential enzyme for gluconeogenesis. What are the possible symptoms that may result from this enzyme defect?
Your Answer: Alkalosis
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Gluconeogenesis and its Differences from Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis is a process that is similar to glycolysis, but it occurs in reverse. While most of the reactions in glycolysis are reversible, there are some that are essentially irreversible. During gluconeogenesis, these reactions are bypassed by using different enzymes. For example, hexokinase in glycolysis is reversed by glucose 6 phosphatase during gluconeogenesis. Phosphofructokinase in glycolysis is reversed by fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase during gluconeogenesis. Pyruvate kinase in glycolysis is reversed by pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) carboxykinase during gluconeogenesis.
If there is an enzyme defect or deficiency affecting fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase, it can have a profound effect on the body’s ability to perform gluconeogenesis. This means that in times of fasting, blood sugar levels cannot be maintained by gluconeogenesis, leading to hypoglycaemia, lactic acidosis, hepatomegaly, and ketone production. Children with this condition often present in infancy, when there is a relatively low tolerance for fasting for even a few hours. While individual episodes can be treated fairly easily with glucose infusion, recurrent or severe episodes can cause an increased risk of cognitive dysfunction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man has a brain mass, but there is no rise in intracranial pressure. What could be the reason for the absence of increased intracranial pressure?
Your Answer: Dilated ventricles
Correct Answer: Reduced CSF as dictated by the Monro-Kelly Doctrine
Explanation:The Monro-Kelly Doctrine views the brain as a closed box, where any increase in one of the three components within the skull (brain, CSF, and blood) must be compensated by a decrease in one of the other components or else intracranial pressure will rise. To maintain intracranial pressure, changes in CSF volume can offset initial increases in brain volume. The CNS has the ability to regulate its own blood supply, so changes in diastolic and systolic pressure do not affect cerebral pressure. Cushing’s triad, which includes hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular breathing, is a set of symptoms that typically occur in the final stages of acute head injury due to increased intracranial pressure.
Understanding Cerebral Blood Flow and Angiography
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by the central nervous system, which can adjust its own blood supply. Various factors can affect cerebral pressure, including CNS metabolism, trauma, pressure, and systemic carbon dioxide levels. The most potent mediator is PaCO2, while acidosis and hypoxemia can also increase cerebral blood flow to a lesser degree. In patients with head injuries, increased intracranial pressure can impair blood flow. The Monro-Kelly Doctrine governs intracerebral pressure, which considers the brain as a closed box, and changes in pressure are offset by the loss of cerebrospinal fluid. However, when this is no longer possible, intracranial pressure rises.
Cerebral angiography is an invasive test that involves injecting contrast media into the carotid artery using a catheter. Radiographs are taken as the dye works its way through the cerebral circulation. This test can be used to identify bleeding aneurysms, vasospasm, and arteriovenous malformations, as well as differentiate embolism from large artery thrombosis. Understanding cerebral blood flow and angiography is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weakness in his right hand that has been ongoing for 2 months. He reports difficulty gripping objects and writing with his right hand. He denies any changes in sensation. The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis.
During the examination, there are no apparent signs of muscle wasting or fasciculation in the right hand. However, the patient is unable to form an 'OK sign' with his right thumb and index finger upon request.
Which nerve is the most likely culprit?Your Answer: Dorsal digital nerve
Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:The anterior interosseous nerve can be compressed between the heads of pronator teres, leading to an inability to perform a pincer grip with the thumb and index finger (known as the ‘OK sign’).
The correct answer is the anterior interosseous nerve, which is a branch of the median nerve responsible for innervating pronator quadratus, flexor pollicis longus, and flexor digitorum profundus. Damage to this nerve, such as through compression by pronator teres, can result in the inability to perform a pincer grip. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may be more susceptible to anterior interosseous nerve entrapment.
The dorsal digital nerve is a sensory branch of the ulnar nerve and does not cause motor deficits.
The palmar cutaneous nerve is a sensory branch of the median nerve that provides sensation to the palm of the hand.
The posterior interosseus nerve supplies muscles in the posterior compartment of the forearm with C7 and C8 fibers. Lesions of this nerve cause pure-motor neuropathy, resulting in finger drop and radial wrist deviation during extension.
Patients with ulnar nerve lesions can still perform a pincer grip with the thumb and index finger. Ulnar nerve lesions may cause paraesthesia in the fifth finger and hypothenar aspect of the palm.
The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies the deep muscles on the front of the forearm, excluding the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus. It runs alongside the anterior interosseous artery along the anterior of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, between the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus. The nerve supplies the whole of the flexor pollicis longus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and ends below in the pronator quadratus and wrist joint. The anterior interosseous nerve innervates 2.5 muscles, namely the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles are located in the deep level of the anterior compartment of the forearm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of severe vertigo that have been disabling. She experiences these episodes multiple times a day, with each one lasting for about 10-20 minutes. Along with the vertigo, she also experiences ringing in both ears, nausea, and vomiting. She has noticed a change in her hearing in both ears, with difficulty hearing at times and normal hearing at other times. Additionally, she reports increased pressure in her ears. During the examination, you notice a painless rash behind her ear that has been present for many years.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Correct Answer: Meniere’s disease
Explanation:Suspect Meniere’s disease in a patient presenting with vertigo, tinnitus, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. Acoustic neuroma would present with additional symptoms such as facial numbness and loss of corneal reflex. Herpes Zoster Oticus (Ramsey Hunt syndrome) would present with facial palsy and a painless rash. Vestibular neuronitis would have longer episodes of vertigo, nausea, and vomiting, but no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo would have brief episodes of vertigo after sudden head movements.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
You have been requested to assess the hands of a 65-year-old woman. Upon examination, you observe a swan neck deformity and ulnar deviation of the fingers with a 'z' deformity of her thumb, indicating the presence of rheumatoid arthritis. What type of hypersensitivity reaction does this condition exemplify?
Your Answer: Type 4
Correct Answer: Type 3
Explanation:The Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions categorizes reactions into four types. Rheumatoid arthritis is an instance of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, which is mediated by immune complexes.
Allergic rhinitis, on the other hand, is an example of a type 1 (immediate) reaction that is IgE mediated. It is a hypersensitivity to a previously harmless substance.
Type 2 reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM, which bind to a cell, causing its death. Goodpasture syndrome is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.
Type 4 (delayed) reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and cause contact dermatitis.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
An eager nursing student comes to you with a set of inquiries regarding blood transfusion reactions. Which of her subsequent statements is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia may occur in women with a prior pregnancy
Correct Answer: Graft versus host disease involves neutrophil proliferation
Explanation:A helpful mnemonic for remembering transfusion reactions is Got a bad unit. Each letter represents a potential complication:
G – Graft vs. Host disease
O – Overload
T – Thrombocytopenia
A – Alloimmunization
B – Blood pressure unstable
A – Acute hemolytic reaction
D – Delayed hemolytic reaction
U – Urticaria
N – Neutrophilia
I – Infection
T – Transfusion-associated lung injuryGraft vs. Host disease occurs when the patient’s own lymphocytes are similar to the donor’s lymphocytes, causing severe complications. Thrombocytopenia may occur a few days after transfusion and may resolve on its own. Patients with IGA antibodies require IgA deficient blood transfusions.
Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man is stabbed in the back. During examination, it is observed that he has a total absence of sensation at the nipple level. Which specific dermatome is accountable for this?
Your Answer: T5
Correct Answer: T4
Explanation:The dermatome for T4 can be found at the nipples, which can be remembered as Teat Pore.
Understanding Dermatomes: Major Landmarks and Mnemonics
Dermatomes are areas of skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve. Understanding dermatomes is important in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The major dermatome landmarks are listed in the table above, along with helpful mnemonics to aid in memorization.
Starting at the top of the body, the C2 dermatome covers the posterior half of the skull, resembling a cap. Moving down to C3, it covers the area of a high turtleneck shirt, while C4 covers the area of a low-collar shirt. The C5 dermatome runs along the ventral axial line of the upper limb, while C6 covers the thumb and index finger. To remember this, make a 6 with your left hand by touching the tip of your thumb and index finger together.
Moving down to the middle finger and palm of the hand, the C7 dermatome is located here, while the C8 dermatome covers the ring and little finger. The T4 dermatome is located at the nipples, while T5 covers the inframammary fold. The T6 dermatome is located at the xiphoid process, and T10 covers the umbilicus. To remember this, think of BellybuT-TEN.
The L1 dermatome covers the inguinal ligament, while L4 covers the knee caps. To remember this, think of being Down on aLL fours with the number 4 representing the knee caps. The L5 dermatome covers the big toe and dorsum of the foot (except the lateral aspect), while the S1 dermatome covers the lateral foot and small toe. To remember this, think of S1 as the smallest one. Finally, the S2 and S3 dermatomes cover the genitalia.
Understanding dermatomes and their landmarks can aid in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. The mnemonics provided can help in memorizing these important landmarks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man has been admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury. His blood test reveals low sodium levels and high potassium levels, likely due to his current renal function. You review his medications to ensure they are not exacerbating the situation. Which medication would you contemplate discontinuing due to its link with hyperkalemia?
Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Spironolactone is a diuretic that helps to retain potassium in the body, which can lead to hyperkalaemia. It is important to discontinue its use in patients with hyperkalaemia. Furthermore, it should not be used in cases of acute renal insufficiency.
Salbutamol, on the other hand, does not cause hyperkalaemia. In fact, it can be used to reduce high levels of potassium in severe cases.
Paracetamol, when used as directed, does not have any impact on potassium levels.
Verapamil is a medication that blocks calcium channels and does not affect potassium levels.
Drugs and their Effects on Potassium Levels
Many commonly prescribed drugs have the potential to alter the levels of potassium in the bloodstream. Some drugs can decrease the amount of potassium in the blood, while others can increase it.
Drugs that can decrease serum potassium levels include thiazide and loop diuretics, as well as acetazolamide. On the other hand, drugs that can increase serum potassium levels include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, and potassium-sparing diuretics like amiloride and triamterene. Additionally, taking potassium supplements like Sando-K or Slow-K can also increase potassium levels in the blood.
It’s important to note that the above list does not include drugs used to temporarily decrease serum potassium levels for patients with hyperkalaemia, such as salbutamol or calcium resonium.
Overall, it’s crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential effects of medications on potassium levels and to monitor patients accordingly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 2-day-old neonate is examined by a paediatrician for lethargy. The infant seems sleepy, and their mucous membranes appear dry. Upon measuring their blood glucose, it is found to be 32 mmol/L. A deficiency of a glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates glucose in the liver and beta cells of the pancreas is suspected as the cause of an inborn error of metabolism.
Which enzyme is the most likely to be affected?Your Answer: Enolase
Correct Answer: Glucokinase
Explanation:Glucose is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate by the enzyme glucokinase. This enzyme is involved in glycolysis and is found in pancreatic beta cells and the liver. Mutations in glucokinase can lead to monogenic diabetes mellitus or neonatal diabetes mellitus. Enolase is another glycolytic enzyme that converts 2-phosphoglycerate into phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP). Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is an enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway that converts glucose-6-phosphate into 6-phosphogluconolactone. Hexokinase is also a glycolytic enzyme, but it phosphorylates glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate in all tissues except for the liver and beta cells of the pancreas. In these specific tissues, glucokinase is responsible for phosphorylating glucose.
Glucokinase: An Enzyme Involved in Carbohydrate Metabolism
Glucokinase is an enzyme that can be found in various parts of the body such as the liver, pancreas, small intestine, and brain. Its primary function is to convert glucose into glucose-6-phosphate through a process called phosphorylation. This enzyme plays a crucial role in carbohydrate metabolism, which is the process of breaking down carbohydrates into energy that the body can use. Without glucokinase, the body would not be able to properly regulate its blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health problems such as diabetes. Overall, glucokinase is an essential enzyme that helps the body maintain its energy balance and overall health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of confusion. According to her family, she had made a resolution to quit drinking alcohol.
Her blood tests show:
Thiamine 25 nmol/L 50 – 220 nmol/L
Based on this data, what other clinical symptom is likely to be present?Your Answer: Confabulation
Explanation:Thiamine deficiency can have a significant impact on organs that rely heavily on aerobic respiration, such as the brain and heart. This deficiency can lead to Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Thiamine is a precursor for the cofactor of two enzymes that are crucial to the Krebs cycle, namely pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. While thiamine deficiency can affect the nervous system, causing peripheral sensory loss bilaterally, with associated weakness and absent ankle reflexes, it is not associated with a cape-like distribution of pain and temperature sensory loss, which is linked to syringomyelia. Ground glass opacifications on chest X-ray are not associated with thiamine deficiency, as they are a non-specific clinical feature of various lung pathologies. Auer rods on full blood count are specific to myelodysplastic disorders such as acute myeloid leukaemia and are not seen in thiamine deficiency disorders such as wet or dry beriberi.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A group of teachers in the kindergarten team want to establish the levels of literacy skills among their students.
They collect data over the course of a month and compare their results against the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC) guidelines for kindergarten literacy skills and find that they recommend all students should have basic literacy skills.
After the first month, they find that only 25% of their students have basic literacy skills.
They go on to develop a literacy program and repeat the data collection one month later. They find the levels of basic literacy skills have now improved to 75%.
What type of project is this?Your Answer: Cohort study
Correct Answer: Clinical audit
Explanation:The purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas where clinical practice falls short of the required standard and to implement interventions to improve these shortcomings. Developing interventions, such as electronic prompts, is a crucial aspect of clinical audits.
A case-control study is not applicable in this scenario. Case-control studies compare two groups based on different outcomes and retrospectively look for possible causal factors. However, in this case, there is only one group being evaluated, and the team is not looking for cause and effect.
Similarly, a cohort study is not appropriate. Cohort studies compare two groups with different characteristics over time to observe differing outcomes. This is a type of research study, which is not the aim of the clinical audit.
A risk assessment is also not relevant. Risk assessments evaluate the potential risks of an activity and are not appropriate for this scenario. A risk assessment may be conducted to assess the safety of oxygen delivery systems or the harms of not delivering oxygen to patients. However, the purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practice.
Likewise, a service evaluation is not the correct option. Service evaluations review clinical services for performance and outcomes, but not against any defined standards. Improving a service is an inherent part of a clinical audit and does not need to be explicitly mentioned.
Understanding Clinical Audit
Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.
Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.
In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past two days. He has not had a bowel movement in a week and has not passed gas in two days. He seems sluggish and has a temperature of 35.5°C. His pulse is 56 BPM, and his abdomen is not tender. An X-ray of his abdomen reveals enlarged loops of both small and large bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pseudo-obstruction
Explanation:Pseudo-Obstruction and its Causes
Pseudo-obstruction is a condition that can be caused by various factors, including hypothyroidism, hypokalaemia, diabetes, uraemia, and hypocalcaemia. In the case of hypothyroidism, the slowness and hypothermia of the patient suggest that this may be the underlying cause of the pseudo-obstruction. However, other factors should also be considered.
It is important to note that pseudo-obstruction is a condition that affects the digestive system, specifically the intestines. It is characterized by symptoms that mimic those of a bowel obstruction, such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. However, unlike a true bowel obstruction, there is no physical blockage in the intestines.
To diagnose pseudo-obstruction, doctors may perform various tests, including X-rays, CT scans, and blood tests. Treatment options may include medications to stimulate the intestines, changes in diet, and surgery in severe cases.
Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of pseudo-obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment and management of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with heart failure following 10 months of progressive ankle swelling and shortness of breath. She has been prescribed various medications, provided with lifestyle recommendations, and informed about her prognosis. Due to her new diagnosis, what are the two types of valve dysfunction that she is most susceptible to?
Your Answer: Pulmonary regurgitation and mitral stenosis
Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation and tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Functional mitral and tricuspid regurgitations are the most frequent valve dysfunctions that occur as a result of heart failure. This is due to the fact that the enlarged ventricles prevent the valves from fully closing during diastole.
Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman underwent axillary node clearance for breast cancer. After the surgery, she complains of shoulder weakness. Specifically, she cannot push herself forward from a wall using her right arm, and her scapula protrudes medially from the chest wall. What nerve injury is most probable?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s winged scapula is damage to the long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior muscle. This damage occurred during surgery and affects the nerve roots C5, C6, and C7. The serratus anterior muscle is responsible for protracting the scapula during a punching motion. It is important to note that lateral winging of the scapula may indicate weakness in the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve.
The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging
The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.
One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.
Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe headache in the occipital region. The pain started an hour ago while he was making breakfast and rates the severity as 10/10. The patient has a medical history of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. During examination, the patient appears to be sensitive to light and has stiffness on neck flexion. Neurological examination is normal. The patient's vital signs are stable with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, heart rate of 88 beats per minute, and temperature of 37.2 ºC. What is the most likely cause of this patient's headache?
Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:Subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterised by a sudden occipital headache, often described as the worst headache of the patient’s life. It is commonly caused by the rupture of a cerebral aneurysm and is associated with hypertension, smoking, and autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. Symptoms may also include photophobia and neck stiffness. Bacterial meningitis, extradural haematoma, and intracerebral haematoma are incorrect answers as they present with different symptoms and causes.
There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 74-year-old man with oesophageal cancer undergoes a CT scan to evaluate cancer staging. The medical team is worried about the cancer's rapid growth. What is the level at which the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm?
Your Answer: T11
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragmatic opening for the oesophagus is situated at the T10 level, while the T8 level corresponds to the opening for the inferior vena cava.
Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body
The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.
In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man presents with abdominal tenderness, steatorrhoea, and jaundice. Upon investigation, a somatostatinoma of the pancreas is discovered. What is the probable cell type from which this neoplasm originated?
Your Answer: Delta-cells
Explanation:Somatostatin is secreted by the delta cells located in the pancreas. These cells are also present in the stomach, duodenum, and jejunum. In the pancreas, somatostatin plays a role in inhibiting the release of exocrine enzymes, glucagon, and insulin. In rare cases of large somatostatinomas, patients may experience mild diabetes mellitus.
The answer choices of alpha-cells, beta-cells, and S-cells are incorrect as they secrete glucagon, insulin, and secretin, respectively.
Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone
Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.
The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.
In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated by a vascular specialist for poor diabetes control. His HbA1c is 7.8% and he has a medical history of type II diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and hypothyroidism. During the examination, the specialist observes diminished posterior tibial pulses. Which area is likely to experience compromised blood supply due to reduced blood flow through the posterior tibial artery?
Your Answer: Posterior compartment of the leg and plantar surface of the foot
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the posterior compartment of the leg as well as the plantar surface of the foot.
Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery
The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.
The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.
Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of dizziness upon standing. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. The doctor diagnoses him with orthostatic hypotension.
What are the possible causes of this type of heart failure?Your Answer: Diastolic dysfunction
Correct Answer: Systolic dysfunction
Explanation:Types of Heart Failure
Heart failure is a clinical syndrome where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic needs. It can be classified in multiple ways, including by ejection fraction, time, and left/right side. Patients with heart failure may have a normal or abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), which is measured using echocardiography. Reduced LVEF is typically defined as < 35 to 40% and is termed heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HF-rEF), while preserved LVEF is termed heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). Heart failure can also be described as acute or chronic, with acute heart failure referring to an acute exacerbation of chronic heart failure. Left-sided heart failure is more common and may be due to increased left ventricular afterload or preload, while right-sided heart failure is caused by increased right ventricular afterload or preload. High-output heart failure is another type of heart failure that occurs when a normal heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. By classifying heart failure in these ways, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying causes and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It is important to note that many guidelines for the management of heart failure only cover HF-rEF patients and do not address the management of HF-pEF patients. Understanding the different types of heart failure can help healthcare professionals provide more effective care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits a Genetics clinic to discuss her son's recent diagnosis of Batten disease, which she has learned is partially caused by defects in the cellular Golgi apparatus. What is the typical function of this organelle in a cell?
Your Answer: N-linked glycosylation of cytosolic proteins
Correct Answer: Addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins for trafficking to lysosomes
Explanation:The Golgi apparatus is responsible for adding mannose-6-phosphate to proteins, which facilitates their trafficking to lysosomes. This is a crucial function of the Golgi, which modifies molecules for secretion or lysosomal breakdown. The peroxisome, not the Golgi, is responsible for catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids. Degradation of ubiquitinylated proteins occurs in the proteasome, not the Golgi. The manufacture of lysosomal enzymes is not a function of the Golgi, as these enzymes are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and then transported to the lysosome.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 65-year-old avid hiker complains of discomfort in her leg while ascending hills and using stairs. Which muscle is accountable for extending the hip?
Your Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:The gluteus medius and minimus muscles are responsible for hip abduction, while the gluteus maximus muscle externally rotates and extends the hip. The gluteus maximus muscle originates from the sacrum, coccyx, and posterior surface of the ilium, and inserts onto the gluteal tuberosity. The other gluteal muscles attach to the greater trochanter to facilitate abduction.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). During an MDT meeting, it was decided that her first-line treatment will involve chemotherapy. The chosen drug is an antimetabolite that acts as a pyrimidine antagonist, inhibiting DNA polymerase and interfering with DNA synthesis.
What chemotherapy drug is most likely being prescribed based on the above mechanism of action?Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Cytarabine
Explanation:Cytarabine is a medication used in chemotherapy to treat acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). It works by interfering with DNA synthesis during the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibiting DNA polymerase.
Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits xanthine oxidase, which prevents the production of uric acid. It is commonly used to treat gout, but can also be used to prevent hyperuricaemia in high-grade lymphoma and leukaemia before chemotherapy treatment.
Methotrexate works by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis. It is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and various types of cancer.
Ondansetron is an anti-emetic medication that is used to prevent nausea during chemotherapy treatment. It works by selectively blocking serotonin receptors (5-HT3) in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) of the medulla.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
Which type of antibody plays a crucial role in inhibiting the attachment of viruses to the apical membrane of enterocytes?
Your Answer: A
Explanation:The Functions of Different Types of Antibodies
There are various types of B cells in the gut’s mucosa, collectively known as GALT. These B cells produce IgA dimers that attach to the basal aspect of enterocytes. Using their J chain, IgA dimers pass through epithelial cells and become sIgA, which is more resistant to intraluminal enzymatic breakdown. sIgA then enters the GIT lumen, where it helps to prevent viruses from binding to epithelial cells.
The function of IgD is currently unknown, while IgE is crucial in responding to fungi, worms, and type I hypersensitivity reactions. IgG is the most specific antibody type, capable of crossing the placenta and forming antibody-antigen complexes. IgM forms pentamers and aids in activating complement.
In summary, different types of antibodies have distinct functions in the body. IgA helps to block viruses in the gut, while IgE responds to certain allergens. IgG is highly specific and can cross the placenta, while IgM activates complement. The function of IgD remains a mystery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of gradual hair loss. Upon physical examination, it is noted that he has a receding hairline in the front and thinning of hair at the crown. Further inquiry reveals a family history of early hair loss. The diagnosis of androgenic alopecia is made, and the physician decides to prescribe a medication that inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone.
What is the most probable drug that the physician will prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finasteride
Explanation:Finasteride is a medication that is commonly used to treat male-pattern baldness. This condition is caused by the presence of dihydrotestosterone (DHT), which is produced when testosterone is converted by the enzyme 5α-reductase. Finasteride works by inhibiting this enzyme, which reduces the production of DHT. It is believed that high levels of DHT can damage hair follicles, leading to weaker and shorter hair. By decreasing DHT production, finasteride can help to slow down or even reverse hair loss.
Griseofulvin is another medication that is used to treat a different condition affecting the scalp. This medication is an antifungal agent and is effective in treating tinea capitis, which is a superficial fungal infection of the scalp.
Flutamide is a medication that is used to treat prostate carcinoma. It works by blocking androgen receptors, which can slow down the growth of cancer cells.
Letrozole is a medication that is used to treat breast cancer in women. It works by inhibiting the conversion of androgens to estrogen. However, it is not effective in treating male-pattern baldness, as the problem in this condition is not related to estrogen levels.
Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects
Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called 5 alpha-reductase. This enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone, a hormone that contributes to the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness. By blocking this enzyme, finasteride can help alleviate the symptoms of these conditions.
Finasteride is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a condition in which the prostate gland becomes enlarged and causes urinary problems. It is also used to treat male-pattern baldness, a genetic condition that causes hair loss in men. However, like any medication, finasteride can cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of finasteride include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. Additionally, finasteride can cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen, a protein that is often used to screen for prostate cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)